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Secure Software Development Final

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Computer Science Quiz on Secure Software Development Final , created by Thomas Kreuser on 18/04/2017.
Thomas Kreuser
Quiz by Thomas Kreuser, updated more than 1 year ago
Thomas Kreuser
Created by Thomas Kreuser about 7 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
The PRIMARY reason for incorporating security into the software development life cycle is to protect
Answer
  • the unauthorized disclosure of information.
  • the corporate brand and reputation
  • against hackers who intend to misuse the software.
  • the developers from releasing software with security defects.

Question 2

Question
The resiliency of software to withstand attacks that attempt modify or alter data in an unauthorized manner is referred to as
Answer
  • Confidentiality.
  • Integrity.
  • Availability.
  • Authorization.

Question 3

Question
The MAIN reason as to why the availability aspects of software must be part of the organization’s software security initiatives is:
Answer
  • software issues can cause downtime to the business.
  • developers need to be trained in the business continuity procedures.
  • testing for availability of the software and data is often ignored.
  • hackers like to conduct Denial of Service (DoS) attacks against the organization.

Question 4

Question
Developing the software to monitor its functionality and report when the software is down and unable to provide the expected service to the business is a protection to assure which of the following?
Answer
  • Confidentiality.
  • Integrity.
  • Availability.
  • Authentication.

Question 5

Question
When a customer attempts to log into their bank account, the customer is required to enter a nonce from the token device that was issued to the customer by the bank. This type of authentication is also known as which of the following?
Answer
  • Ownership based authentication.
  • Two factor authentication.
  • Characteristic based authentication.
  • Knowledge based authentication.

Question 6

Question
Multi-factor authentication is most closely related to which of the following security design principles?
Answer
  • Separation of Duties.
  • Defense in depth.
  • Complete mediation.
  • Open design.

Question 7

Question
Audit logs can be used for all of the following EXCEPT
Answer
  • providing evidentiary information.
  • assuring that the user cannot deny their actions.
  • detecting the actions that were undertaken.
  • preventing a user from performing some unauthorized operations.

Question 8

Question
Organizations often pre-determine the acceptable number of user errors before recording them as security violations. This number is otherwise known as:
Answer
  • Clipping level.
  • Known Error.
  • Minimum Security Baseline.
  • Maximum Tolerable Downtime.

Question 9

Question
A security principle that maintains the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the software and data, besides allowing for rapid recovery to the state of normal operations, when unexpected events occur is the security design principle of
Answer
  • defense in depth.
  • economy of mechanisms.
  • fail secure
  • psychological acceptability

Question 10

Question
Requiring the end user to accept an ‘AS-IS’ disclaimer clause before installation of your software is an example of risk
Answer
  • avoidance.
  • mitigation.
  • transference.
  • acceptance.

Question 11

Question
An instrument that is used to communicate and mandate organizational and management goals and objectives at a high level is a
Answer
  • standard.
  • policy.
  • baseline.
  • guideline.

Question 12

Question
The Systems Security Engineering Capability Maturity Model (SSECMM ®) is an internationally recognized standard that publishes guidelines to
Answer
  • provide metrics for measuring the software and its behavior, and using the software in a specific context of use.
  • evaluate security engineering practices and organizational management processes.
  • support accreditation and certification bodies that audit and certify information security management systems.
  • ensure that the claimed identity of personnel are appropriately verified.

Question 13

Question
Which of the following is a framework that can be used to develop a risk based enterprise security architecture by determining security requirements after analyzing the business initiatives.
Answer
  • Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI)
  • Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA)
  • Control Objectives for Information and related Technology (COBIT®)
  • Zachman Framework

Question 14

Question
Which of the following is a PRIMARY consideration for the software publisher when selling Commercially Off the Shelf (COTS) software?
Answer
  • Service Level Agreements (SLAs).
  • Intellectual Property protection.
  • Cost of customization.
  • Review of the code for backdoors and Trojan horses.

Question 15

Question
The Single Loss Expectancy can be determined using which of the following formula?
Answer
  • Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) x Exposure Factor
  • Probability x Impact
  • Asset Value x Exposure Factor
  • Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) x Asset Value

Question 16

Question
Implementing IPSec to assure the confidentiality of data when it is transmitted is an example of risk
Answer
  • avoidance.
  • transference.
  • mitigation.
  • acceptance.

Question 17

Question
The Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) that prescribe guidelines for biometric authentication is
Answer
  • FIPS 140.
  • FIPS 186.
  • FIPS 197.
  • FIPS 201.

Question 18

Question
Which of the following is a multi-faceted security standard that is used to regulate organizations that collects, processes and/or stores cardholder data as part of their business operations?
Answer
  • FIPS 201.
  • ISO/IEC 15408.
  • NIST SP 800-64.
  • PCI DSS.

Question 19

Question
Which of the following is the current Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) that specifies an approved cryptographic algorithm to ensure the confidentiality of electronic data?
Answer
  • Security Requirements for Cryptographic Modules (FIPS 140).
  • Peronal Identity Verification (PIV) of Federal Employees and Contractors (FIPS 201).
  • Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197).
  • Digital Signature Standard (FIPS 186).

Question 20

Question
The organization that publishes the ten most critical web application security risks (Top Ten) is the
Answer
  • Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT).
  • Web Application Security Consortium (WASC).
  • Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP).
  • Forums for Incident Response and Security Teams (FIRST)

Question 21

Question
The process of removing private information from sensitive data sets is referred to as
Answer
  • Sanitization.
  • Degaussing.
  • Anonymization.
  • Formatting.

Question 22

Question
(Domain 2) Which of the following MUST be addressed by software security requirements? Choose the BEST answer
Answer
  • Technology used in building the application
  • Goals and objectives of the organization.
  • Software quality requirements
  • External auditor requirements

Question 23

Question
Which of the following types of information is exempt from confidentiality requirements?
Answer
  • Directory information.
  • Personally identifiable information (PII).
  • User’s card holder data.
  • Software architecture and network diagram

Question 24

Question
Requirements that are identified to protect against the destruction of information or the software itself are commonly referred to as
Answer
  • confidentiality requirements.
  • integrity requirements
  • availability requirements.
  • authentication requirements

Question 25

Question
The amount of time by which business operations need to be restored to service levels as expected by the business when there is a security breach or disaster is known as
Answer
  • Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD).
  • Mean Time Before Failure (MTBF).
  • Minimum Security Baseline (MSB).
  • Recovery Time Objective (RTO).

Question 26

Question
The use of an individual’s physical characteristics such as retinal blood patterns and fingerprints for validating and verifying the user’s identity if referred to as
Answer
  • biometric authentication.
  • forms authentication.
  • digest authentication.
  • integrated authentication.

Question 27

Question
Which of the following policies is MOST likely to include the following requirement? “All software processing financial transactions need to use more than one factor to verify the identity of the entity requesting access””
Answer
  • Authorization
  • Authentication.
  • Auditing
  • Availability

Question 28

Question
A means of restricting access to objects based on the identity of subjects and/or groups to which they belong, as mandated by the requested resource owner is the definition of
Answer
  • Non-discretionary Access Control (NDAC).
  • Discretionary Access Control (DAC).
  • Mandatory Access Control (MAC).
  • Role based Access Control.

Question 29

Question
Requirements which when implemented can help to build a history of events that occurred in the software are known as
Answer
  • authentication requirements.
  • archiving requirements.
  • accountability requirements.
  • authorization requirements.

Question 30

Question
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an application to be susceptible to a Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack?
Answer
  • Improper session management
  • Lack of auditing
  • Improper archiving
  • Lack of encryption

Question 31

Question
The process of eliciting concrete software security requirements from high level regulatory and organizational directives and mandates in the requirements phase of the SDLC is also known as
Answer
  • threat modeling.
  • policy decomposition.
  • subject-object modeling
  • misuse case generation.

Question 32

Question
The FIRST step in the Protection Needs Elicitation (PNE) process is to
Answer
  • engage the customer
  • model information management
  • identify least privilege applications
  • conduct threat modeling and analysis

Question 33

Question
A Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM) that includes security requirements can be used for all of the following except
Answer
  • ensuring scope creep does not occur
  • validating and communicating user requirements
  • determining resource allocations
  • identifying privileged code sections

Question 34

Question
Parity bit checking mechanisms can be used for all of the following except
Answer
  • Error detection
  • Message corruption.
  • Integrity assurance
  • Input validation

Question 35

Question
Which of the following is an activity that can be performed to clarify requirements with the business users using diagrams that model the expected behavior of the software?
Answer
  • Threat modeling
  • Use case modeling
  • Misuse case modeling
  • Data modeling

Question 36

Question
Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be identified by misuse case modeling?
Answer
  • Race conditions
  • Mis-actors
  • Attacker’s perspective
  • Negative requirements

Question 37

Question
Data classification is a core activity that is conducted as part of which of the following?
Answer
  • Key Management Lifecycle
  • Information Lifecycle Management
  • Configuration Management
  • Problem Management

Question 38

Question
Web farm data corruption issues and card holder data encryption requirements need to be captured as part of which of the following requirements?
Answer
  • Integrity.
  • Environment.
  • International.
  • Procurement.

Question 39

Question
When software is purchased from a third party instead of being built in-house, it is imperative to have contractual protection in place and have the software requirements explicitly specified in which of the following?
Answer
  • Service Level Agreements (SLA).
  • Non-Disclosure Agreements (NDA)
  • Non-compete Agreements
  • Project plan.

Question 40

Question
When software is able to withstand attacks from a threat agent and not violate the security policy it is said to be exhibiting which of the following attributes of software assurance?
Answer
  • Reliability
  • Resiliency.
  • Recoverability
  • Redundancy.

Question 41

Question
Infinite loops and improper memory calls are often known to cause threats to which of the following?
Answer
  • Availability.
  • Authentication.
  • Authorization.
  • Accountability.

Question 42

Question
Which of the following is used to communicate and enforce availability requirements of the business or client?
Answer
  • Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA).
  • Corporate Contract.
  • Service Level Agreements (SLA).
  • Threat model.

Question 43

Question
Software security requirements that are identified to protect against disclosure of data to unauthorized users is otherwise known as
Answer
  • integrity requirements
  • authorization requirements
  • confidentiality requirements.
  • non-repudiation requirements.

Question 44

Question
The requirements that assure reliability and prevent alterations are to be identified in which section of the software requirements specifications (SRS) documentation?
Answer
  • Confidentiality.
  • Integrity.
  • Availability.
  • Accountability

Question 45

Question
Which of the following is a covert mechanism that assures confidentiality?
Answer
  • Encryption.
  • Steganography.
  • Hashing.
  • Masking.

Question 46

Question
As a means to assure confidentiality of copyright information, the security analyst identifies the requirement to embed information insider another digital audio, video or image signal. This is commonly referred to as
Answer
  • Encryption.
  • Hashing.
  • Licensing
  • Watermarking.

Question 47

Question
Checksum validation can be used to satisfy which of the following requirements?
Answer
  • Confidentiality.
  • Integrity.
  • Availability
  • Authentication.

Question 48

Question
A Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM) that includes security requirements can be used for all of the following EXCEPT
Answer
  • Ensure scope creep does not occur
  • Validate and communicate user requirements
  • Determine resource allocations
  • Identifying privileged code sections

Question 49

Question
Domain 3 During which phase of the software development lifecycle (SDLC) is threat modeling initiated?
Answer
  • Requirements analysis
  • Design
  • Implementation
  • Deployment

Question 50

Question
Certificate Authority, Registration Authority, and Certificate Revocation Lists are all part of which of the following?
Answer
  • Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
  • Steganography
  • Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
  • Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

Question 51

Question
The use of digital signatures has the benefit of providing which of the following that is not provided by symmetric key cryptographic design?
Answer
  • Speed of cryptographic operations
  • Confidentiality assurance
  • Key exchange
  • Non-repudiation

Question 52

Question
When passwords are stored in the database, the best defense against disclosure attacks can be accomplished using
Answer
  • encryption.
  • masking.
  • hashing.
  • obfuscation.

Question 53

Question
Nicole is part of the ‘author’ role as well as she is included in the ‘approver’ role, allowing her to approve her own articles before it is posted on the company blog site. This violates the principle of
Answer
  • least privilege.
  • least common mechanisms.
  • economy of mechanisms.
  • separation of duties

Question 54

Question
The primary reason for designing Single Sign On (SSO) capabilities is to
Answer
  • increase the security of authentication mechanisms
  • simplify user authentication.
  • have the ability to check each access request
  • allow for interoperability between wireless and wired networks.

Question 55

Question
Database triggers are PRIMARILY useful for providing which of the following detective software assurance capability?
Answer
  • Availability
  • Authorization.
  • Auditing.
  • Archiving

Question 56

Question
During a threat modeling exercise, the software architecture is reviewed to identify
Answer
  • attackers.
  • business impact.
  • critical assets
  • entry points.

Question 57

Question
A Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack is PRIMARILY an expression of which type of the following threats?
Answer
  • Spoofing
  • Tampering
  • Repudiation
  • Information disclosure

Question 58

Question
IPSec technology which helps in the secure transmission of information operates in which layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model?
Answer
  • Transport.
  • Network
  • Session.
  • Application.

Question 59

Question
When internal business functionality is abstracted into service oriented contract based interfaces, it is PRIMARILY used to provide for
Answer
  • interoperability.
  • authentication.
  • authorization.
  • installation ease.

Question 60

Question
At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model must security controls be designed to effectively mitigate side channel attacks?
Answer
  • Transport
  • Network
  • Data link
  • Physical

Question 61

Question
Which of the following software architectures is effective in distributing the load between the client and the server, but since it includes the client to be part of the threat vectors it increases the attack surface?
Answer
  • Software as a Service (SaaS).
  • Service Oriented Architecture (SOA).
  • Rich Internet Application (RIA).
  • Distributed Network Architecture (DNA).

Question 62

Question
When designing software to work in a mobile computing environment, the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip can be used to provide which of the following types of information?
Answer
  • Authorization.
  • Identification.
  • Archiving
  • Auditing.

Question 63

Question
When two or more trivial pieces of information are brought together with the aim of gleaning sensitive information, it is referred to as what type of attack?
Answer
  • Injection.
  • Inference.
  • Phishing.
  • Polyinstantiation.

Question 64

Question
The inner workings and internal structure of backend databases can be protected from disclosure using
Answer
  • triggers.
  • normalization.
  • views.
  • encryption

Question 65

Question
Choose the BEST answer. Configurable settings for logging exceptions, auditing and credential management must be part of
Answer
  • database views.
  • security management interfaces.
  • global files.
  • exception handling.

Question 66

Question
The token that is PRIMARILY used for authentication purposes in a Single Sign (SSO) implementation between two different companies is
Answer
  • Kerberos
  • Security Assert Markup Language (SAML)
  • Liberty alliance ID-FF
  • One Time password (OTP)

Question 67

Question
Syslog implementations require which additional security protection mechanisms to mitigate disclosure attacks?
Answer
  • Unique session identifier generation and exchange.
  • Transport Layer Security.
  • Digital Rights Management (DRM)
  • Data Loss Prevention,

Question 68

Question
Rights and privileges for a file can be granularly granted to each client using which of the following technologies
Answer
  • Data Loss Prevention (DLP).
  • Software as a Service (SaaS)
  • Flow control
  • Digital Rights Management (DRM)

Question 69

Question
Which of the following is known to circumvent the ring protection mechanisms in operating systems?
Answer
  • Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
  • Coolboot
  • SQL Injection
  • Rootkit

Question 70

Question
When the software is designed using Representational State Transfer (REST) architecture, it promotes which of the following good programming practices?
Answer
  • High Cohesion
  • Low Cohesion
  • Tight Coupling
  • Loose Coupling

Question 71

Question
. Which of the following components of the Java architecture is primarily responsible to ensure type consistency, safety and assure that there are no malicious instructions in the code?
Answer
  • Garbage collector
  • Class Loader
  • Bytecode Verfier
  • Java Security Manager

Question 72

Question
The primary security concern when implementing cloud applications is related to
Answer
  • Insecure APIs
  • Data leakage and/or loss
  • Abuse of computing resources
  • Unauthorized access

Question 73

Question
The predominant form of malware that infects mobile apps is
Answer
  • Virus
  • Ransomware
  • Worm
  • Spyware

Question 74

Question
Most Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition (SCADA) systems are susceptible to software attacks because
Answer
  • they were not initially implemented with security in mind
  • the skills of a hacker has increased significantly
  • the data that they collect are of top secret classification
  • the firewalls that are installed in front of these devices have been breached.

Question 75

Question
Domain 4 Software developers writes software programs PRIMARILY to
Answer
  • create new products
  • capture market share
  • solve business problems
  • mitigate hacker threats

Question 76

Question
The process of combining necessary functions, variables and dependency files and libraries required for the machine to run the program is referred to as
Answer
  • compilation
  • interpretation
  • linking
  • instantiation

Question 77

Question
Which of the following is an important consideration to manage memory and mitigate overflow attacks when choosing a programming language?
Answer
  • Locality of reference
  • Type safety
  • Cyclomatic complexity
  • Parametric polymorphism

Question 78

Question
Assembly and machine language are examples of
Answer
  • natural language
  • very high-level language (VHLL)
  • high-level language (HLL)
  • low-level language

Question 79

Question
Using multifactor authentication is effective in mitigating which of the following application security risks?
Answer
  • Injection flaws
  • Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
  • Buffer overflow
  • Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)

Question 80

Question
Impersonation attacks such as Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attacks in an Internet application can be BEST mitigated using proper
Answer
  • Configuration Management.
  • Session Management.
  • Patch Management.
  • Exception Management.

Question 81

Question
Implementing Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart (CAPTCHA) protection is a means of defending against
Answer
  • SQL Injection
  • Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
  • Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
  • . Insecure cryptographic storage

Question 82

Question
The findings of a code review indicate that cryptographic operations in code use the Rijndael cipher, which is the original publication of which of the following algorithms?
Answer
  • Skipjack
  • Data Encryption Standard (DES)
  • Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)
  • Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Question 83

Question
Which of the following transport layer technologies can BEST mitigate session hijacking and replay attacks in a local area network (LAN)?
Answer
  • Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
  • Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
  • Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
  • Digital Rights Management (DRM)

Question 84

Question
Verbose error messages and unhandled exceptions can result in which of the following software security threats?
Answer
  • Spoofing
  • Tampering
  • Repudiation
  • Information disclosure

Question 85

Question
Code signing can provide all of the following EXCEPT
Answer
  • Anti-tampering protection
  • Authenticity of code origin
  • Runtime permissions for code
  • Authentication of users

Question 86

Question
When an attacker uses delayed error messages between successful and unsuccessful query probes, he is using which of the following side channel techniques to detect injection vulnerabilities?
Answer
  • Distant observation
  • Cold boot
  • Power analysis
  • Timing

Question 87

Question
When the code is not allowed to access memory at arbitrary locations that is out of range of the memory address space that belong to the object’s publicly exposed fields, it is referred to as which of the following types of code?
Answer
  • Object code
  • Type safe code
  • Obfuscated code
  • Source code

Question 88

Question
When the runtime permissions of the code are defined as security attributes in the metadata of the code, it is referred to as
Answer
  • imperative syntax security
  • declarative syntax security
  • code signing
  • code obfuscation

Question 89

Question
When an all-or-nothing approach to code access security is not possible and business rules and permissions need to be set and managed more granularly inline code functions and modules, a programmer can leverage which of the following?
Answer
  • Cryptographic agility
  • Parametric polymorphism
  • Declarative security
  • Imperative security

Question 90

Question
An understanding of which of the following programming concepts is necessary to protect against memory manipulation buffer overflow attacks? Choose the BEST answer.
Answer
  • Error handling
  • Exception management
  • Locality of reference
  • Generics

Question 91

Question
Exploit code attempt to take control of dangling pointers which
Answer
  • are references to memory locations of destroyed objects.
  • is the non-functional code that that is left behind in the source.
  • is the payload code that the attacker uploads into memory to execute.
  • are references in memory locations that are used prior to being initialized.

Question 92

Question
Which of the following is a feature of most recent operating systems (OS) that makes it difficult for an attacker to guess the memory address of the program as it makes the memory address different each time the program is executed?
Answer
  • Data Execution Prevention (DEP)
  • Executable Space Protection (ESP)
  • Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR)
  • Safe Security Exception Handler (/SAFESEH)

Question 93

Question
When the source code is made obscure using special programs in order to make the readability of the code difficult when disclosed, the code is also known as
Answer
  • object code
  • obfuscated code.
  • encrypted code.
  • hashed code.

Question 94

Question
The ability to track ownership, changes in code and rollback abilities is possible because of which of the following configuration management processes?
Answer
  • Version control
  • Patching
  • Audit logging
  • Change control

Question 95

Question
The MAIN benefit of statically analyzing code is that
Answer
  • runtime behavior of code can be analyzed.
  • business logic flaws are more easily detectable.
  • the analysis is performed in a production or production-like environment
  • errors and vulnerabilities can be detected earlier in the life cycle.

Question 96

Question
Cryptographic protection includes all of the following EXCEPT
Answer
  • encryption of data when it is processed.
  • hashing of data when it is stored.
  • hiding of data within other media objects when it is transmitted.
  • masking of data when it is displayed.

Question 97

Question
Replacing the Primary Account Number (PAN) with random or pseudo-random symbols that are uniquely identifiable and still assuring privacy is also known as
Answer
  • Fuzzing
  • Tokenization
  • Encoding
  • Canonicalization

Question 98

Question
Which of the following is an implementation of the principle of least privilege?
Answer
  • Sandboxing
  • Tokenization
  • Versioning
  • . Concurrency

Question 99

Question
Domain 5 The ability of the software to restore itself to expected functionality when the security protection that is built in is breached is also known as
Answer
  • redundancy.
  • recoverability.
  • resiliency.
  • reliability.

Question 100

Question
In which of the following software development methodologies does unit testing enable collective code ownership and is critical to assure software assurance?
Answer
  • Waterfall
  • Agile
  • Spiral
  • Prototyping

Question 101

Question
Which of the secure design principles is promoted when test harnesses are used?
Answer
  • Least privilege
  • Separation of duties
  • Leveraging existing components
  • Psychological acceptability

Question 102

Question
The use of IF-THEN rules is characteristic of which of the following types of software testing?
Answer
  • Logic
  • Scalability
  • Integration
  • Unit

Question 103

Question
The implementation of secure features such as complete mediation and data replication needs to undergo which of the following types of test to ensure that the software meets the service level agreements (SLA)?
Answer
  • Stress
  • Unit
  • Integration
  • Regression

Question 104

Question
Tests that are conducted to determine the breaking point of the software after which the software will no longer be functional is characteristic of which of the following types of software testing?
Answer
  • Regression
  • Stress
  • Integration
  • Simulation

Question 105

Question
Which of the following tools or techniques can be used to facilitate the white box testing of software for insider threats?
Answer
  • Source code analyzers
  • Fuzzers
  • Banner grabbing software
  • Scanners

Question 106

Question
When very limited or no knowledge of the software is made known to the software tester before she can test for its resiliency, it is characteristic of which of the following types of security tests?
Answer
  • White box
  • Black box
  • Clear box
  • Glass box

Question 107

Question
Penetration testing must be conducted with properly defined
Answer
  • rules of engagement.
  • role based access control mechanisms
  • threat models.
  • use cases

Question 108

Question
Testing for the randomness of session identifiers and the presence of auditing capabilities provides the software team insight into which of the following security controls?
Answer
  • Availability
  • Authentication.
  • Non-repudiation.
  • Authorization.

Question 109

Question
Disassemblers, debuggers and decompilers can be used by security testers to PRIMARILY determine which of the following types of coding vulnerabilities?
Answer
  • Injection flaws
  • Lack of reverse engineering protection.
  • Cross-Site Scripting.
  • Broken session management.

Question 110

Question
When reporting a software security defect in the software, which of the following also needs to be reported so that variance from intended behavior of the software can be determined?
Answer
  • Defect identifier
  • Title
  • Expected results
  • Tester name

Question 111

Question
An attacker analyzes the response from the web server which indicates that its version is the Microsoft Internet Information Server 6.0 (Microsoft-IIS/6.0), but none of the IIS exploits that the attacker attempts to execute on the web server are successful. Which of the following is the MOST probable security control that is implemented?
Answer
  • Hashing
  • Cloaking
  • Masking
  • Watermarking

Question 112

Question
Smart fuzzing is characterized by injecting
Answer
  • truly random data without any consideration for the data structure.
  • variations of data structures that are known.
  • data that get interpreted as commands by a backend interpreter
  • scripts that are reflected and executed on the client browser.

Question 113

Question
Which of the following is the MOST important to ensure, as part of security testing, when the software is forced to fail x? Choose the BEST answer.
Answer
  • Normal operational functionality is not restored automatically.
  • Access to all functionality is denied.
  • Confidentiality, integrity and availability are not adversely impacted.
  • End users are adequately trained and self help is made available for the end user to fix the error on their own.

Question 114

Question
Timing and synchronization issues such as race conditions and resource deadlocks can be MOST LIKELY identified by which of the following tests? Choose the BEST answer.
Answer
  • Integration
  • Stress
  • Unit
  • Regression

Question 115

Question
The PRIMARY objective of resiliency testing of software is to determine
Answer
  • the point at which the software will break.
  • if the software can restore itself to normal business operations.
  • the presence and effectiveness of risk mitigation controls.
  • how a blackhat would circumvent access control mechanisms.

Question 116

Question
The ability of the software to withstand attempts of attackers who intend to breach the security protection that is built in is also known as
Answer
  • redundancy.
  • recoverability.
  • resiliency.
  • reliability.

Question 117

Question
Drivers and stub based programming are useful to conduct which of the following tests?
Answer
  • Integration
  • Regression
  • Unit
  • Penetration

Question 118

Question
Assurance that the software meets the expectations of the business as defined in the service level agreements (SLAs) can be demonstrated by which of the following types of tests?
Answer
  • Unit
  • Integration
  • Performance
  • Regression

Question 119

Question
Vulnerability scans are used to
Answer
  • measure the resiliency of the software by attempting to exploit weaknesses.
  • detect the presence of loopholes and weaknesses in the software.
  • detect the effectiveness of security controls that are implemented in the software.
  • measure the skills and technical know-how of the security tester.

Question 120

Question
In the context of test data management, when a transaction which serves no business purpose is tested, it is referred to as what kind of transaction?
Answer
  • Non-synthetic
  • Synthetic
  • Useless
  • Discontinuous

Question 121

Question
As part of the test data management strategy, when a criteria is applied to export selective information from a production system to the test environment, it is also referred to as
Answer
  • Subletting
  • Filtering
  • Validation
  • Subsetting

Question 122

Question
Domain 6 Your organization has the policy to attest the security of any software that will be deployed into the production environment. A third party vendor software is being evaluated for its readiness to be deployed. Which of the following verification and validation mechanism can be employed to attest the security of the vendor’s software?
Answer
  • Source code review
  • Threat modeling the software
  • Black box testing
  • Structural analysis

Question 123

Question
To meet the goals of software assurance, when accepting software, the acquisition phase MUST include processes to
Answer
  • verify that installation guides and training manuals are provided.
  • assess the presence and effectiveness of protection mechanisms.
  • validate vendor’s software products.
  • assist the vendor in responding to the request for proposals.

Question 124

Question
The process of evaluating software to determine whether the products of a given development phase satisfies the conditions imposed at the start of the phase is referred to as
Answer
  • verification
  • validation
  • authentication
  • authorization

Question 125

Question
When verification activities are used to determine if the software is functioning as it is expected to, it provides insight into which of the following aspects of software assurance?
Answer
  • Redundancy
  • Reliability
  • Resiliency
  • Recoverability

Question 126

Question
When procuring software the purchasing company can request the evaluation assurance levels (EALs) of the software product which is determined using which of the following evaluation methodologies?
Answer
  • Operationally Critical Assets Threats and Vulnerability Evaluation® (OCTAVE)
  • Security Quality Requirements Engineering (SQUARE)
  • Common Criteria
  • Comprehensive, Lightweight Application Security Process (CLASP)

Question 127

Question
The FINAL activity in the software acceptance process is the go/no go decision that can be determined using
Answer
  • regression testing.
  • integration testing.
  • unit testing.
  • user acceptance testing.

Question 128

Question
Management’s formal acceptance of the system after an understanding of the residual risks to that system in the computing environment is also referred to as
Answer
  • patching.
  • hardening.
  • certification.
  • accreditation.

Question 129

Question
You determine that a legacy software running in your computing environment is susceptible to Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attacks because of the way it manages sessions. The business has the need to continue use of this software but you do not have the source code available to implement security controls in code as a mitigation measure against CSRF attacks. What is the BEST course of action to undertake in such a situation?
Answer
  • Avoid the risk by forcing the business to discontinue use of the software.
  • Accept the risk with a documented exception.
  • Transfer the risk by buying insurance.
  • Ignore the risk since it is legacy software

Question 130

Question
As part of the accreditation process, the residual risk of a software evaluated for deployment must be accepted formally by the
Answer
  • board members and executive management
  • business owner.
  • information technology (IT) management
  • security organization

Question 131

Question
Domain 7 When software that worked without any issues in the test environments fails to work in the production environment, it is indicative of
Answer
  • inadequate integration testing
  • incompatible environment configurations.
  • incomplete threat modeling.
  • ignored code review

Question 132

Question
Which of the following is not characteristic of good security metrics?
Answer
  • Quantitatively expressed
  • Objectively expressed
  • Contextually relevant
  • Collected manually

Question 133

Question
Removal of maintenance hooks, debugging code and flags, and unneeded documentation before deployment are all examples of software
Answer
  • hardening
  • patching.
  • reversing.
  • obfuscation.

Question 134

Question
Which of the following has the goal of ensuring that the resiliency levels of software is always above the acceptable risk threshold as defined by the business post deployment?
Answer
  • Threat modeling.
  • Code review.
  • Continuous monitoring.
  • Regression testing.

Question 135

Question
Logging application events such as failed login attempts, sales price updates and user roles configuration for audit review at a later time is an example of which of the following type of security control?
Answer
  • Preventive
  • Corrective
  • Compensating
  • Detective

Question 136

Question
When a compensating control is to be used, the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) prescribes that the compensating control must meet all of the following guidelines EXCEPT
Answer
  • Meet the intent and rigor of the original requirement.
  • Provide an increased level of defense than the original requirement
  • Be implemented as part of a defense in depth measure.
  • Must commensurate with additional risk imposed by not adhering to the requirement

Question 137

Question
Versioning, back-ups, check-in and check-out practices are all important components of
Answer
  • Patch management
  • Release management
  • Problem management
  • Incident management

Question 138

Question
Software that is deployed in a high trust environment such as the environment within the organizational firewall when not continuously monitored is MOST susceptible to which of the following types of security attacks? Choose the BEST answer.
Answer
  • Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
  • Malware
  • Logic Bombs
  • DNS poisoning

Question 139

Question
Bastion host systems can be used to continuously monitor the security of the computing environment when it is used in conjunction with intrusion detection systems (IDS) and which other security control?
Answer
  • Authentication.
  • Authorization.
  • Archiving.
  • Auditing.

Question 140

Question
The FIRST step in the incident response process of a reported breach is to
Answer
  • notify management of the security breach.
  • research the validity of the alert or event further
  • inform potentially affected customers of a potential breach.
  • conduct an independent third party evaluation to investigate the reported breach.

Question 141

Question
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to champion security objectives within the software development organization?
Answer
  • Informing the developers that they could lose their jobs if their software is breached.
  • Informing management that the organizational software could be hacked.
  • Informing the project team about the recent breach of the competitor’s software.
  • Informing the development team that there should be no injection flaws in the payroll application.

Question 142

Question
Which of the following independent process provides insight into the presence and effectiveness of security and privacy controls and is used to determine the organization’s compliance with the regulatory and governance (policy) requirements?
Answer
  • Penetration testing
  • Audits
  • Threat modeling
  • Code review

Question 143

Question
The process of using regular expressions to parse audit logs into information that indicate security incidents is referred to as
Answer
  • correlation.
  • normalization.
  • collection.
  • visualization.

Question 144

Question
The FINAL stage of the incident management process is to
Answer
  • detection.
  • containment.
  • eradication
  • recovery

Question 145

Question
Problem management aims to improve the value of Information Technology to the business because it improves service by
Answer
  • restoring service to the expectation of the business user
  • determining the alerts and events that need to be continuously monitored.
  • depicting incident information in easy to understand user friendly format.
  • identifying and eliminating the root cause of the problem

Question 146

Question
The process of releasing software to fix a recently reported vulnerability without introducing any new features or changing hardware configuration is referred to as
Answer
  • versioning.
  • hardening.
  • patching.
  • porting.

Question 147

Question
Fishbone diagramming is a mechanism that is PRIMARILY used for which of the following processes?
Answer
  • Threat modeling
  • Requirements analysis.
  • Network deployment.
  • Root cause analysis.

Question 148

Question
As a means to assure the availability of the existing software functionality after the application of a patch, the patch need to be tested for
Answer
  • the proper functioning of new features
  • cryptographic agility
  • backward compatibility.
  • the enabling of previously disabled services

Question 149

Question
Which of the following policies needs to be established to securely dispose software and associated data and documents?
Answer
  • End-of-life.
  • Vulnerability management.
  • Privacy.
  • Data classification.

Question 150

Question
Discontinuance of a software with known vulnerabilities with a newer version is an example of risk
Answer
  • mitigation.
  • transference.
  • acceptance.
  • avoidance.

Question 151

Question
Printer ribbons, facsimile transmissions and printed information when not securely disposed are susceptible to disclosure attacks by which of the following threat agents? Choose the BEST answer.
Answer
  • Malware
  • Dumpster divers
  • Social engineers
  • Script kiddies.

Question 152

Question
System resources can be protected from malicious file execution attacks by uploading the user supplied file and running it in which of the following environment?
Answer
  • Honeypot
  • Sandbox
  • Simulated
  • Production

Question 153

Question
As a means to demonstrate the improvement in the security of code that is developed, one must compute the relative attack surface quotient (RASQ)
Answer
  • at the end of development phase of the project
  • before and after the code is implemented.
  • before and after the software requirements are complete.
  • at the end of the deployment phase of the project.

Question 154

Question
Modifications to data directly in the database by developers must be prevented by
Answer
  • periodically patching database servers
  • implementing source code version control.
  • logging all database access requests.
  • proper change control management.

Question 155

Question
Which of the following documents is the BEST source to contain damage and which needs to be referred to and consulted with upon the discovery of a security breach?
Answer
  • Disaster Recovery Plan.
  • Project Management Plan.
  • Incident Response Plan.
  • Quality Assurance and Testing Plan.

Question 156

Question
Domain 8 The increased need for security in the software supply chain is PRIMARILY attributed to
Answer
  • cessation of development activities within a company
  • increase in the number of foreign trade agreements
  • incidences of malicious code and logic found in acquired software
  • decrease in the trust of consumers on software developed within a company.

Question 157

Question
Which phase of the acquisition life cycle involves the issuance of advertisements to source and evaluate suppliers?
Answer
  • Contracting
  • Planning
  • Development
  • Delivery (Handover

Question 158

Question
Predictable execution means that the software demonstrates all the following qualities EXCEPT?
Answer
  • Authenticity
  • Conformance
  • Authorization
  • Trustworthiness

Question 159

Question
Which of the following is a process threat in the software supply chain?
Answer
  • Counterfeit software
  • Insecure code transfer
  • Subornation
  • Piracy

Question 160

Question
In the context of the software supply chain, the principle of persistent protection is also known as
Answer
  • End-to-end encryption
  • Location agnostic protection
  • Locality of reference
  • Cryptographic agility

Question 161

Question
In pre-qualifying a supplier, which of the following must be assessed to ensure that the supplier can provide timely updates and hotfixes when an exploitable vulnerability in their software is reported?
Answer
  • Foreign ownership and control or influence
  • Security track record
  • Security knowledge of the supplier’ s personnel
  • Compliance with security policies, regulatory and privacy requirements.

Question 162

Question
Which of the following can provide insight into the effectiveness and efficiencies of the supply chain processes as it pertains to assuring trust and software security?
Answer
  • Key Performance Indicators (KPI)
  • Relative Attack Surface Quotient (RASQ)
  • Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)
  • Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM)

Question 163

Question
Which of the following contains the security requirements and the evidence needed to prove that the acquirer requirements are met as expected?
Answer
  • Software Configuration Management Plan
  • Minimum Security Baseline
  • Service Level Agreements
  • Assurance Plan

Question 164

Question
The difference between disclaimer-based protection and contractsbased is that
Answer
  • Contracts-based protection is mutual.
  • Disclaimer-based protection is mutual
  • Contracts-based protection is done by one-sided notification of terms
  • Disclaimer-based protection is legally binding.

Question 165

Question
Software programs, database models and images on a website can be protected using which of the following legal instrument?
Answer
  • Patents
  • Copyright
  • Trademarks
  • Trade secret

Question 166

Question
You find out that employees in your company have been downloading software files and sharing them using peer-to-peer based torrent networks. These software files are not free and need to be purchase from their respective manufacturers. You employee are violating
Answer
  • Trade secrets
  • Trademarks
  • Patents
  • Copyrights

Question 167

Question
Which of the following legal instruments assures the confidentiality of software programs, processing logic, database schema and internal organizational business processes and client lists?
Answer
  • Standards
  • Non-Disclosure Agreements (NDA)
  • Service Level Agreements (SLA)
  • Trademarks

Question 168

Question
When source code of Commercially Off-The-Shelf (COTS) software is escrowed and released under a free software or open source license when the original developer (or supplier) no longer continues to develop that software, that software is referred to as
Answer
  • Trialware
  • Demoware
  • Ransomware
  • Freeware

Question 169

Question
Improper implementation of validity periods using length-of-use checks in code can result in which of the following types of security issues for legitimate users?
Answer
  • Tampering
  • Denial of Service
  • Authentication bypass
  • Spoofing

Question 170

Question
Your organization’s software is published as a trial version without any restricted functionality from the paid version. Which of the following MUST be designed and implemented to ensure that customers who have not purchased the software are limited in the availability of the software?
Answer
  • Disclaimers
  • Licensing
  • Validity periods
  • Encryption

Question 171

Question
When must the supplier inform the acquirer of any applicable export control and foreign trade regulatory requirements in the countries of export and import?
Answer
  • Before delivery (handover)
  • Before code inspection.
  • After deployment.
  • Before retirement.

Question 172

Question
The disadvantage of using open source software from a security standpoint is
Answer
  • Only the original publisher of the source code can modify the code
  • Open source software is not supported and maintained by mature companies or communities.
  • The attacker can look into the source code to determine its exploitability.
  • Open source software can only be purchased using a piece-meal approach.

Question 173

Question
Which of the following is the most important security testing process that validates and verifies the integrity of software code, components and configurations, in a software security chain?
Answer
  • Threat modeling
  • Fuzzing
  • Penetration testing
  • Code review

Question 174

Question
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be detected using a code review process?
Answer
  • Backdoors
  • Logic Bombs
  • Logic Flaws
  • Trojan horses

Question 175

Question
Which of the following security principle is LEAST related to the securing of code repositories?
Answer
  • Least privilege
  • Access Control
  • Auditing
  • Open Design

Question 176

Question
The integrity of build tools and the build environment is necessary to protect against
Answer
  • spoofing
  • tampering
  • disclosure
  • denial of service

Question 177

Question
Which of the following kind of security testing tool detects the presence of vulnerabilities through disassembly and pattern recognition?
Answer
  • Source code scanners
  • Binary code scanners
  • Byte code scanners
  • Compliance validators

Question 178

Question
When software is developed by multiple suppliers, the genuineness of the software can be attested using which of the following processes?
Answer
  • Code review
  • Code signing
  • Encryption
  • Code scanning

Question 179

Question
Which of the following must be controlled during handoff of software from one supplier to the next, so that no unauthorized tampering of the software can be done?
Answer
  • Chain of custody
  • Separation of privileges
  • System logs
  • Application data

Question 180

Question
Which of the following risk management concepts is demonstrated when using code escrows?
Answer
  • Avoidance
  • Transference
  • Mitigation
  • Acceptance

Question 181

Question
Which of the following types of testing is crucial to conduct to determine single points of failure in a System-of-systems (SoS)?
Answer
  • Unit
  • Integration
  • Regression
  • Logic

Question 182

Question
When software is handed from one supplier to the next, the following operational process needs to be in place so that the supplier from whom the software is acquirer can no longer modify the software?
Answer
  • Runtime integrity assurance
  • Patching
  • Termination Access Control
  • Custom Code Extension Checks
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