Quiz
Flight Chief QC 2015
Create a free account to finish this quiz
Save your progress and see your final score.
Already have an account? Sign in
Questions in this quiz (107)
1. The Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program ensures personnel ______ and ______ nuclear weapons and nuclear weapons systems to satisfy the safety standards?
- Adesign and operate
- Bcontrol and limit
- Csecure and design
- Doperate and control
2What Department of Defense (DoD) Directive governs the Nuclear Weapon System Safety Program?
- ADirective 3150.2
- BDirective 3150.3
- CDirective 3151.1
- DDirective 3105.2
3Which DoD safety standard is correct?
- AThere shall be positive measures to prevent nuclear weapons involved in accidents or incidents, or jettisoned weapons, from producing a nuclear yield.
- BThere shall be positive measures to prevent INADVERTENT prearming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons, except upon execution of emergency war orders or when directed by competent authority.
- CThere shall be positive measures to prevent DELIBERATE prearming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons in all normal and credible abnormal environments.
- DThere shall be positive measures to ensure adequate security of nuclear weapons, pursuant to DODM S-5210.41-R_AFI31-108V1
4Which PL resource does the following reflect? “Limited funding dictates our most important national defense assets receive the greater share of available SF resources"
- APL 1
- BPL 2
- CPL 3
- DPL 4
5The appropriate level of security for a PL 1 resource will?
- AResult in the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts.
- BResult in significant deterrence against hostile acts
- CResult in a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts.
- DReduce the opportunity for theft of or damage to resources.
6Mission essential communications facilities and computer centers, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON) facilities, to include off installation navigational aids and related resources, control towers, power plants, and environmental control systems critical to operational capability are all an example of what PL resource?
- APL 4
- BPL 3
- CPL 2
- DPL 1
7The DoD FPCON System describes the _______ level of protective measures that are implemented by all the DoD Components in _______ of or in _______ to a terrorist threat or attack.
- Aprogressive, anticipation, response
- Bincreased, anticipation, expectation
- Cimproved, prospect, suspense
- Dincreased, response, prospect
8Which FPCON applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture?
- ANormal
- BAlpha
- CBravo
- DCharlie
9Which measures in this FPCON must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?
- AAlpha
- BBravo
- CCharlie
- DNormal
10This FPCON applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
- ABravo
- BCharlie
- CNormal
- DAlpha
11FPCON _________ applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.
- ACharlie
- BDelta
- CBravo
- DAlpha
12Which FPCON, if implemented for a prolonged period of time may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel?
- ACharlie
- BDelta
- CBravo
- DAlpha
13Which FPCON is usually declared as a localized condition?
- ADelta
- BCharlie
- CBravo
- DAlpha
14The Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix is reviewed and updated how frequently?
- AAnnually
- BBi-Annually
- CQuarterly
- DMonthly
15Who will be provided a copy of the Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix?
- AMSC and all SCCs
- BMSC and KCCC
- CKCCC and all MCCs
- DACP and all MCC
16The Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix will be considered __________ when filled in.
- ADCNI
- BSecret
- CClassified
- DControlled
17When declaring security situations you will use?
- AAn appropriate number with a letter or appropriate number with indications along with correct location and time of indications in minutes.
- BLF number with appropriate call sign of SF responders with indications of alarm and status.
- CLocation and time of incident with the appropriate LF number annotated in the left column.
- DA number and letter indicating the correct location and time of indications in minutes.
18If an IZ is received in the secondary flight, ________ will contact ________ to determine if the IZ is authorized or has been reported.
- AMCC, MSC
- BFSC, MSC
- CMCC, ACP
- DFCC, SCP
19Anytime an uncoordinated or unexpected MSLA occurs at an LF in conjunction with a security situation, the _________ will immediately notify the _________ or __________ (if applicable).
- AMCC, FSC, MSC
- BMCC, MSC, KCCC
- CFSC, SCP, MSC
- DACP, MSC, MCC
20What travel condition exists if sustained winds are 35-45 Knots, visibility is 0.1 to 0.5 Miles and Drifting snow or packed snow and ice is 0.5” to 6” (Patchy)?
- AYellow
- BRC I
- CRed
- DRC II
21Who grants permission for any lone member dispatching during TC YELLOW?
- AWing CC
- BGroup CC
- CSquadron CC
- DFlight CC
22The SFG, OG, MXG and MSG leadership and representatives designated (in writing), may travel alone provided permission is obtained from the owning Group CC during TC YELLOW. What MUST they travel in and what MUST it be equipped with?
- A4-wheel drive, radio-equipped
- Bradio-equipped, SF logo
- Clight bar, PA system
- DSF logo, 4-wheel drive
23Commercial facility stops are authorized to combat driver fatigue, health and safety issues. When will SF teams notify their respective control center?
- APrior to stopping and upon resuming travel
- BSF teams are not required to notify their respective control center.
- CPrior to stopping only.
- DUpon resuming travel only.
24Brief rest or safety stops at gas stations, convenience stores or eating establishments are allowed outside a _________ radius from the base.
- A25 Mile
- B20 Mile
- C15 Mile
- D10 Mile
25When armed and stopping at commercial facilities one team member will remain with the vehicle at all times to?
- Amonitor radio communications and safeguard team weapons.
- Bsafeguard team weapons and vehicle.
- Csafeguard the vehicle and monitor radio communications.
- Dno one is required to stay with the vehicle.
26Who shall ensure sufficient response forces are dispatched and tactically employed to defeat the adversary prior to the adversary gaining access to the weapon?
- ASF controller
- BFlight CC
- CMSC controller
- DFlight Chief
27How many security situations can be in effect at a time for any one LF or MAF?
- A1
- BOnly 2 at a time
- C3
- DAs many security situations affecting an LF or MAF at the time
28If indications show a need to upgrade the existing situation, who will upgrade the security situation and who do they notify immediately?
- AMCC upgrades the security situation and immediately notifies the FSC and MSC.
- BResponding SFs upgrade the security situation and immediately notify the FSC and MCC.
- CFSC upgrades the security situation and immediately notifies the MCC and MSC.
- DResponding SFs upgrade the security situation and immediately notify the Flight CC/Chief.
29An initial remote alarm assessment will be made using this equipment to determine if the OZ-only alarm requires an SF response?
- ACertified RVA
- BWSTI pan tilt thermal infrared camera
- CPTZ FLIR thermal imager
- DBinoculars
30The _________ establishes a program to selectively exercise SF elements and identifies, in writing, individuals authorized to conduct SREs.
- ASFG/CC
- BWing CC
- CSquadron CC
- DFlight CC
31Personnel conducting Security Reaction Exercises (SREs) coordinate with whom before initiating the SRE?
- AMSC
- BFSC
- CKCCC
- DMCC
32Who will notify the MCC and WCP to prevent an exercise situation form being up-channeled as an actual event?
- AMSC
- BFSC
- CMCC
- DACP
33The passing and receipt of the current primary duress word best describes what?
- AActive duress
- BPassive duress
- CSign counter sign
- DNone of the above
34Non-compliance with established procedures (failure to report as prescribed, reporting incorrectly, using bogus or reversed call signs, team entering the wrong LF, etc.) best describes what?
- APassive duress
- BActive duress
- CArticle 92
- DBoth B and C
35Units will publish procedures for active and passive duress in what?
- AIDP
- BOI
- CCOP
- DIPC
36MCC and the FSC will request how many authentications if a team indicate duress by entering the wrong LF by accident?
- A2
- B1
- CAuthentications are not required
- DNone of the above
37A security situation may only be terminated by what?
- ATwo good authentications from an armed and MEED-equipped SF team.
- BTwo good authentications from any MEED-equipped SF personnel.
- CPassing correct dispatch information and equipped with a MEED.
- DOne good authentication from any personnel equipped with a MEED.
38A change in a Response Condition (RC) does not automatically change a ____________.
- ATravel Condition (TC
- BGreen Road
- CRed Road
- DYellow Road
39 Normal conditions exist and LF(s) is/are accessible to SF best describes what?
- ARoad Condition I
- BTravel Condition I
- CRC II
- DTC II
40Weather or road conditions have affected response, or the ability to respond to the LF(s) and the site(s) is/are not accessible best describes what?
- ARC II
- BTravel Condition I
- CRC I
- DTC II
41How frequently will periodic attempts be made to respond to sites under RC II conditions?
- AAt least daily
- BAt least every other day
- CAttempts will be made once road conditions have been upgraded to RC I
- DWhen SF personnel have time and are available
42Use ________ where available and operational to periodically view (not to exceed one hour) those sites that cannot be reached during RC II.
- ARVA
- BWSTI pan tilt thermal infrared camera
- CPTZ FLIR thermal imager
- DBinoculars
43Who is authorized to approve Road Condition (RC) changes?
- Athe Wing CC or designated representative (in writing)
- BMSC
- Cthe Squadron CC or designated representative (in writing)
- Dthe Group CC or designated representative (in writing)
44The LF "A" circuit and "B" circuit, with operational
combinations installed are an integral part of the launcher security system and are classified what?- ASECRET/NOFORN
- BSECRET
- CTOP SECRET
- DCONFIDENTIAL
45____________ personnel must open the security pit vault door.
- A“A” side
- B“B” side
- C“A” or “B” side
- DAnyone on a dispatch
46Who will perform a lift check of the “A” circuit after it has been secured?
- ASecurity and Maintenance team member
- BSecurity Forces team member only
- CMaintenance team member only
- DTwo authorized Security Forces team members
47Mission Cat VII teams guarding LFs will not have access ____________ when the B-Plug is insecure
- A“A” Circuit combinations
- B“B” Circuit combinations
- CBoth “A” and “B” combinations
- DNone of the above
48To assist in an emergency, who will be trained in procedures necessary to raise and lower the B-Plug?
- AAll security personnel performing SET duties
- BOnly SET personnel
- CSET and MFT personnel
- DMaintenance personnel only
49Who will be immediately notified of a suspected “A” circuit lockout?
- AFSC, MSC and the MCC
- BFSC, MSC and KCCC
- CFSC only
- DMSC only
50 Security Forces may perform critical emergency maintenance tasks as directed by MMOC. What emergency maintenance tasks are SF personnel authorized to perform and if not accomplished in minimum time would result in damage to equipment?
- AEnvironmental control system resets and primary power system resets
- BPrimary power system resets only
- CSF personnel are not authorized to perform critical emergency maintenance tasks
- DLF security lighting resets only
51Who specifically authorizes and directly controls Security Forces performing critical emergency maintenance tasks?
- AMMOC
- BMSC
- CMCC
- DFSC
52Each LF is protected by how many sensors that terminates at the MCC’s console in the launch control center (LCC)?
- ATwo
- BThree
- COne
- DFour
53What does an OZ alarm detect?
- AIntrusions within a perimeter inside the topside of the LF.
- BIntrusions within the entire fenced in portion of the LF.
- CPenetration attempts to the launcher.
- DPenetration attempts to the LF gate.
54What does an IZ alarm detect?
- APenetration attempts to the launcher.
- BPenetration attempts to the WSA.
- CIntrusions within a perimeter inside the topside of the LF.
- DWarhead intrusions
55While on Alert the ____________ is in command of the flight area.
- AMCC
- BFSC
- CMSC
- DACP
56________________ reported to the MCC also provides indications of potential intrusions into protected areas of the LF.
- AWeapons System Alarms
- BMOSR 46
- CPVLA
- DSeismic Alarm
57When the _________ cannot perform their duties, responsibility transfers to the __________ at the __________ or a __________. If these SCCs are unable to perform this function, responsibility transfers to _____________ having communications capability with an MCC.
- AMSC, SCC, ACP, SCP, any surviving mobile element
- BMCC, SCC, SCP, ACP, any surviving mobile element
- CSCC, MSC, MCC, ACP, SCP, any surviving mobile element
- DMSC, MCC, SCC, ACP, any surviving mobile element
58When multiple LFs report with the same response priority, assess each LF using what device?
- ARVA
- BCCTV
- CIVA
- DWSTI
59Prioritize LF(s) response without what capability?
- ARVA
- BIZ
- COZ
- DPower
60Who can make a visual assessment of a site but is not allowed to conduct a complete investigation?
- AA single individual
- BOSI
- CMFT
- DART/SRT
61Who can be diverted to assist in assessing alarms, but must be coordinated with the missile maintenance operations center (MMOC)?
- AMaintenance Teams with Set Guards traveling through the area
- BSet Guards
- CMobile Fire Teams
- DSecurity Response Teams with Mobile Fire Teams
62Teams carrying ___________ will not be used to conduct visual assessments, nor will they respond to investigate alarms.
- ACode Components, critical components, or classified material (other than MEED)
- BMEED
- CIG personnel
- DUSKAK 55 CDR
63Physically check secure, unguarded LFs once every __________ days
- A15
- B7
- C3
- D12
64When conducting physical checks of unguarded LFs, what activations must be included?
- AInner and Outer zone IDS activation(s)
- BMOSR 48 activations
- CPGLV activations
- DWALM activations
65Teams generating IZ alarms during an LF check are not required to ___________ upon IZ illumination if two team members have authenticated within the previous _____ minutes.
- AAuthenticate, 30 minutes
- BAuthenticate, 60 minutes
- CStrike the site, 30 minutes
- DStrike the site, 15 minutes
66Which agency identifies the need for a team to be dispatched to the missile field?
- AInitiating agency
- BDispatch agency
- CKCCC
- DMSC
67Who confirms the need for sending the team into the missile field?
- ADispatch agency
- BInitiating agency
- CKCCC
- DMSC
68Who assigns the mission category?
- AInitiating agency
- BDispatch agency
- CMCC
- DACP
69Who is responsible for ensuring that all personnel assigned to PRP duties have their PRP status verified prior to being placed on the AFGSC Form 246/MADO?
- AInitiating agency
- BKCCC
- CDispatch agency
- DMSC
70Specific individuals within each initiating agency must be appointed in writing using what form?
- AAFGSC Form 577 (Signature Card)
- BAFGSC Form 246/MADO
- CAFGSC Form 245
- DOfficial memo with corresponding letter head from owning squadron
71What is recommended but not required for trips dispatching to the missile field that will not require entry to LFs and MAFs?
- AAFGSC Form 246
- BAFGSC Form 245
- CAFGSC Form 247
- DAFGSC Form 248
72What is MECS designed to control?
- AThe information required for unescorted entry to LFs or MAFs, and prevents one person from possessing enough information or material to enter a secured launcher.
- BOperational keying material classified Secret//Crypto//NOFORN
- CHHUs used to encrypt or decrypt
- DOperational security for the control and management of COMSEC material.
73Operational keying material is classified as what?
- ASECRET
- BCRYPTO
- CNOFORN
- DAll of the above
74. An ____________ is considered compromised when the possibility exists that an unauthorized personnel knows an individual’s authenticator?
- Aauthenticator
- Btrip number
- Cdispatch
- Dcategory
75Individuals receiving authenticators must not make any record ___________ or ___________?
- Awritten, electronic
- Bfiled, saved
- Cwritten, filed
- Delectronic, saved
76The MEED device is a __________?
- Asplit knowledge offline cipher system used for personnel authentication and passing combinations.
- Bonline cipher system
- Csplit knowledge cipher system used for passing duress
- Dsystem used to pass combinations only
77“A” side MEED units are what color?
- AYellow
- BBlue
- CGreen
- DOrange
78“B” side MEED units are what color?
- ABlue
- BYellow
- CAmber
- DOrange
79Units are authorized to conduct minor maintenance activities on the MEED equipment. What minor maintenance is authorized?
- AChanging the batteries, cleaning and adjusting the connector and battery compartment contacts, or adjusting bent pins
- B Internal maintenance
- CChanging the batteries only
- Dcleaning the connector and battery contacts only
80What type of maintenance of MEED devices is prohibited?
- AInternal maintenance
- BExternal maintenance
- CCleaning and adjusting the connector and battery compartment contacts
- Dadjusting bent pins
81What form is used to issue, transfer, and receive MEED units form the location the MEED unit is assigned?
- AAFGSC Form 247
- BAFGSC Form 246
- CAFGSC Form 245
- DAFGSC Form 248
82When does routine zeroization of a field key in the DTU occur?
- AWhen the team member issued that key returns the HHU to KCCC.
- BWhen the team member issued that key is in route to MSC.
- CEach day the team member turns the HHU over to the FSC for storage/safe keeping.
- DWhen the person in possession of the HHU believes it to be at risk of overt or covert personnel.
83What is accomplished when an individual believes the device in their possession may be compromised by overt or covert means, or when ordered by competent authority?
- AEmergency zeroization
- BRoutine zeroization
- CImmediate zeroization
- DRegular zeroization
84The KL-86 and KL-85 are given what classification when unkeyed?
- AUNCLASSIFIED
- BSECRET
- CDoD UCNI
- DCLASSIFIED
85The KL-86 and KL-85 are handled as and controlled as what?
- ACryptographic items
- BClassified
- CNOFORN
- DControlled/Classified items
86Prior to allowing access to MECS/MEED material all holders must be ___________?
- Apositively identified
- Bwearing military uniform
- Can E-6 or above
- Dan O-3 or above
87What must a team arriving at the MAF gate pass the FSC?
- ATheir trip number, team chief’s name and rank, and number of personnel
- BTheir trip number and number of personnel
- CTeam chief’s name, rank and number of personnel
- DSecurity status, name, rank and trip number
88What form(s) must your information be verified against prior to the FSC allowing entry to the MAF?
- AAFGSC Form 246/MADO/EAL
- BAFGSC Form 245/MADO/EAL
- CAFGSC Form 247/MADO/EAL
- DAFGSC Form 248/MADO/EAL
89What are the standard methods of passing dispatch information for MAF entry?
- Avehicle radios or the gate phone
- Bradios and cell phone
- Cgate phone only
- Dvehicle radios only
90SF must ensure all personnel requiring escorted entry to the SCC, elevator shaft way, LCEB and/or LCC are _____________ prior to entering the SCC?
- Avisually inspected
- Bsimple frisk
- Csimple search
- Ddetailed search
91Visual inspections of personnel requiring escorted entry to the SCC, elevator shaft wary, LCEB and/or LCC will consist of what?
- Aremoving all items from pockets and a visual inspection of the individual and all hand-carried items
- Bthe use of a Trans frisker device and a visual inspection of all hand-carried items
- Cvisual inspections are not authorized. A simple frisk must be accomplished prior to allowing entry
- Descort authority may vouch for personnel requiring entry
92Emergency vehicles transporting ______________ will not be delayed for inspections?
- Aseriously injured personnel
- Bemergency responders
- Cbodily organs on ice
- Dlife support equipment with a shelf life
93Who is the approval authority for teams entering LFs?
- AMCC
- BMSC
- CFSC
- DFlight CC/Chief
94Who will grant permission for all trips to depart the site?
- AFSC and MCC
- BMCC and MSC
- CFSC and MSC
- DMCC only
95Who is the exception and may be allowed on to a site with a security situation in progress?
- AResponding security teams
- BMilitary maintenance personnel
- CCivilian maintenance contractors
- DContracted surveillance team and emergency water intrusion team
96Subsequent follow-on teams may not need to ____________ if the on-site team chief, or assistant team chief personally recognizes and vouches for the team chief requesting entry?
- Aauthenticate
- Brequest entry
- Cprocess onto the LF
- Dpass combinations
97If the team requesting entry to the LF is comprised of one individual and the on-site team chief is unable to make positive personal recognition, how many authentications are required of the one individual requesting entry?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
98Prior to entering LFs, the convoy CC ________________ the convoy composition to the __________?
- APre-announces, FSC
- BPre-announces, MSC
- CPre-announces, LCC
- DNone of the above
99Which is correct of the following?
- AThe weapons transporting vehicle will not stop outside the LF but will immediately enter
- BThe weapons transporting vehicle will stop outside the LF, authenticate and immediately enter
- CThe convoy CC will authenticate in route to the LF and immediately enter
- DThe convoy CC will authenticate with the receiving flight area MCC before leaving MSB
100The RF shall arrive before a hostile force can penetrate the secure portions of the LF, but in not more than _____________?
- A30 minutes
- B45 minutes
- C60 minutes
- D90 minutes
101The BF shall be dispatched concurrently with the RF and shall arrive at the threatened LF in not more than ____________?
- A45 minutes
- B30 minutes
- C60 minutes
- D90 minutes
102Those actions, proportional to the threat, that disrupt the adversary and delay them from meaningful work in order to prevent theft, damage, sabotage, destruction, or detonation of a nuclear weapon best describes what?
- AImmediate, Sufficient Duress
- BFinal Denial Fire
- CContainment
- DDelay
103The ability of the security forces to place effective fire on the entrances to facilities or platforms containing nuclear weapons best describes what?
- AFinal Denial Fire
- BDelay
- CContainment
- DImmediate, Sufficient Duress
104A payload transporter carrying a nuclear weapon with a malfunction, breakdown, or other non-hostile condition(s) off base and deemed long-term may require establishing a what?
- ANDA
- B360
- CSafe Haven
- DLACE/SALUTE report
105Who approves establishment of the NDA?
- AGroup level or higher Commander
- BSquadron CC
- CConvoy CC
- DFlight Chief
106Who will establish the initial area and direct actions to expedite NDA approval?
- AConvoy CC
- BConvoy Tactical CC
- CSquadron CC
- DGroup CC or higher
107IAW USSTRATCOM CCIR reporting criteria, which must be notified of any establishment of an NDA?
- AUSSTRATCOM Global Operations Center (GOC)
- B20th Air Force
- C20 AFGSC/CC
- DBase CC
Information
- Description
- study material for qc
- Author
- donale paine
- Language
- English
- Views
- 63
- Tags
- Rating
- No ratings yet Rate this quiz