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Security Architecture for Systems Engineer (SASE)
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Questions in this quiz (90)
1What are two key points of the Cisco Security and Threat Landscape module? (Choose two.)
- AA. The Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio drives customer business outcomes by providing threat-centric defense, visibility and control, and flexible solutions
- BB. The threat landscape is expanding, becoming more complex, and threats are increasingly costing more to customers
- CC. The Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio stops all threat from entering a customers network.
- DD. Customers need several solutions to protect their environment
2What are three main challenges addressed by Cisco's cloud delivered security solutions? (Choose three.)
- AThreats are becoming too advanced tor traditional hardware
- BSolutions often require frequent hardware updates
- CEmployees are unable to work remotely
- DBusinesses are using email too frequently
- EFrequently installing new servers, appliances, and devices adds to the maintenance workload
- FIT staff must continuously grow with additional specializations to address the solutions
3Which Cisco product is a part of the Data Center threat centric solution?
- ACloudlock
- BCisco Defense Orchestrator
- CNGFWv
- DMeraki MX
4Which feature of E-mail Security protects users from virus outbreaks using the Tabs database to quarantine suspicious messages?
- AAntivirus defense
- BOutbreak fitters
- CData Loss Prevention
- DAdvanced Malware Protection
5What two challenges do customers face in their Campus and Branch deployments? (Choose two)
- ASecuring the entire infrastructure
- BStopping data breaches across campuses and branches
- CProtect data across multiple cloud applications
- DMonitoring file behavior across a large set of endpoints
- EUnderstanding what our users are doing online
6Which two features are part of the ISE Plus license? (Choose two.)
- AThreat Centric NAC
- BProfiling and feed services
- CGuest management
- DCisco pxGrid
- EBasic network Access AAA. 802 IX
7Which feature of Cisco Web Security leverages the Outbreak Intelligence Engine to scan individual pieces of websites before allowing access?
- AAntivirus Monitoring
- BDynamic Content Analysis
- CReal-time Sandboxing Analysis
- DVisibility control
8Which three options does Cisco provides customers in terms of "Visibility and Control" against today's threats? (Choose three)
- AGranular device visibility and management
- BUnparalleled network and endpoint visibility
- C18-month device release cycle
- DBandwith Utilization Monitoring
- EComprehensive policy enforcement
- FFast device policy updates
9Which license subscription terms are available for AMP licensing?
- A1 month 3 months 6 months
- B. 1 year. 5 years. 10 years
- C5 years 10 years 30 years
- D1 year. 3 years. 5 years
10Which three features provided by NGFW and NGIPS support the 'Internet Edge" use case? (Choose three.)
- ASupports High Availability
- BSupport for profiling devices
- CSupports dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF or BGP
- DSupport for Platform exchange grid
- ESupport for High Bandwith environments
- FSupport for integrated posture assessment
11Which are two key Cisco products that are part of the web threat-centric solution? (Choose two.)
- ACisco Defense Orchestrator
- BCisco Umbrella
- CCisco Identity Services Engine
- DCisco Web Security Appliance
- ECisco Email Security Appliance
12Which are three main features of the Meraki MX discussed in Cloud App Security module? (Choose three)
- ACloud-Brokered VPN
- BPosture Assessment
- CIntrusion Prevention
- DEmail Security
- ENext Generation Firewall
- FProfiling
13What are three benefits that Cisco Umbrella brings to DNS-Layer Security? (Choose three.)
- AHelps provide breach mitigation
- BBlocks Domains/IPs associated with malware, phising, etc
- CDelivers cloud based recursive DNS
- DProvides profiling of devices
- ELogs all internet activity
- FProvides Sandboxing of malware
14Which is a security product that was covered in the Policy and access security module?
- ACisco NFGW
- BCisco Identity Services Engine
- CCisco NGIPS
- DCisco Defense Orchestrator
15Which Cisco product included in the Endpoint threat-centric solution?
- AUmbrella
- BASAv
- CMeraki MX
- DCloudlock
16Which are two main features of Intrusion Prevention? (Choose two.)
- AThreat analysis through network behavior analysis
- BProtecting against Zero-Day attacks
- CLayer-4 traffic monitoring across platforms
- DVulnerability-based threat management
17Which TrustSec feature allows customers to simplify firewall administration, avoiding the common rule explosions that happen when new servers are onboarded?
- AFirewall administration
- BPush policies
- CTraffic tagging
- DRegulate access
18How does AMP's device trajectory capabilities help address customer s issues?
- AIt determines the scope and cause of an outbreak and tracks suspicious files
- BIt searches for potential threats based on identified activities and behaviors
- CIt isolates suspicious files and runs them in a sandbox environment to determine their Authenticity
- DIt analyses the data from suspicious files to provide a new level of threat intelligence
19Which Stealthwatch component is a physical or virtual appliance that aggregates and normalizes NetFlow data?
- AInvestigate
- BStealthwatch Management Center
- CFlow Collector
- DUDP Director
20Which Policy and Access solution technology combines posture checks and authentication across wired, wireless, and VPN networks?
- ACisco AnyConnect
- BNext Generation Intrusion Prevention System
- CCisco Stealthwatch
- DASA 2100 series
21Which feature of ISE combines user identification with robust context sharing platform to prevent inappropriate access?
- ACentralized policy management
- BContext-aware access
- CPatch management
- DPlatform exchange grid
22Which three malware categories does real-time Malware Scanning protect you from? (Choose three)
- AAntivirus Monitoring
- BAdware
- CTrojan Downloader
- DOutbreak Filters
- EWeb Reputation
- FPhishing URL
23Which option helps customers gain insight into security threats?
- ALimit volume of users to applications
- BShare sensitive data across Afferent platforms
- CProviding remote access VPN to allow mobile users to connect securely to customers network
- DProviding visibility into everything to allow granular security policies to be created and enforced
24Which three NGFW and NGIPS features support the 'Complex Remote Access' use case? (Choose three.)
- ASupport for device onboarding
- BUsers protected regardless of physical location
- CFuzzy Fingerprinting
- DDetection of anomalous traffic
- EControls and protections extended beyond VPN controls
- FSecure access extended to all users
25Which two options are attack vectors protected by Identity and Access Control? (Choose two.)
- ABackups
- BMobile
- CEndpoints
- DCloud apps
- EVoicemail
26Which Cisco solution falls under cloud security?
- AUmbrella
- BIdentity Services Engine
- CFirepower Threat Defense
- DCisco Defense Orchestrator
27Which are three main elements of the Cloud App Security? (Choose three.)
- ACloud Data Loss Prevention
- BRapid Breach Remediation
- CUser and Entity Behavior Analytics
- DApps Firewall
- EDNS-Layer Protection
28What feature of Anti-Spam Defense determines the reputation of an e-mail?
- AIP addresses
- BThreat analysis
- CContext analysis
- DEncryption score
29Which is a feature of E-mail Security?
- ALayer-4 Monitoring
- BUmbrella
- COutbreak Filters
- DInvestigate
30Which are two main features of DDoS Attack Prevention? (Choose two)
- ABlock or allow traffic automatically
- BRedirects DDoS traffic back to attacker
- CLeveraging AMP ThreatGrid technology
- DStop attacks within seconds of detection
31Which two Cisco products are part of the mobile threat-centric solution module? (Choose two.)
- AAdvanced sandboxing with Threat Grid
- BAutomated policy enforcement with ASAv
- CEnhanced control access with ISE and Cloudlock
- DSoftware-defined segmentation through TrustSec
- EEnforced device security policies with Meraki
32What is a key difference between Basic Data Loss Prevention and Advanced Data Loss Prevention?
- AProviding content analysis
- BInstant visibility
- CDynamic outbreak considerations
- DAbility to filter in real-time
33Which two features are provided by ISE? (Choose two.)
- ACentralized policy management
- BRetrospective Security
- CDDoS attack prevention
- DNetwork visibility
- EDevice Firewalling
34Which are two features of Cisco FirePOWER NGFW? (Choose two.)
- AURL filtering to restrict access to specific sites and sub-sites
- BIncreased IT management needs
- CNext generation IPS to detect intrusions and prevent threats
- DData Loss Prevention
35Which are two main challenges of securing web and e-mail? (Choose two.)
- AData Loss PreventionHaving the ability to remediate issues as they arrive
- BAMPSecuriting cloud apps
- CProtecting against data centers
- DInvestigateDetecting issues in real-time
36Which StealthWatch device monitors, analyzes, separates, categorizes, and stores information from each flow, allowing it to create a baseline of typical expected network activity?
- AForensic investigation
- BAdvanced malware protection
- CMalware clustering
- DFlow collector
37Which are two main features of FirePower Management Center? (Choose two)
- ASimplified interface
- BStreamlined user experience
- CProvides network to endpoint visibility
- DProvides scalable management
38Which of AMP's File capabilities deals with the problem of files passing through perimeter defenses that are later discovered to be a threat?
- ADynamic Analytics
- BMalware Security
- CFile Retrospection
- DTrajectory
39Which three values are provided by NGFW and NGIPS in the "Campus NGFW"? (Choose three.)
- AHigh throughput maintained while still protecting domain against threats
- BIdentity Services Engine
- CDifferentiated Mobile Access
- DAdditional firewalls across all platforms
- EFlexible AAA Options
- FDynamic routing port to meet all network needs
40Which are three key features of DNS-layer security? (Choose three.)
- AResolves all DNS request through a single recursive DNS Service
- BRetrospective Analysis
- CActs as first level of protection by providing security at DNS layer
- DProvides visibility into all Internet activity
- EReal-time sandboxing
- FData Loss Prevention
41Which two features are provided by ISE? (Choose two.)
- ADDoS attack prevention
- BRetrospective Security
- CCentralized policy management
- DDevice Firewalling
- EContext-aware Access
42Which options describes how Cisco solutions enable customer's businesses?
- AHaving the fastest threat identification
- BCisco platforms are open, agile and expandable
- CEnhancing remediation operations
- DAutomating the security intelligence updates
43Which are two main challenges of securing web and e-mail? (Choose two.)
- A90% of cyber criminals use DNS in attacks
- BProtecting against data centers
- CCyber Crime is a growing industry
- DSecuring cloud apps
44Which are three key features or benefits of DNS-layer security? (Choose three.)
- AIdentify the internet infrastructure used for attacks
- BProtect any device on or off the network
- CReal-time sandboxing
- DUncover current & emergent threats
- EData Loss Prevention
- FRetrospective Analysis
45What are three main challenges addressed by Cisco’s cloud security solution? (choose three)
- AGrowing IT Staff requirements
- BEmployees are unable to work remotely
- CFrequent hardware updates
- DManual upgrade cycles
- EThreats are becoming too advanced for traditional hardware
- FBusinesses are using email too frequently
46Which Cisco solution falls under Advanced Threat?
- AEmail Defense
- BIdentity Services Engine
- CMalware Protection
- DAnti-spoofing
47Which is a feature mentioned in the DNS security module?
- ALayer-4 monitoring
- BUmbrella
- CReal-time sandboxing
- DData Loss Prevention
48Which two products are part of Cisco's Data Center threat-centric solution? (Choose two.)
- ARapid threat detection through NGFW and NGFWv
- BEnforced device security with Meraki
- CURL filtering
- DRelationship segmentation
- EAutomated policy enforcement with ASAv
49How is Cisco Security able to dynamically add IP addresses of known malware domains to its list of ports to detect and block?
- AReputation Filtering
- BLayer-4 Monitoring
- CData Loss Prevention
- DURL Filtering
50Which three Cisco solutions are covered in the Advanced Threat module? (Choose three.)
- ACognitive Threat Analytics
- BIntrusion Analytics
- CAMP
- DCisco Defense Orchestrator
- ENGIPSCisco
- FCisco ThreatGrid
51Which is a component of Cisco's Web and E-mail Security Solution?
- ADevice Profiling
- BNext Generation Intrusion Prevention System
- CNext Generation Firewall
- DDNS-Layer security
52Which feature of Cisco ISE uses Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tags 10 edit networks dynamically rather than with VLANs?
- ADevice profiting and onboarding
- BRole and device segmentation
- CGuest Access
- DSecure remote access
53Which two Cisco solution are part of the Mobile threat centric solution? (Choose two.)
- ACisco AnyConnect
- BCisco Umbrella
- CCisco NGFW
- DCisco NGIPS
- ECisco Defense Orchestrator
54Which feature of Cisco AnyConnect allows pre-login authentication using windows machines, or single sign-on user authentication using Windows logon credentials?
- ASecure Layer-2 Network Access
- BFlexible AAA Options
- CDifferentiated Mobile Access
- DTrusted Network Detection
55Which is a key feature that Advanced Malware Protection provides?
- ADynamic Content Analysis
- BReputation Analytics
- CRetrospective Security
- DDynamic URL Filtering
56Which three options are attack vectors protected by Email Security? (Choose three)
- AEndpoints
- BOffline Devices
- CMobile
- DE-mail
- EVoicemail
- FBackups
57Which options describes how Cisco solutions enable customer's businesses?
- AEnhancing remediation operations
- BHaving the fastest threat identification
- CAutomating the security intelligence updates
- DTheir ability to keep customers networks more secure and make IT more productive
58Which product was covered in the Cisco Cloud App Security module?
- ACisco NGFW
- BCisco Defense Orchestrator
- CCisco AMP
- DCloud Cloudlock
59Which are two main features of ASAv and NGFWv? (Choose two.)
- AFile trajectory
- BAPI-based management
- CFile reputation
- DAgile provisioning
60Which are two main features of Advanced Malware Protection? (Choose two.)
- ARapid App Containment
- BLeverages Global Threat Intelligence to provide zero-day protection
- CThreat protection across the entire attack continuum
- DUser and Entity Behavior Analytics
61Which feature of AnyConnect provides you the ability to identify data breaches as they happen?
- AFlexible AAA Options
- BNetwork Visibility Module
- CDifferentiated Mobile Access
- DTrusted Network Detection
62Employee-sponsored network access, guest access, and activity tracking are contributors to which feature of ISE?
- ADevice profiting
- BContext-aware access
- CGuest access management
- DPlatform exchange grid
63What are two main features of enabling Cloudlock in a customer's environment? (Choose two)
- ACloudlock connects via Oauth
- BCloud App security works on plug-in
- CEasily creates network lags for different users
- DIt takes less than five minutes to enable per platform
- EProtects against cloud-native malware
64Which AMP feature is provided by fuzzy fingerprinting?
- AIdentifies specific instances of malware with a signature-based approach
- BAutomatically detects polymorphic variants of known malware
- CProvides recursive DNS lookup services
- DIdentifies new malware using statistical modeling and analytics engines
65Which Cisco Product is integrated with the AnyConnect Web Security Module?
- ACisco Stealthwatch
- BCisco Defense Orchestrator
- CCisco Cloud Web Security
- DCisco Email Security Appliance
66Which three options are attack vectors protected by Web Security? (Choose three.)
- AEndpoints
- BMobile
- COffline Devices
- DBackups
- EVoicemail
- FWeb
67How does the Cisco AnyConnect AMP Module help to protect customer's networks?
- AAMP is a unified agent that combines posture check and authentication across wired wireless, and VPN networks.
- BAMP Module can profile devices before allowing them to connect
- CAMP provides highly secure access for select enterprise mobile applications
- DAnyConnect can deploy AMP for Endpoints for Windows or OSX
68Which is a Cisco recommended driver for network security?
- AOffer a threat-foe used security solution
- BProvide automated impact assessment
- CFocus on point products
- DAssign central, role-based management
69Which Cisco solution falls under Advanced Threat?
- AUmbrella
- BIdentity Services Engine
- CStealthwatch
- DThreat Grid
70Which three options ate attack vectors protected by DNS-Layer security? (Choose three.)
- AVoicemail
- BBackups
- CWeb
- DE-mail
- ECloud apps
- FVideo Surveil lance
71Which are two main features of Stateful Firewalling? (Choose two.)
- AClientless tagging
- BFile retrospection
- CFull VX LAN support
- DFile reputation
72Which two options are attack vectors of the threat-centric defense? (Choose two)
- AVoicemail
- BBackups
- CMobile
- DVideo surveillance
- ECloud apps
73What are three major features of Cisco Defense Orchestrator? (Choose three.)
- AProviding retrospective security to protect against malware
- BReceive notifications about any unplanned changes to security policies and objects
- CPlan and model security changes before deploying them across the cloud
- DIdentifying anomalous traffic in customer's network
- EAbility to deploy changes across virtual environments in real time or offline
- FTracking suspicious files through the network
74How does AMP's file reputation feature help customers?
- AIt enables secure web browsing with cognitive threat analytics
- BIt increases the protection to systems with exact fingerprinting
- CIt automatically detects polymorphic variants of known malware
- DIt increases time to detection with exact data analytics
75Which two Cisco products are a part of the "endpoints" threat-centric solution module? (Choose two.)
- ACisco Umbrella
- BCisco Defense Orchestrator
- CCisco VPN 3000
- DCisco Stealthwatch
- ECisco AMP for Endpoints
76Which is a key feature of Cisco Defense Orchestra?
- AProfiles devices connected to customer s network
- BOrchestrates security policy management form one place
- CConsolidates configuration management
- DProtects customers network against zero-day attacks
77Which feature discovers and controls malicious cloud apps connected to the corporate environment?
- AUmbrella
- BCognitive Threat Analytics
- CCloudlock
- DInvestigate
78What is a main benefit of Cisco's Clouldlock Data Loss Prevention feature?
- AReduces cost with easy implementation and installation
- BProvides in depth cloud app analytics and tracking
- CAllow organizations to retroactively identify malware within their environment
- DIncludes 70+ out of the box policies for enforcement, such as PCI, HIPAA, etc
79How many web requests does Talos process per month?
- A1.5 million
- B100,000
- C130 billion
- D130 million
80Which is a Cisco solution features retrospective security?
- AAMP for Endpoint
- BCisco Defense Orchestrator
- CUmbrella
- DInvestigate
81Which three are deployment options for E-mail Security? (Choose three.)
- AESA
- BCES
- CWSAv
- DAMP
- EESAv
- FWebRoot
82Which are two key Cisco benefits of the web threat-centric solution? (Choose two.)
- AData Loss Prevention with NGFW
- BEndpoint device profiling with ISE
- CE-mail encryption with CRES
- DMalware blocking with AMP
- ERogue web application protection through CTA
83Which feature of ISE is Terminal Access Control System (TACACS) a part of?
- ADevice Administration
- BDevice Profiling
- CCentralized policy management
- DGuest access management
84Which is a main element of FirePOWER Device Manager?
- AOn-box, Web-based management
- BStreamlined user experience
- CSimplified interface
- DCloud-based policy orchestration
85Which are two main features of FirePOWER Threat Defense? (Choose two.)
- AUnify Images for more intuitive interface management
- BProvide malware detection score foe additional analytics
- CDeliver Data Loss Prevention through the virtual lock
- DOffer intuitive interface including new management options and control
86Which is a key feature of Cisco Defense Orchestrator?
- ASimplifies security policy management
- BIdentifies sensitive data in cloud environments
- CDetects anomalous traffic on customer's network
- DProvides retrospective security
87What is key feature of Cognitive Threat Analytics?
- AIt enables safe email usage with event Analytics
- BIt improves threat detection over time with machine learning
- CIt enhances anonymity with URL filtering
- DIt enables greater endpoint device profiling intelligence with entity modeling
88Which Cisco solution features recursive DNS capabilities?
- ACisco Defense Orchstrator
- BIdentity Services Engine
- CUmbrella
- DCognitive Threat Analytics
89Which feature of CTA can separate statistically normal traffic form anomalous traffic?
- AURL filtering
- BTrust modeling
- CAnomaly detection
- DEvent classification
90Which feature of AMP tracks the movement of a file within the environment and monitors its disposition over time?
- ATrajectory
- BFuzzy Fingerprinting
- CMachine Learning
- DThreatGrid
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