Quiz
*w*x2
This quiz has a time limit, so it opens in the usual player.
Questions in this quiz (109)
1Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

- AThe default gateway address is not provided in the pool
- BNo clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet
- CThe IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified
- DThe state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation
2Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?
- Aa DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
- Ba DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
- Ca DHCPREQUEST unicast message
- Da DHCPDISCOVER unicast message
3Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
- Aip dhcp pool
- Bip address dhcp
- Cservice dhcp
- Dip helper-address
4Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?

- AA DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
- BR1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
- CThe ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
- DThe ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
5A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
- Aip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
- Bip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
- Cip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365 - Dip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365 - ENo additional configuration is necessary.
6What is a disadvantage of NAT?
- AThere is no end-to-end addressing.
- BThe router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
- CThe internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
- DThe costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
7Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
- ATelnet
- BIPsec
- CHTTP
- DICMP
- EDNS
8What benefit does NAT64 provide?
- AIt allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
- BIt allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
- CIt allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
- DIt allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
9Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

- AR1 Gi0/1.12
- BR1 S0/0/0
- CR2 S0/0/1
- DR2 Gi0/1.20
- Einbound
- Foutbound
10Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
- Adestination MAC address
- BICMP message type
- Ccomputer type
- Dsource TCP hello address
- Edestination UDP port number
11A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?
- Ain an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
- Bin an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
- Cin an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
- Din an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device
12Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
- Aaccess list number between 1 and 99
- Baccess list number between 100 and 199
- Cdefault gateway address and wildcard mask
- Ddestination address and wildcard mask
- Esource address and wildcard mask
- Fsource subnet mask and wildcard mask
- Gdestination subnet mask and wildcard mask
13A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
- A0.0.0.127
- B0.0.0.255
- C0.0.1.255
- D0.0.255.255
- EA single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.
14The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
- Aaccess-class 5 in
- Baccess-list 5 deny any
- Caccess-list standard VTY
- Dpermit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
- Eaccess-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
- Fip access-group 5 out
- Gip access-group 5 in
15A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
- Apermit ip any any
- Bpermit ip any host ip_address
- Cpermit icmp any any nd-na
- Ddeny ip any any
16Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
- AIt is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
- BIt is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
- CIt has an administrative distance of 1.
- DIt is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
17Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

- AThe ip route command was used.
- BThe ipv6 route command was used.
- CAnother router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol
- DThe ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.
18Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
- AIPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
- BIPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.
- CIPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
- DIPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.
19Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

- Achild route
- Bultimate route
- Cdefault route
- Dlevel 1 parent route
20Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
- Ascalability
- BISP selection
- Cspeed of convergence
- Dthe autonomous system that is used
- Ecampus backbone architecture
21Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

- Adirectly attached static route
- Brecursive static route
- Cfully specified static route
- Dfloating static route
22A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
- Aip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
- Bip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
- Cip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
- Dip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
23Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
- Aipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
- Bipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
- Cipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
- Dipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
24Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
25Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?
- AOSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
- BOSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
- COSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
- DOSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.
26What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
- AThey exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
- BThey negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
- CThey request more information about their databases.
- DThey exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.
27What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
- AA higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
- BLink cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
- CCost equals bandwidth.
- DA lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
28Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
- Athe link router interface IP address and subnet mask
- Bthe type of network link
- Cthe link next-hop IP address
- Dthe link bandwidth
- Ethe cost of that link
29Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
- AThe two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
- BThe OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
- CThe OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
- DThe OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
- EThe link interface subnet masks must match.
- FThe link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
30A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
- ARouterA(config)# router ospf 0
- BRouterA(config)# router ospf 1
- CRouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
- DRouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
- ERouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
31What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
- ARouters send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
- BRouters send triggered updates in response to a change.
- CRouters create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
- DThe database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
- EPaths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
32Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?
- Ato determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding
- Bto determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
- Cto determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
- Dto determine which ports are functioning
33Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
- Aswitchport mode access
switchport port-security - Bswitchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict - Cswitchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky - Dswitchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect
- Aswitchport mode access
34Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
- AAn encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
- BA cable has not been attached to the port.
- CThe no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
- DThere is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
35There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down- AThere is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down - BAn unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
- CNAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
- DA host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
- EPort security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
- AThere is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
36While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?
- AAll traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
- BThe control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
- CAll traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
- DUnexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.
37Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
- Adynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
- Bdynamic auto – dynamic auto
- Cdynamic desirable – dynamic auto
- Ddynamic desirable – trunk
- Eaccess – trunk
- Faccess – dynamic auto
38What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)
- AChange the native VLAN on both ports.
- BConfigure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
- CConfigure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.
- DConfigure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
- EPlace the two attached switch ports in access mode.
39A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
- ASwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1 - BSwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast - CSwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk - DSwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
- ASwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
40Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)
- ADesigned to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.
- BThe native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
- CThis VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.
- DHigh priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
- EThe native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.
41On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
- ASwitch# delete flash:vlan.dat
- BSwitch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
- CSwitch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
- DSwitch(config)# no vlan 100
42What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
- AThe native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
- BThe security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
- CA separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
- DThe native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
43A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
- AAll devices in all VLANs see the frame.
- BDevices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
- COnly devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
- DOnly devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
44Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

- AA configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
- BThere is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
- CThe wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.
- DThe VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.
45What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?
- AThe access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.
- BThe access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
- CThe access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
- DThe access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.
46Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

- AR2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
- BR2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
- CR2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
- DR2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
47 Fill in the blank.
In IPv6, all routes are level ___________ ultimate routes.- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
48Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the [blank_start]ip route[blank_end] global configuration command.
- Aip route
49Fill in the blank.
The OSPF Type 1 packet is the [blank_start]Hello[blank_end] packet.- AHello
50Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static route is [blank_start]1[blank_end] .
- A1
51Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)
- ASi

- BNo
- ASi
52Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

- A10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
- B5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
- C5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
- D16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
53What is a function of the distribution layer?
- Afault isolation
- Bnetwork access to the user
- Chigh-speed backbone connectivity
- Dinterconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
54Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
- Aborderless switching
- Bcut-through switching
- Cingress port buffering
- Dstore-and-forward switching
55Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

- AThe default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
- BNo clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
- CThe IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
- DThe state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.
56Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
- Aip dhcp pool
- Bip address dhcp
- Cservice dhcp
- Dip helper-address
57Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?
- Aa DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
- Ba DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
- Ca DHCPREQUEST unicast message
- Da DHCPDISCOVER unicast message
58Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?

- AA DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
- BR1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
- CThe ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
- DThe ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
59A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
- Aip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
- Bip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
- Cip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365 - Dip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365 - ENo additional configuration is necessary.
60What is a disadvantage of NAT?
- AThere is no end-to-end addressing.
- BThe router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
- CThe internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
- DThe costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
61Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
- ATelnet
- BIPsec
- CHTTP
- DICMP
- EDNS
62What benefit does NAT64 provide?
- AIt allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
- BIt allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
- CIt allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
- DIt allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
63Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

- AR1 Gi0/1.12
- BR1 S0/0/0
- CR2 S0/0/1
- DR2 Gi0/1.20
- Einbound
- Foutbound
64Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

- AR1 Gi0/1.12
- BR1 S0/0/0
- CR2 S0/0/1
- DR2 Gi0/1.20
- Einbound
- Foutbound
65Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
- Adestination MAC address
- BICMP message type
- Ccomputer type
- Dsource TCP hello address
- Edestination UDP port number
66A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?
- Ain an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
- Bin an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
- Cin an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
- Din an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device
67Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
- Aaccess list number between 1 and 99
- Baccess list number between 100 and 199
- Cdefault gateway address and wildcard mask
- Ddestination address and wildcard mask
- Esource address and wildcard mask
- Fsource subnet mask and wildcard mask
- Gdestination subnet mask and wildcard mask
68A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
- AA single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.
- B0.0.255.255
- C0.0.1.255
- D0.0.0.255
- E0.0.0.127
69The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
- Aaccess-class 5 in
- Baccess-list 5 deny any
- Caccess-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127 - Daccess-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
- Eip access-group 5 out
- Fip access-group 5 in
70A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
- Apermit ip any any
- Bpermit ip any host ip_address
- Cpermit icmp any any nd-na
- Ddeny ip any any
71Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
- AIt is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
- BIt is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
- CIt has an administrative distance of 1.
- DIt is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
72Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

- AThe ip route command was used.
- BThe ipv6 route command was used.
- CAnother router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.
- DThe ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.
73Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

- Achild route
- Bultimate route
- Cdefault route
- Dlevel 1 parent route
74Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
- Ascalability
- BISP selection
- Cspeed of convergence
- Dthe autonomous system that is used
- Ecampus backbone architecture
75Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

- Adirectly attached static route
- Brecursive static route
- Cfully specified static route
- Dfloating static route
76A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
- Aip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
- Bip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
- Cip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
- Dip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
77Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
- Aipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
- Bipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
- Cipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
- Dipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
78Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
79Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?
- AOSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
- BOSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID
- COSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
- DOSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.
80What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
- AThey exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
- BThey negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
- CThey request more information about their databases.
- DThey exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.
81What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
- AA higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination
- BLink cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
- CCost equals bandwidth.
- DA lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
82Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
- Athe link router interface IP address and subnet mask
- Bthe type of network link
- Cthe link next-hop IP address
- Dthe link bandwidth
- Ethe cost of that link
83Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
- AThe two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
- BThe OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id comma
- CThe OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
- DThe OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
- EThe link interface subnet masks must match.
- FThe link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
84A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
- ARouterA(config)# router ospf 0
- BRouterA(config)# router ospf 1
- CRouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
- DRouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
- ERouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
85What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
- ARouters send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
- BRouters send triggered updates in response to a change.
- CRouters create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
- DThe database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
- EPaths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
86Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?
- Ato determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding
- Bto determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
- Cto determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
- Dto determine which ports are functioning
87Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
- Aswitchport mode access
switchport port-security - Bswitchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict - Cswitchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky - Dswitchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect
- Aswitchport mode access
88Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
- AAn encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
- BA cable has not been attached to the port.
- CThe no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
- DThere is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
89What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down- AAnother switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
- BAn unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
- CNAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
- DA host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
- EPort security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
90While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?
- AAll traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
- BThe control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
- CAll traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
- DUnexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.
91Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
- Adynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
- Bdynamic auto – dynamic auto
- Cdynamic desirable – dynamic auto
- Ddynamic desirable – trunk
- Eaccess – trunk
- Faccess – dynamic auto
92What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)
- AChange the native VLAN on both ports.
- BConfigure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
- CConfigure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.
- DConfigure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
- EPlace the two attached switch ports in access mode.
93A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
- ASwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1 - BSwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast - CSwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk - DSwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
- ASwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
94Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)
- ADesigned to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.
- BThe native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
- CThis VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.
- DHigh priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
- EThe native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.
95On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
- ASwitch# delete flash:vlan.dat
- BSwitch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
- CSwitch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
- DSwitch(config)# no vlan 100
96What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
- AThe native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
- BThe security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
- CA separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
- DThe native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
97A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
- AAll devices in all VLANs see the frame.
- BDevices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
- COnly devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
- DOnly devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
98Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

- AA configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
- BThere is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
- CThe wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.
- DThe VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.
99What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?
- AThe access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.
- BThe access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
- CThe access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
- DThe access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.
100Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

- AR2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
- BR2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
- CR2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
- DR2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
101Fill in the blank.
In IPv6, all routes are level [blank_start]1[blank_end] ultimate routes.- A1
102Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the [blank_start]ip route[blank_end] global configuration command.
- Aip route
103Fill in the blank.
The OSPF Type 1 packet is the [blank_start]Hello[blank_end] packet.- AHello
104Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static route is [blank_start]1[blank_end] .
- A1
105Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)
Each router is responsible for "saying hello" to its neighbors on directly connected networks
Each router builds an LSP that contains the state of each directly connected link
Each router learns about each of its own directly connected networks
Each router increments the hop count for the destination network
Each router floods the LSP o all LSPs recieved in database
Each router uses the databases to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best path to each destination network- Astep 2
step 3
step 1
--------
step 4
step 5 - Bstep 3
step 1
step 2
step 5
--------
step 4 - Cstep 2
step 4
step 2
step 3
step 1
-------- - D--------
step 2
step 3
step 1
step 4
step 5
- Astep 2
106Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
- Athe destination MAC address and the incoming port
- Bthe destination MAC address and the outgoing port
- Cthe source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
- Dthe source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
- Ethe source MAC address and the incoming port
- Fthe source MAC address and the outgoing port
107Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

- A10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
- B5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
- C5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
- D16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
108What is a function of the distribution layer?
- Afault isolation
- Bnetwork access to the user
- Chigh-speed backbone connectivity
- Dinterconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
109Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
- Aborderless switching
- Bcut-through switching
- Cingress port buffering
- Dstore-and-forward switching
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- 2 Redes Quiz on *w*x2, created by Mon Og on 10/06/2018.
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- Mon Og
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