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EASA ATP QATAR YELLOW 3

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Aviacion (Examen ) Quiz on EASA ATP QATAR YELLOW 3, created by Alejandro Castillo on 23/05/2018.
Alejandro Castillo
Quiz by Alejandro Castillo, updated more than 1 year ago
Alejandro Castillo
Created by Alejandro Castillo almost 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
40.2.1.2 (2618) Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when altitude is changed?
Answer
  • Eustachian tube
  • External auditory canal
  • Tympanic membrane
  • Cochlea

Question 2

Question
40.2.1.2 (2625) The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness). It a) b)c) is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure d) varies individually and does not depend on altitude
Answer
  • is the same amount of time for every person
  • varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude
  • is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure
  • varies individually and does not depend on altitude

Question 3

Question
40.2.1.2 (2626) After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:
Answer
  • 5-15 seconds
  • 30-45 seconds
  • 45-60 seconds
  • 60-90 seconds

Question 4

Question
40.2.1.2 (2628) Pain in the Joints (""bends""), which suddenly appear during a flight , are symptoms of
Answer
  • decompression sickness
  • barotrauma
  • hypoxia
  • air-sickness

Question 5

Question
40.2.1.2 (2642) Hypoxia effects visual performance.A pilot may: a) get blurred and/or tunnel vision b) c) d)
Answer
  • have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL
  • be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL
  • get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache
  • get blurred and/or tunnel vision

Question 6

Question
40.2.1.2 (2644) In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?
Answer
  • This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions
  • This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to compensate by decreasing the heart rate.
  • This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while hyperventilating.ma=259200
  • Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning

Question 7

Question
40.2.1.2 (2645) Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following symptoms:
Answer
  • dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision
  • a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate
  • reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity
  • blue finger-nails and lips

Question 8

Question
40.2.1.2 (2647) The cabin pressure in airline operation is
Answer
  • normally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feet
  • normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet
  • normally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feet
  • always equivalent to sea level

Question 9

Question
40.2.1.2 (2651) Anxiety and fear can cause
Answer
  • hyperventilation
  • spatial disorientation
  • hypoxia
  • hypoglycemia

Question 10

Question
40.2.1.2 (2655) The normal rate of breathing is
Answer
  • 12 to 16 cycles a minute
  • 20 to 30 cycles a minute
  • 32 to 40 cycles a minute
  • 60 to 100 cycles a minute

Question 11

Question
40.2.1.2 (2657) Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase)
Answer
  • below 3 000 m
  • up to 5 000 m
  • between 3 000 m and 5 000 m
  • between 5 000 m and 7 000 m

Question 12

Question
40.2.1.2 (2658) ""The Bends"" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of:
Answer
  • pain in the joints
  • pain in the thorax and a backing cough
  • CNS-disturbances
  • loss of peripheral vision

Question 13

Question
40.2.1.2 (2664) What is hypoxia ?
Answer
  • The total absence of oxygen in the air
  • The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness
  • Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition
  • A state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment of the masko

Question 14

Question
40.2.1.2 (2665) What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000 ft?
Answer
  • Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
  • Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
  • Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness
  • Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing

Question 15

Question
40.2.1.2 (2668) Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately :
Answer
  • 21% oxygen
  • 5% oxygen
  • 15% oxygen
  • 10% oxygen

Question 16

Question
40.2.1.2 (2669) Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:
Answer
  • 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases
  • 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases
  • 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases
  • 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases

Question 17

Question
40.2.1.2 (2674) What is decompression sickness ?
Answer
  • A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern aircraft
  • An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude
  • The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's capabilities
  • A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft

Question 18

Question
40.2.1.2 (2677) Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to
Answer
  • 10.000 - 12.000feet
  • 15.000 feet
  • 20.000 feet
  • 25.000 feet

Question 19

Question
40.2.1.2 (2680) Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells
Answer
  • have a shortage of oxygen
  • are saturated with nitrogen
  • are saturated with oxygen
  • have a shortage of carbon dioxide

Question 20

Question
40.2.1.2 (2684) One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:
Answer
  • reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin
  • cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear
  • impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognize the symptoms
  • hyperventilation, causing emotional stress

Question 21

Question
40.2.1.2 (2685) Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?1. Blue lips and finger nails.2. Euphoria.3. Flatulence.4 .Unconsciousness..
Answer
  • 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
  • 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
  • 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
  • 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Question 22

Question
40.2.1.2 (2692) Hypoxia can occur because:
Answer
  • you are getting toomuch solar radiation
  • you inhale too much nitrogen
  • you are hyperventilating
  • the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude

Question 23

Question
40.2.1.2 (2694) Hyperventilation is: 
Answer
  • a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood
  • an increased lung ventilation
  • a decreased lung ventilation
  • a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood.

Question 24

Question
40.2.1.2 (2698) What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ?
Answer
  • The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression
  • The length of time during which an individualcan act with both mental and physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his available oxygen supply
  • The pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxia
  • The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes aware of it

Question 25

Question
40.2.1.2 (2706) Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by:
Answer
  • blocking the effected ear with the palm of your hand
  • leveling off and possibly climbing
  • increasing the rate of descent
  • using an oxygen mask

Question 26

Question
40.2.1.2 (2717) Haemoglobin is:
Answer
  • in the red blood cells
  • dissolved in the plasma
  • in the platelets
  • in the white blood cells

Question 27

Question
40.2.1.2 (2735) The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:
Answer
  • 4 cycles per minute
  • 16 cycles per minute
  • 32 cycles per minute
  • 72 cycles per minute

Question 28

Question
40.2.1.2 (2745) During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy, get tingling sensations in your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms could indicate:
Answer
  • disorientation
  • hypoxia
  • hyperventilation
  • carbon monoxide poisoningt

Question 29

Question
40.2.1.2 (2748) You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The intention is:
Answer
  • to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible
  • to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen
  • to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung
  • to reduce blood pressure

Question 30

Question
40.2.1.2 (2759) What is the TUC at 20 000 FT?
Answer
  • about 30 minutes
  • 1 to 2 minutes
  • 1to 2 hours
  • 5 to 10 minutes

Question 31

Question
40.2.2.2 (2783) What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow and vapor)?
Answer
  • Objects seem to be closer than in reality
  • Objects seem to be much bigger than in reality
  • It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects
  • There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and sunny daya

Question 32

Question
40.2.2.2 (2784) Hypoxia will effect night vision
Answer
  • less than day vision
  • at 5000 FT
  • and causes the autokinetic phenomena
  • and causes hyperventilation

Question 33

Question
40.2.2.2 (2802) the FOVEA
Answer
  • is sensitive to very low intensities of light
  • is an area in which cones predominate
  • Is an area in which rods predominate
  • is the area responsible for night vision

Question 34

Question
40.2.2.2 (2825) Glaucoma1. can lead to total blindness2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
Answer
  • 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  • 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
  • 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
  • 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false

Question 35

Question
40.2.2.4 (2845) The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor
Answer
  • movements with constant speeds
  • relative speed and linear accelerations
  • angular accelerations
  • gravity

Question 36

Question
40.2.2.5 (2882) The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold.Possible danger is:
Answer
  • approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing
  • approach is lower than normal and may result in a short landing
  • to drop far below the glide path
  • to misjudge the length of the runway

Question 37

Question
40.2.2.5 (2884) ""Pilot's vertigo""
Answer
  • is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory impulses to the central nervous system (CNS)
  • is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration
  • is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn
  • announces the beginning of airsickness

Question 38

Question
40.2.2.5 (2886) What do you do, when you are affected by ""pilot`s vertigo""?1. Establis maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Believe the instruments.3. Ignore illusions.4. Minimize head movements.
Answer
  • 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
  • 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
  • 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
  • Only 4 is false

Question 39

Question
40.2.2.5 (2899) When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation
Answer
  • of turning in the same direction
  • of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
  • that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction
  • of the immediate stabilization of the aircrafto

Question 40

Question
40.2.2.5 (2905) Visual disturbances can be caused by:1. hyperventilation2. hypoxia3. hypertension4. fatigue
Answer
  • 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
  • 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  • 2, 3 and 4 are correct
  • 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Question 41

Question
40.2.2.5 (2920) How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By
Answer
  • believing your body senses only.
  • maintaining a good instrument cross check.
  • moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical.
  • looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator.

Question 42

Question
40.2.2.5 (2924) If you are disorientated during night flying you must:
Answer
  • look outside
  • descend
  • relay on instruments
  • check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast

Question 43

Question
40.2.3.0 (2926) Our body takes its energy from :1: minerals2: protein3: carbonhydrates4: vitamines
Answer
  • 2,3
  • 1,4
  • 1,2,3,4
  • 1,3

Question 44

Question
40.2.3.2 (2937) Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:1. flatulence2. pain in the ear during descent3. pressure vertigo4. pain in the nasal sinuses
Answer
  • 1 and 2 are correct
  • 2,3 and 4 are correct
  • 1,3 and 4 are correct
  • 1,2 and 4 are correct

Question 45

Question
40.2.3.2 (2938) Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect:
Answer
  • pain in the sinuses
  • chokes
  • bends
  • hypoxia

Question 46

Question
40.2.3.3 (2939) Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification?
Answer
  • High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory system
  • Blood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because they always can be treated by inflight medication.
  • High blood pressure only.
  • Low blood pressure only.

Question 47

Question
40.2.3.3 (2942) To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be
Answer
  • avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart
  • double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week
  • triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week
  • double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a week

Question 48

Question
40.2.3.3 (2943) Which of the following is most true?
Answer
  • Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate
  • Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weight
  • Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption
  • Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential in order to lose weight

Question 49

Question
40.2.3.3 (2944) Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma 2. a damage of the auditory nerve 3. an obstruction in the auditory duct 4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
Answer
  • 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
  • 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
  • 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
  • 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

Question 50

Question
40.2.3.4 (2951) Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance
Answer
  • the side effects only have to be considered
  • the primary and the side effects have to be considered
  • medication has no influence on pilot´s performance
  • only the primary effect has to be considered, side effects are negligable

Question 51

Question
40.2.3.4 (2956) Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitud
Answer
  • of 10 000 FT
  • above 10 000 FT
  • ower than 10 000 FT
  • of 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen

Question 52

Question
40.2.3.4 (2959) Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate)
Answer
  • is approx. 0.3% per hour
  • is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited
  • depends on wether you get some sleep in between drinks
  • definitely depends on the amount and composition of food which has been eaten

Question 53

Question
40.2.3.4 (2961) The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate of metabolism or digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about
Answer
  • 0,02 - 0,05 mg % per hour
  • 0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour
  • 0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hour
  • 0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour

Question 54

Question
40.2.3.6 (2976) Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is :
Answer
  • sudden
  • insinuating
  • obvious
  • intense

Question 55

Question
40.3.1.0 (2979) Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up every time what they have to do.
Answer
  • this has to be posetively appreciated for it increases consistency in action
  • this is dangerous for every situation is different
  • this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to comply with
  • this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be solved by improvisation.

Question 56

Question
40.3.1.1 (2983) The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively monitored input channel is known as 
Answer
  • perception
  • attention
  • sensation
  • appreciation

Question 57

Question
40.3.1.2 (3005) Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :
Answer
  • due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems
  • due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
  • associated with the task of mental construction of the environment
  • solely induced in the absence of external reference points

Question 58

Question
40.3.1.3 (3009) Information stays in the short-term memory
Answer
  • less than 1 second
  • about 20 seconds
  • from 5 to 10 minutes
  • around 24 hourso

Question 59

Question
40.3.2.0 (3047) What is meant by the term 'complacency'?
Answer
  • To question possible solutions
  • Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence
  • An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew Resources Management
  • Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of flying

Question 60

Question
40.3.3.0 (3086) Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will probably
Answer
  • find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data
  • find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different interpretation of the data
  • find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens
  • find it easy to interpret the data in different ways

Question 61

Question
40.3.3.1 (3093) What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of time pressure ?
Answer
  • A Laissez-faire strategy
  • A non-sequential strategy
  • A strategy of no commitment
  • A strategy of preparing decisions

Question 62

Question
40.3.4.1 (3107) You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a meeting. The weather forcast at destination tends to be much worse than expected, so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you money if you manage to land there at any case.What is your appropriate way of action? You will
Answer
  • continue and think about the nice things you can buy from the money
  • decide to divert if you think it is necessary.
  • divert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge aboard
  • see what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any decision

Question 63

Question
40.3.4.2 (3110) The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:
Answer
  • their execution may be done simultaneously with other actions
  • their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions
  • their execution is not lumped together with important tasks
  • it may be rejected since redundancy in the following check list will serve as verification

Question 64

Question
40.3.4.2 (3112) In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:-1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the crew.-2 : divide up tasks among the crew.-3 : abandon automatic mode and instead process as much information as possible consciously.-4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities.The correct statement(s) is (are):
Answer
  • 1 and 3 are correct
  • 1, 2 and 4 are correct
  • 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  • 3 and 4 are correct

Question 65

Question
40.3.4.2 (3113) Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct?
Answer
  • The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since attention is usually focused here
  • The most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be kept near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary check
  • All the items of a check list are equally important, their sequence is of no importance
  • The most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane

Question 66

Question
40.3.4.2 (3115) What are the advantages of coordination?
Answer
  • Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility.
  • Interaction, cognition, redundancy.
  • Cooperation, cognition, redundancy
  • Redundancy, exploration, risky shift.

Question 67

Question
40.3.4.2 (3116) Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:
Answer
  • working parallel to achieve individual objectives
  • working parallel to achieve one common objective
  • the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions
  • sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight situations

Question 68

Question
40.3.4.2 (3118) Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must :
Answer
  • only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures
  • be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in order to maintain maximum synergy
  • only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit philosophies
  • be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the aircraft

Question 69

Question
40.3.4.3 (3120) Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:(1) dominant behaviour(2) examplary role-behaviour(3) mastery of communication skills(4) ""Laissez-faire"" behaviour
Answer
  • 1 and 4
  • 1 and 3
  • 2 and 3
  • 2 and 4

Question 70

Question
40.3.4.3 (3121) During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on the one hand is rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is inappropriate?
Answer
  • The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled instructions what to do
  • The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any comments
  • The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any support that needed
  • the captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to keep him informed about his decisions

Question 71

Question
40.3.4.3 (3122) Which one of the following statements characterizes a democratic and cooperative leadership style?If conflicts evolve, the leader
Answer
  • mainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to reestablish a nice and friendly atmosphere within the team
  • keeps a neutral position and does not participate in arguing
  • decides what to do and pushes his own opinion through
  • tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved

Question 72

Question
40.3.4.3 (3123) Which of the following sentences concerning crew-performance is correct?
Answer
  • Mistakes can always be detected and corrected faster by the individual
  • To be a member of a team can not increase one's own motivation to succeed in coping with task demands
  • The quality of crew-performance depends on the social-competence of individual team members
  • The quality of crew-performance is not dependent on social-competence of individual team members

Question 73

Question
40.3.4.3 (3126) Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts?
Answer
  • Staying to the own point of view.
  • Responding with counter-arguments.
  • Active listening.
  • Giving up the own point of view

Question 74

Question
40.3.4.3 (3127) The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on
Answer
  • both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goals
  • both pilots wearing the same uniform
  • both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude
  • both pilots flying together very often for a long period

Question 75

Question
40.3.4.3 (3131) The ""ideal professional pilot"" is, in his behaviour,
Answer
  • rather ""person"" than ""goal"" oriented
  • ""person"" and ""goal"" oriented
  • rather ""goal"" than ""person"" oriented
  • neither ""person"" nor ""goal"" oriented

Question 76

Question
40.3.4.3 (3134) What elements establish synergy within the crew ?
Answer
  • Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing)
  • Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the group members (communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.)
  • Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to debriefing
  • It is only the captain's status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew

Question 77

Question
40.3.4.3 (3137) What may become the main risk of a ""laissez-faire""(liberalismo) cockpit ?
Answer
  • Lack of communication
  • Inversion of authority
  • Disengagement of the co-pilot
  • Appearance of agressiveness

Question 78

Question
40.3.4.3 (3138) What is characterized by a ""laissez-faire"" cockpit ?
Answer
  • Each member carries out actions and makes choices without explicity informing the other members about them
  • A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew members
  • The high level of independence granted to eachoding:
  • The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation

Question 79

Question
40.3.4.3 (3145) What is synergy in a crew ?
Answer
  • A behavioural expedient associated with the desynchronisation of the coordinated actions
  • The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving a non-standard task
  • The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which collective performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual performances
  • The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a common objective

Question 80

Question
40.3.4.3 (3147) An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:
Answer
  • the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members
  • decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other crew members
  • decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew
  • the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level

Question 81

Question
40.3.4.3 (3149) CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:
Answer
  • intended solely to alter an individual's personality,
  • intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes towards flight safety and human relationship management
  • is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes
  • not intended to change the individual's attitude at all

Question 82

Question
40.3.5.1 (3180) Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high workload conditions in the cockpit?
Answer
  • Mentally absent.
  • Sensitive.
  • Disciplined.
  • Jovial.

Question 83

Question
40.3.6.2 (3198) In case of in-flight stress, one should :
Answer
  • only trust in oneself, beeing sure to know the own limits
  • use all available resources of the crew
  • always carry out a breathing exercise
  • demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew

Question 84

Question
40.3.6.2 (3205) What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation?
Answer
  • The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual.
  • The objective threat of the situation.
  • The time available to cope with the situation.
  • The unexpected outcome of the situation.

Question 85

Question
40.3.6.2 (3209) Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?
Answer
  • Stress always creates a state of high tension which decreases cognitive and behavioural performance.
  • Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or reduces performance.
  • Stress is evaluated as a positiv mechanism only in connection with precise tasks of the kind encountered in aeronautics
  • Stress is a necessary way of demonstrating one's own work.

Question 86

Question
40.3.6.2 (3223) Stress is above all :
Answer
  • a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control
  • the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the various situation which he may have to face
  • a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his performance
  • a phenomenon which is specific to modern man

Question 87

Question
40.3.6.2 (3229) A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:
Answer
  • coping stress
  • eustress
  • distress (stress reactions)
  • stressors

Question 88

Question
40.3.6.3 (3238) A fatigued pilot 
Answer
  • is acting similar as when encountering a state of depression
  • will get precordial pain
  • considerably increases the ability to concentrate
  • will show signs of increased irritability

Question 89

Question
40.3.6.5 (3261) What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints ?
Answer
  • The preparation of action and time management
  • The preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasks
  • The prioritisation of tasks and the application of procedures
  • The preparation of action and the application of procedures

Question 90

Question
50.1.1.1 (3273) What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?
Answer
  • 16 km
  • 8 km
  • 11 km
  • 40 km

Question 91

Question
50.1.1.1 (3274) In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ?
Answer
  • Tropopause.
  • Stratosphere
  • Troposphere.
  • Stratopause.

Question 92

Question
50.1.1.1 (3276) Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
Answer
  • Altocumulus
  • Cumulonimbus
  • Cirrostratus
  • Altostratus

Question 93

Question
50.1.1.1 (3278) Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?
Answer
  • Lower stratosphere
  • Troposphere
  • Upper stratosphere
  • Ionosphere

Question 94

Question
50.1.1.1 (3280) What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ?
Answer
  • 10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
  • 21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
  • 50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
  • 88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses

Question 95

Question
50.1.1.1 (3284) The tropopause is a level at which
Answer
  • water vapour content is greatest
  • temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
  • pressure remains constant
  • vertical currents are strongest

Question 96

Question
50.1.1.1 (3287) The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of
Answer
  • 8 km and - 75°C over the poles
  • 16 km and -75°C over the equator
  • 8 km and -40°C over the equator
  • 16 km and -40°C over the poles

Question 97

Question
50.1.2.1 (3289) The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
Answer
  • -6°C.
  • -9°C.
  • -18°C.
  • -15°C.

Question 98

Question
50.1.2.1 (3290) At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C, according to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350 ?
Answer
  • -54°C.
  • -58°C.
  • -50°C.
  • -56,5°C.

Question 99

Question
50.1.2.1 (3291) An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
Answer
  • 10°C colder than ISA
  • 10°C warmer than ISA
  • 5°C warmer than ISA.
  • 5°C colder than ISA.

Question 100

Question
50.1.2.1 (3292) What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?
Answer
  • -75°C.
  • -35°C.
  • -55°C.
  • -25°C

Question 101

Question
50.1.2.1 (3294) The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
Answer
  • -4°C
  • 0°C
  • -6°C
  • +2°C

Question 102

Question
50.1.2.1 (3296) The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
Answer
  • -4°C
  • -8°C
  • 0°C
  • +4°C

Question 103

Question
50.1.2.1 (3301) In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature
Answer
  • decreases with altitude
  • is almost constant
  • increases with altitude
  • increases at first and decreases afterward

Question 104

Question
50.1.2.3 (3309) In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and 13°C at 1000m. This layer of air is:
Answer
  • stable
  • unstable
  • a layer of heavy turbulence
  • conditionally unstable

Question 105

Question
50.1.2.3 (3315) An inversion is a layer of air which is
Answer
  • absolutely unstable
  • absolutely stable
  • conditionally unstable
  • conditionally stable

Question 106

Question
50.1.2.3 (3317) The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of
Answer
  • 1°C/100m
  • 2°C/1000FT
  • 0.65°C/100m
  • 0.5°C/100m

Question 107

Question
50.1.2.4 (3326) An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature
Answer
  • increases with height
  • remains constant with height
  • decreases with height at a constant rate
  • increases with height at a constant rate

Question 108

Question
50.1.2.4 (3327) An inversion is
Answer
  • an increase of temperature with height
  • an increase of pressure with height
  • a decrease of temperature with height
  • a decrease of pressure with height

Question 109

Question
50.1.3.1 (3332) The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
Answer
  • QFF
  • QFE
  • QNH
  • QNE

Question 110

Question
50.1.3.1 (3334) Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal
Answer
  • QFF
  • QNE 
  • QFE
  • QNH

Question 111

Question
50.1.3.2 (3339) Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure ?
Answer
  • It is higher at night than during the day
  • It decreases with height
  • It is higher in winter than in summer
  • It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m

Question 112

Question
50.1.3.3 (3341) In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?
Answer
  • Temperature at the airfield.
  • Elevation of the airfield.
  • Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.
  • Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.

Question 113

Question
50.1.3.3 (3349) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH ?
Answer
  • 1000 hPa
  • 1005 hPa
  • 1010 hPa
  • 1015 hPa

Question 114

Question
50.1.3.3 (3350) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?
Answer
  • 985 hPa
  • 990 hPa
  • 1025 hPa
  • 1035 hPa

Question 115

Question
50.1.3.3 (3353) QNH is defined as
Answer
  • pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere
  • QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere
  • QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere
  • pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere

Question 116

Question
50.1.3.3 (3354) In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ?
Answer
  • Temperature at the airfield
  • Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
  • Elevation of the airfield
  • Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield

Question 117

Question
50.1.4.1 (3355) At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is:
Answer
  • Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
  • Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
  • Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
  • Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.

Question 118

Question
50.1.5.1 (3363) A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ? 
Answer
  • FL 50
  • FL100
  • FL 300
  • FL 390

Question 119

Question
50.1.5.1 (3364) If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be? 
Answer
  • -15°C
  • -30°C
  • -45°C
  • -60°C

Question 120

Question
50.1.5.1 (3367) How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause?
Answer
  • Decreases
  • Increases
  • Remains constant
  • At first it increases and higher up it decreases

Question 121

Question
50.1.5.1 (3368) What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere ?
Answer
  • 2°C per 1000 m
  • 3°C per 1000 m
  • 4.5°C per 1000 m
  • 6.5°C per 1000 m

Question 122

Question
50.1.5.1 (3369) In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is
Answer
  • 0.65°C per 100m
  • 0.5°C per 100m
  • 1°C per 100m
  • 0.6°C per 100m

Question 123

Question
50.1.5.1 (3370) Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere ?
Answer
  • At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
  • At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa
  • At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
  • At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m

Question 124

Question
50.1.5.1 (3372) The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :
Answer
  • 0°C
  • -5°C
  • -20°C
  • -35°C

Question 125

Question
50.1.6.1 (3374) The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is -15°C below FL 100.What is the true altitude of FL 100?
Answer
  • 8590 FT.
  • 10210 FT
  • 9790 FT.
  • 11410 FT.

Question 126

Question
50.1.6.1 (3382) During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet, local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
Answer
  • Its average temperature is the same as ISA
  • It is colder than ISA
  • It is warmer than ISA
  • There is insufficient information to make any assumption

Question 127

Question
50.1.6.1 (3384) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet, local QNH is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ?
Answer
  • It is colder than ISA
  • Its average temperature is the same as ISA
  • There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
  • It is warmer than ISA

Question 128

Question
50.1.6.1 (3385) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet, local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ?
Answer
  • It is warmer than ISA
  • Its average temperature is about ISA
  • It is colder than ISA
  • There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion

Question 129

Question
50.1.6.1 (3392) You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
Answer
  • 19340 feet
  • 18260 feet
  • 21740 feet
  • 20660 feet

Question 130

Question
50.1.6.1 (3395) Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually flown ?
Answer
  • Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.
  • Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
  • Air temperature higher than standard
  • Air temperature lower than standard.(Aÿÿ8E¹)@5)

Question 131

Question
50.1.6.1 (3396) The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
Answer
  • the outside air temperature is standard for that height
  • standard atmospheric conditions occur
  • the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
  • the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface

Question 132

Question
50.1.6.3 (3400) What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT below sea level?
Answer
  • QFE is greater than QNH.
  • QFE equals QNH.
  • QFE is smaller than QNH.
  • No clear relationship exist

Question 133

Question
50.1.6.3 (3403) An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level ?
Answer
  • It will increase
  • It will decrease
  • It will remain the same
  • It will not be affected

Question 134

Question
50.1.6.3 (3404) After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level ?
Answer
  • 660 feet.
  • 1200 feet.
  • 1740 feet.
  • 2280 feet.

Question 135

Question
50.1.6.3 (3406) During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure?
Answer
  • It will increase
  • It is not possible to give a definitive answer
  • It will decrease
  • It will remain the same

Question 136

Question
50.1.6.3 (3408) What pressure is defined as QFE?
Answer
  • The pressure at field elevation
  • The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures
  • The pressure of the altimeter
  • The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures

Question 137

Question
50.1.6.3 (3409) An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be
Answer
  • 2922 FT.
  • 3006 FT.
  • 4278 FT.
  • 4194 FT.

Question 138

Question
50.1.6.3 (3411) An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately 
Answer
  • 7650 FT.
  • 8000 FT
  • 8600 FT.
  • 8350 FT.

Question 139

Question
50.1.6.3 (3413) Which of the following statements is true ?
Answer
  • QNH is always equal to QFE
  • QNH can be equal to QFE
  • QNH is always higher than QFE
  • QNH is always lower than QFE

Question 140

Question
50.1.6.4 (3422) What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level?
Answer
  • Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
  • Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA
  • Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
  • Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA

Question 141

Question
50.1.6.4 (3423) Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight over mountains could be dangereous?
Answer
  • Cold high.
  • Cold low
  • Warm high.
  • Warm depression.

Question 142

Question
50.1.6.4 (3424) A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?
Answer
  • It remains 1000 FT
  • Less than 1000 FT
  • Without QNH information, it can not be determined
  • More than 1000 FT

Question 143

Question
50.2.1.1 (3426) What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?
Answer
  • 35 km/h
  • 45 km/h
  • 5 km/h
  • 60 km/h

Question 144

Question
50.2.1.1 (3427) What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?
Answer
  • 50 kt
  • 55 kt
  • 60 kt
  • 70 kt

Question 145

Question
50.2.1.1 (3428) What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?
Answer
  • 15 m/sec
  • 20 m/sec
  • 25 m/sec
  • 30 m/sec

Question 146

Question
50.2.1.1 (3429) What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
Answer
  • Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
  • Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh
  • Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
  • Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh

Question 147

Question
50.2.2.1 (3431) Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?
Answer
  • Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
  • Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
  • Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.
  • Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.

Question 148

Question
50.2.2.1 (3437) What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas ?
Answer
  • Surface friction
  • Katabatic force
  • Coriolis force
  • The pressure gradient force

Question 149

Question
50.2.2.1 (3439) Wind is caused by
Answer
  • friction between the air and the ground
  • the movements of fronts
  • the rotation of the earth
  • horizontal pressure differences

Question 150

Question
50.2.2.2 (3454) When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely to be
Answer
  • light
  • changing direction rapidly
  • strong
  • blowing perpendicular to the isobars

Question 151

Question
Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description?""There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's center of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult.""
Answer
  • Light.
  • Moderate
  • Severe.
  • Violent.

Question 152

Question
50.2.4.2 (3472) Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ?
Answer
  • Altocumulus lenticularis
  • Nimbostratus
  • Stratocumulus
  • Cirrocumulus

Question 153

Question
50.2.4.2 (3473) Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of
Answer
  • turbulence at and below the cloud level
  • smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
  • poor visibility at surface
  • a high risk of thunderstorms

Question 154

Question
50.2.5.1 (3485) In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows
Answer
  • counter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure area
  • clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a low pressure area
  • from a low pressure area to a high pressure area
  • counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area.

Question 155

Question
50.2.6.1 (3493) In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows :
Answer
  • during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
  • during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
  • during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
  • during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.

Question 156

Question
50.2.6.1 (3494) A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon?
Answer
  • Land to sea.
  • Variable.
  • Sea to land.
  • Parallel to the coastline.

Question 157

Question
50.2.6.1 (3495) A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows
Answer
  • up the slope during the day.
  • down the slope during the night.
  • down the slope during the day.
  • up the slope during the night.

Question 158

Question
50.2.6.1 (3496) Which of the following is true of a land breeze?
Answer
  • It blows from land to water
  • It blows from water to land
  • It blows only at noon
  • It blows by day

Question 159

Question
50.2.6.1 (3498) The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the :
Answer
  • mountain at night.
  • valley during daylight hours.
  • mountain during daylight hours.
  • valley during daylight as much as at night.

Question 160

Question
50.2.6.1 (3500) When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of water will experience wind
Answer
  • from the water in daytime and from the land at night
  • from the land in daytime and from the water at night
  • continually from land to water
  • continually from water to the land

Question 161

Question
50.2.6.1 (3502) In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows
Answer
  • during the day down from the mountains
  • at night up from the valley
  • at night down from the mountains
  • during the day up from the valley

Question 162

Question
50.2.7.2 (3504) An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight?
Answer
  • It decreases.
  • It remains constant.
  • It first increases, then decreases.
  • It increases.

Question 163

Question
50.2.7.2 (3510) Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?
Answer
  • The arctic jet stream
  • The polar front jet stream
  • The equatorial jet stream
  • The subtropical jet stream

Question 164

Question
What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?
Answer
  • 50 kt.
  • 60 kt.
  • 70 kt.
  • 100 kt.

Question 165

Question
50.2.7.5 (3533) In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ? 
Answer
  • Exactly in the centre of the core.
  • The cold air side of the core.
  • The warm air side of the core.
  • About 12000 FT above the core

Question 166

Question
50.2.8.1 (3537) At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is
Answer
  • altocumulus lenticularis.
  • cirrostratus.
  • cirrus.
  • cumulus mediocris.

Question 167

Question
50.3.1.1 (3538) What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather stand-point ?
Answer
  • Nitrogen
  • Oxygen
  • Water vapour
  • Hydrogen

Question 168

Question
50.3.1.2 (3549) The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
Answer
  • relative humidity
  • air temperature
  • dewpoint
  • stability of the air

Question 169

Question
50.3.1.2 (3551) The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater in
Answer
  • dry air
  • moist air
  • air with low temperature
  • air with high temperature

Question 170

Question
50.3.1.2 (3552) The dewpoint temperature
Answer
  • is always lower than the air temperature
  • can not be equal to the air temperature
  • can be equal to the air temperature
  • is always higher than the air temperature

Question 171

Question
50.3.1.2 (3553) Relative humidity depends on
Answer
  • moisture content and pressure of the air
  • moisture content and temperature of the air
  • temperature of the air only
  • moisture content of the air only

Question 172

Question
50.3.2.1 (3557) Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:
Answer
  • water vapour is present.
  • water vapour condenses.
  • temperature and dew point are nearly equal
  • relative humidity reaches 98%.

Question 173

Question
50.3.2.1 (3558) In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released ?
Answer
  • Solid to liquid
  • Gas to liquid
  • Liquid to gas
  • Solid to gas

Question 174

Question
50.3.2.1 (3560) Supercooled droplets can occur in
Answer
  • precipitation but not in clouds
  • clouds, fog and precipitation
  • clouds but not in precipitation
  • clouds but not in fog

Question 175

Question
50.3.2.1 (3564) The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as
Answer
  • supercooling
  • sublimation
  • radiation cooling
  • supersaturation

Question 176

Question
50.3.3.1 (3567) What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ?
Answer
  • 2.0°C
  • 3.0°C.
  • 3.5°C
  • 1.5°C

Question 177

Question
50.3.3.1 (3575) A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is
Answer
  • between 1°C per 100m and 0.65°C per 100m
  • more than 1°C per 100m
  • less than 0.65°C per 100m
  • 0.65°C per 100m

Question 178

Question
50.3.3.1 (3576) A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is
Answer
  • neutral
  • conditionally unstable
  • unstable
  • absolutely stable

Question 179

Question
50.3.3.1 (3581) In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer can be described as being
Answer
  • conditionally stable
  • absolutely stable
  • absolutely unstable
  • conditionally unstable

Question 180

Question
50.3.3.1 (3583) The stability in a layer is increasing if
Answer
  • warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
  • warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
  • cold and dry air is advected in the upper partd
  • warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part

Question 181

Question
50.4.1.1 (3590) Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds?
Answer
  • Convection.
  • Subsidence.
  • Radiation.
  • Frontal lifting within stable layers.

Question 182

Question
50.4.1.1 (3593) Convective clouds are formed
Answer
  • in stable atmosphere
  • in summer during the day only
  • in unstable atmosphere
  • in mid-latitudes only

Question 183

Question
50.4.1.2 (3599) What is the main composition of clouds classified as ""high level clouds""?
Answer
  • Supercooled water droplets.
  • Ice crystals.
  • Water vapour
  • Water droplets.

Question 184

Question
50.4.1.2 (3601) Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?
Answer
  • CS
  • ST
  • AS
  • CC

Question 185

Question
50.4.1.2 (3602) Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
Answer
  • CU, CB
  • NS, CU
  • ST, AS
  • CB, CC

Question 186

Question
50.4.1.2 (3605) Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels ?
Answer
  • CB
  • ST
  • AC
  • CI

Question 187

Question
50.4.1.2 (3608) Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?
Answer
  • CU
  • CI
  • AS
  • SC

Question 188

Question
50.4.1.2 (3614) Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from
Answer
  • 1000 to 2000 FT
  • the surface to 6500 FT
  • 100 to 200 FT
  • 500 to 1000 FT

Question 189

Question
50.4.1.2 (3615) Which of the following are medium level clouds ?
Answer
  • Altostratus and altocumulus
  • All convective clouds
  • Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
  • Cumulonimbus

Question 190

Question
50.4.1.2 (3616) What type of cloud is being described ?A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
Answer
  • Altostratus
  • Nimbostratus
  • Stratus
  • Cirrostratus

Question 191

Question
50.4.1.2 (3617) The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates
Answer
  • strong convection at low height
  • subsidence in a large part of the troposphere
  • instability in the middle troposphere
  • stability in the higher troposphere

Question 192

Question
50.4.1.4 (3619) What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?
Answer
  • Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.
  • Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice.
  • Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
  • Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice.

Question 193

Question
50.4.1.4 (3620) In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?
Answer
  • In Nimbostratus cloud
  • in clear air above the freezing level
  • Below the freezing level in clear air
  • Within cloud of any type

Question 194

Question
50.4.1.4 (3622) Cumulus clouds are an indication for
Answer
  • stability
  • up and downdrafts
  • the approach of a cold front
  • the approach of a warm front

Question 195

Question
50.4.2.1 (3624) What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?
Answer
  • 500 FT.
  • 2 000 FT.
  • 5 000 FT.
  • 10 000 FT.

Question 196

Question
50.4.2.1 (3629) What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog ?
Answer
  • Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.
  • Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface.
  • Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling.
  • Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea.

Question 197

Question
50.4.2.1 (3630) What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions ?
Answer
  • Advection.
  • Radiation.
  • Steam.
  • Orographic.

Question 198

Question
50.4.2.1 (3631) Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
Answer
  • Very dry air
  • Strong surface winds
  • Little or no cloud
  • Very low temperature

Question 199

Question
50.4.2.1 (3633) When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be
Answer
  • clear and cool
  • fog or low cloud
  • unlimited visibility
  • high scattered clouds

Question 200

Question
50.4.2.1 (3634) The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to produce
Answer
  • radiation fog
  • a cold front
  • advection fog
  • good clear weather
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