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Fragen in diesem Quiz (119)
1The heart:
- AHas the base, formed by both atria, and the apex, formed by the right ventricle
- BFacies Sternocostalis is formed mainly by the left ventricle
- CIs situated behind the sternum and in front of the esophagus, which runs behind the left atrium
- DSulcus coronarius indicated the border between the left and right ventricle
2The mitral valve:
- AHas three cusps- cuspis anterior, cuspis posterior and cuspis septalis
- BIs located between the right atrium and the right ventricle
- CChordae tendineae are attached to the free margin of the cusps
- DThe papillary muscles ensure that the valve is opened during the diastole
3The aortic valve:
- AHas three cusps-valvula semilunaris sinistra, dextra and anterior
- BIs located between the right ventricle and the base of the aorta
- CAnulus fibrosus in the ostium aortae is part of the fibrous skeleton of the heart
- DOstium aortae lies in the front of the ostium trunci pulmonalis
4Auscultation
- AThe valves are auscultated on the sites of the anatomical projection
- BThe aortic valve is auscultated in the 2nd intercostal space on the left side, next to the sternum
- CThe tricuspidal valve is auscultated in the 2nd intercostal space on the right,next to the sternum
- DThe mitral valve is auscultated above the apex of the heart
5The left coronary artery:
- AArises from the right aortic sinus
- BRuns anteriorly to the proximal part of the truncus pulmonalis
- CIts branch is ramus interventricularis anterior (LAD)
- DSupplies majority of the cardiac conduction system
6The right coronary artery:
- AArises from the posterior aortic sinus
- BIts branch is ramus circumflexus, which runs inside the coronary sulcus
- CIts branch is ramus interventricularis posterior, which runs on the diaphragmatic surface of the heart
- DSupplies part of the anterior wall of the left ventricle
7How many of standard leads are bipolar extremity leads?
- A0
- B3
- C6
- D9
- E12
8What is the direction of lead aVF?
- A0º
- B30º
- C60º
- D90º
- E120º
9What is the arbitrarily considered to be normal range for HR in adults?
- A40-80 bpm
- B60-99 bpm
- C40-120 bpm
- D40-180 bpm
10What is the typical for monomorphic ventricular tachycardia?
- AWide QRS + regular rhythm
- BWide QRS + irregular rhythm
- CNarrow QRS + regular rhythm
- DNarrow QRS + irregular rhythm
11Right QRS axis deviation is defined as:
- A0-90°
- B90-180°
- C-30-90°
- Daround 60°
- EBetween -30 and -90°
12What is typical for left atrial hypertrophy?
- AIncreased R wave amplitude in V6
- BIncreased R wave amplitude in V1
- CIncreased P wave amplitude
- DWide (prolonged) P wave
13What is a typical ECG sign of transmural ischemia?
- AST elevation
- BST depression
- CShortened QT interval
- DIncreased QRS complex amplitude
14Which changes may be seen in myocardial ischemia?
a. ST elevation
b. ST depression
c. V entricular fibrillation
d. Sinus tachycardia- AA
- BA and B
- CA B C
- DA B C D
15Normal PR interval duration is:
- A0,12-0,15 s
- B0,12-0,2 s
- C0,15-0,25 s
- D0,20-0,30 s
- E12-20 ms
16What is diagnostic for a first-degree AV block?
- AProlonged PR interval, all P waves are conducted to the QRS complexes
- BNormal PR interval, some P waves are not conducted to the QRS complex
- CAtrioventricular dissociation- no relation between P waves and QRS complexes
- DAtrial asystole
17What are the characteristics of the left bundle branch block (complete block)?
- AWide QRS complex and M-sign in lead V1
- BNormal QRS width and M-sign in lead V6
- CWide QRS complex and M-sign in lead V6
- DNormal QRS width and M-sign in lead V1
18What do you expect in an ECG of a patient with severe hyperkalemia (K>9mMol/L)
- ATall, symmetrical T waves
- BWide QRS merging with wide T wave, P wave are visible
- CWide QRS merging with wide T wave, P waves are not visible
- DECG waveform looks like a sinus curve, P, QTS or T can not be seen
19Considering CT examination of the heart of great vessels, which answer is FALSE:
- ACTA examination of the heart is only feasible on newer CT scanners (64 slices or more)
- BSynchronisation of patient’s ECG and CT aparatus is mandatory
- CSpiral technique of the CTA examination is mandatory
- DIntravenous application of iodine contrast media is necessary in almost all cases
20Which answer is TRUE for the CTA of the coronary arteries.
- ASevere arrhythmias are never a contraindication for the examination
answer is TRUE for the CTA of the coronary arteries: - BStenosis caused by soft tissue plaques in depicted more accurately than stenosis caused by calcified plaque
- CIt is the method of choice in acute coronary syndrome (ACS)
- DIt is indicated in all types of chest pain/stenocardia
- ASevere arrhythmias are never a contraindication for the examination
21Which answer is FALSE for the CTA of the aorta:
- AIs the method of choice for depicting consequences of the aortic dissection (bowel ischemia, renal or splenic infarction)
- BBased on CTA examination classification of the type of aortic dissection is possible (STanford type A or type B)
- Cin less sensitive for evaluation of aortic dissection than classic aortography
- DIt is the method of choice in acute aortic syndrome (AAS)
22Which answer is FALSE for the CTA of the pulmonary arteries:
- AIs the imaging method of choice for evaluation of clinically suspicious pulmonary embolism
- BFollowing positive CTA result, pulmonary embolism must also be confirmed by ventilation-perfusion scan prior to onset of thrombolysis
- CFollowing positive CTA result, pulmonary embolism is reassessed by classical pulmonary angiography prior to endovascular mechanical therapy
- DIs (in selected cases) also indicated during pregnancy
23Which answer is FALSE for the dissection of the aorta
- AIntramural hematoma represents thrombosed false lumen and is considered initial phase of classical aortic dissection
- BIn type B immediate surgical therapy is obligatory
- CIn type A immediate surgical therapy is obligatory
- DFollowing the STanford classification it is divided on type A and type B
24Which classical aortic dissection structure normally does NOT form mediastinal contours on the left side on the PA chest X-ray image?
- ALeft ventricle
- BLeft atrium
- CAortic knob
- DAscending aorta
- ETruncus pulmonalis
25Which sign is NOT characteristic of the left heart failure on chest X-ray?
- AKerley B-lines
- BRedistribution of blood circulation
- CBlurring of the basal blood vessels
- DPleural effusion
- EWider pulmonary arteries
26Cardiac anatomy with magnetic resonance- we usually do NOT need:
- ASynchronization with ECG
- BStrong static magnetic field
- CGradient coils
- DSurface coils
- EGadolinium contrast agent
27MR characteristic of the myocarditis:
- AStrongly reduced ventricular function in the cine technique
- BPerfusion defects in the early phase contrast staining
- CSubepicardial accumulation of contrast in the various segments of the heart muscle
- DSubendocardial accumulation of contrast in various segments of the heart muscle
- ETransmural accumulation of contrast in the area of one coronary artery
28Which statement is NOT characteristic of the myxoma
- ANo contrast (gadolinium) uptake
- BT2 weighted image has a heterogeneous signal
- CT1-weighted image has a heterogeneous signal
- DUsually mobile formation
- EIt is most commonly in the left atrium
29Which statement is NOT correct?
- AMR angiography with gadolinium contrast media shows also collateral blood vessels (e.g. aortic coarctation)
- BMR can assess the flow in the pulmonary artery
- CMR is the dominant test for assessment of heart valves
- DMR is the gold standard for assessment of right ventricular function
- EMR is the gold standard for assessment of left ventricular function
30Doppler echocardiography provides:
- AAssessment of regurgitatins and shunts
- BCalculation of blood velocity
- CLocalization of blood flow disturbances
- DAssessment of heart chambers size
- EAssessment of valvular stenosis
31Doppler echocardiography provides:
- AAssessment of regurgitatins and shunts
- BCalculation of blood velocity
- CLocalization of blood flow disturbances
- DAssessment of heart chambers size
- EAssessment of valvular stenosis
32Bernoulli equation describes
- AThe relation between blood flow velocity and pressure gradient between two cardiac chambers
- BThe relation between blood flow velocity and pressure gradient through the aortic valve
- CThe mass-energy equivalence
- DThe relation between the stroke volume of the heart and the end diastolic volume when all
other factors remain constant
33With two dimensional and three dimensional echocardiography we can:
- AExamine the morphology and heart valves
- BAssess the size of the cardiac chambers
- CMeasure blood velocity through the valves and heart defects
- DExamine the diastolic function of the left ventricle
- EExamine intracardiac masses
34Contraindications to transesophageal echocardiographic examinations are:
- ADysphagia of unknown cause
- BOesophageal tumours
- CSevere pulmonary disease with hypoxaemia
- DFever
- EAcute myocardial infarction
35Echocardiography is based on:
- AX-ray radiation
- BUltrasound
- CUltraviolet light
- DGamma rays
36The main uses of transesophageal echocardiography are:
- AMitral valve disease
- BEndocarditis
- CProsthetic valves
- DThromboembolic vascular disease
- EAtrial septal defects
37Which one of the following is still increased at day 10 after AMI?
- ACK-MB mass
- BMyoglobin
- CTroponin
- DAST
- ELDH
38 Myoglobin in blood is elevated:
- AAfter skeletal muscle trauma
- BAfter the Ljubljana marathon
- CAfter the intramuscular injection
- DAfter the nose bleeding
- EIn the myocardial infarction
39Which marker is elevated 2 hours after symptoms of a myocardial infarction?
- AMyoglobin
- BTroponin
- CCK
- DLDH
- EAST
40After reperfusion of an acute myocardial infarction-regarding the dynamics of myoglobin and troponin we see:
- ALate and low rise and fall
- BFast and high rise and fall
- CUneven changes of concentration
- DFalling concentration
41A 22 year old patient with sepsis has had a slightly elevated troponin in the past few days. He complains only about general weakness. ECG is unremarkable. Is the patient endangered? Which statement is true?
- AYes, he urgently needs coronary angiography
- BNo, we can wait and perform angiography later
- CNo, elevated troponin does not matter
- DYes, elevated troponin is a marker of increased mortality
42Palpitations are:
- AA sign of arrhythmia
- BA symptom of possible arrhythmia
- CA symptom in which the patient is conscious of his heart action
- DOften a trivial disorder
- ENecessary to be carefully explained
43Eupnea is:
- ANormal, unlaborated ventilation
- BNormal rate of breathing
- CShortness of death at rest
- DSynonym for orthopnea
44The conditions with fixed splitting of second heart sound are:
- APulmonary stenosis
- BRight bundle branch block
- CSystemic arterial hypertension
- DPulmonary hypertension
- ERight ventricular overload
45Choose the correct statements regarding chest X-ray:
- AIn healthy persons the upper zone vessels have the same diameter as the lower zone levels
- BIn pulmonary overload (left-atrium shunt) the upper vessels have the same diameter as the lower zone levels
- CIn left-sided heart failure the upper zone vessels have greater diameter than the lower zone levels
- DIn healthy persons the upper zone vessels have greater diameter than the lower zone levels
46The most prominent signs of an atrial septal defects type secunduma re:
- ASevere pulmonary arterial hypertension
- BEnlargement of the left ventricle
- CLeft ventricular failure
- DAtrial fibrillation
- EEnlargement of the right ventricle
47Atrial septal defect type secundum is:
- AThe most common congenital defect in children
- BThe most common congenital defect still detected in adults
- CThe defect with a very good prognosis only if treated in childhood
- DThe defect with a very good prognosis even if treated in adulthood
- ENot curable
48Diagnosis of arterial is confirmed, if:
- AAverage of several blood pressure measurements in out-patient clinic is ≥ 120/80 mmHg
- BAverage of several blood pressure measurements in out-patient clinic is ≥ 140/90 mmHg
- CAverage of several blood pressure measurements in out-patient clinic is < 140/90 mmHg
- DAverage of several blood pressure measurements in out-patient clinic is ≥ 135/85 mmHg
49With age, systolic blood pressure increases gradually, even in the elderly, and diastolic
- ARises evenly, similarly to systolic blood pressure
- BIs rising at a younger, it is stabilized in middle age, and in the elderly gradually declines
- CFrom youth it declines with growing age
- DDiastolic blood pressure does not change age
50Incidence of cardiovascular complications in white coat hypertension is similar to:
- ANormotension
- BHypertension
- CMasked hypertension
- DMalignant hypertension
- ERenovascular hypertension
51The most common form of hypertension in the population is:
- APrimary (essential) arterial hypertension
- BRenal parenchymal hypertension
- CRenovascular hypertension
- DHypertension triggered by various substances
- EPrimary aldosteronism
52The gold standard for the diagnosis of renovascular hypertension is
- AUltrasound of the kidneys
- BDoppler ultrasound of the kidneys
- CMagnetic resonance of the kidneys
- DRenal arteries angiography
- EPositron emission tomography of the abdomen
53Diagnosis of accelerated/malignant arterial hypertension is confirmed when:
- ADiastolic blood pressure is 130-140 mmHg
- BSystolic blood pressure is >200 mmHg
- CLeft ventricular hypertrophy is present
- DHypertensive retinopathy of the 3rd and 4th degree is confirmed (Keith wagener Barker classification)
- EPatient has chronic kidney disease
54Patient with hypertension and history of myocardial infarction has
- ALow cardiovascular risk
- BModerate cardiovascular risk
- CLow to moderate cardiovascular risk
- DHigh cardiovascular risk
- EVery high cardiovascular risk
55Hypertension is present if
- AThe average of multiple conventional office BP readings is ≥140/90 mmHg
- BThe average BP is ≥135/85 mmHg is automated office BP measurement
- CThe average 24h BP is ≥130/80 mmHg
- DBP at home blood pressure measurement is 135≥85 mmHg
56Routine diagnostics in patients with suspected hypertension comprises:
- AHemogram, blood glucose, K, Na, creatinine, oGFR, uric acid, lipid profile, urinanalysis, ECG
- BMRI of the head
- CUltrasound of the carotid arteries
- DStress testing
57Fundoscopy should be considered in
- AEvert hypertensive patient
- BIn younger patients with hypertension
- CIn every patient with severe hypertension
58Left ventricular hypertrophy can be assessed b
- AECG
- BEchocardiography
- CMRI of the heart
- DCoronary angiography
59Primary aldosteronism is suspected in
- APatients with hypertension and hypokalemia
- BPatients with resistant hypertension
- CPatients with abdominal bruit
- DPatients with sudden weight gain
60To which patients with AH would you advise non-pharmacological treatment?
- ASevere AH (gr. III)
- BMild or moderate AH (gr. I-II)
- CHigh-normal BP
- DAll of them
61Which statement is correct
- ANon-pharmacological measures only can control blood pressure in most hypertensive subjects
- BConsistency with the non-pharmacological measures strengthens the effect of antihypertensive drugs
- COne of the measures of blood pressure reduction is complete abstinence of alcohol
- DWithout adding salt at the table we can reduce sodium intake up to 50%
- ESmoking has no effect on blood pressure
62Which recommendation regarding salt intake is not adequately?
- A<2,0 g NaCl/d
- B<2,0 g Na/d
- C<5 g NaCl/d
- D<100 mmol Na/d
63Which combination of statements regarding physical activity is correct?
- AWe recommend anaerobic activity
- BWe recommend aerobic activity
- CWe recommend physical activity for 1-2h, 1-2 times per week
- DWe recommend physical activity for 30 min, 5-7 times per week
- EAerobic exercise means up to 50% of max. heart rate
- FAerobic exercise means 50-70% of max heart rate
64Which statement about obesity is correct?
- ABody mass index is the only important measure at assessment of nutritional status or obesity.
- BPeripheral type of obesity is associated with an increased cardiovascular risk compared to the central type
- CReduction in body weight does not affect the blood pressure
- DThe surgeon can assist in the efforts of weight loss
- EWeight loss is useful in elderly patients with manifest cardiovascular disease
65Which groups of drugs are appropriate as first line treatment of a patient with hypertension?
- AACE inhibitors, long-acting diuretics, beta blockers, alpha blockers
- BAII blockers, ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, centrally acting agents
- CLong-acting diuretics, beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, AII blockers, calcium channel blockers
66Which drug fixed dose combination is preferred as a first line treatment for most patients?
- AACE+CCBorARB+CCB
- BBB + diuretic
- CAlpha blocker + CCB
67Which of the following drugs is not an antihypertensive drug?
- APerindopril
- BAmlodipine
- CEbrantil
- DSimvastatin
68Are beta blockers appropriate for hypertension treatment?
- ANo
- BYes, if it is individually appropriate for a patient or if she/he has a concomitant condition that requires a beta blocker
- CNo, because the patient has COPD
69 Does it make sense to substitute a drug within the group of calcium channel blockers?
- ANo, because they all have the same effect
- BNo, we should rather change the group of drugs
- CYes, because they have a different range of side effects
70Thiazide diuretics
- AIn the first week of treatment, thiazide diuretics lower blood pressure by decreasing the vascular resistance
- BThey cause hyperpotassemia
- CBlood pressure is reduced by 20-25 mmHg minimum when taking thiazide diuretics
- DOnly high doses of hydrochlorothiazide (>50mg) and indapamide (over 5 mg) effectively reduce blood pressure
- EThey do not affect the renal secretion of calcium
71Calcium channel antagonists:
- AAmlodipine should not be given to patients with hypertension and heart failure
- BNifedipine is more cardioselective than verapamil
- CCalcium channel antagonists inhibit the release of insulin in human
- DDiltiazem has a short half-life of 3-4 hours
- EVerapamil has a high affinity for calcium channels within the blood vessels in the central nervous system and thus prevents vasospasm after neurosurgical procedures
72Which claim does not apply to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
- AACEIs inhibit the degradation of bradykinin
- BEnalapril is a prodrug
- CThe initial hypotensive effect of ACE inhibitors is diminished by reflex sympathetic activation
- DAre contraindicated during pregnancy
- EAre a drug of choice in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis
73Angiotensin receptor antagonists
- APrevent binding of angiotensin II to the AT2-subtype of angiotensin receptors
- BLosartan is a prodrug
- CThe hypotensive effect occurs immediately after the first dose
- DAre contraindicated during pregnancy
- EThey can used in hyperkalemia
74Propranolol:
- AIs a selective beta 1 receptor antagonist
- BIs a selective alpha 1 receptor antagonist
- CInfluences the plasma lipid concentration
- DHas a long half-life of 24 hours
75Propranolol:
- Ais a selective beta 1 receptor antagonist
- BIs a selective alpha 1 receptor antagonist
- CInhibits the release of renin
- DHas a long half-life of 24 hours
76Antihypertensive, which has been proven to be not teratogenic, is:
- ACaptopril
- BLosartan
- CHydrochlorothiazide
- DPropranolol
- EPrazosin
77Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is:
- AA disease of microcirculation
- BMediocalcinosis of the calf arteries
- CUsually a manifestation of atherosclerosis
- DGiant cell arteritis
78The leading cause of death in the natural course of PAD is:
- AGangrene of the limb
- BRespiratory infection
- CAcute coronary event
- DRupture of abdominal aortic aneurysm
79Which risk factor is more important for development of PAD
- AHypercholesterolemia
- BVirchow’s triade
- CSmoking
- DArterial hypertension
80Asymptomatic patient with no pulse in the groin, we recommend (the most complete answer):
- ARisk factors managing, smoking cessation, regular physical activity
- BSurgical treatment: aortofemoral bypass
- CPercutaneous transluminal angioplasty
- DHomeopathic assessment
- ERehabilitation for PAD patients
81Which statement about abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is true:
- AAAA is relatively common in older men and usually asymptomatic
- BAAA usually presents as with acute abdominal pain
- CDiagnosis of AAA is based on clinical investigation
- DAAA affects only older subjects (>60 years)
82Which test is used initially for detecting AAA:
- AAnkle-brachial index
- BCT angiography
- CUltrasound investigation of the abdomen
- DD-dimer
83Surgical or endovascular treatment of AAA treatment is performed
- AAccording to the aortic diameter
- BAccording to the aortic diameter, the rate of its progression and on symptoms
- COnly in patients younger than 65 years
- DOnly suspected rupture of AAA
84What is recommended for patients with symptomatic PAD:
- ASmoking cessation
- BTriple drug antihypertensive treatment
- CAntiplatelet medication
- DStatin treatment
- ERegulation of serum glucose aiming for glycated hemoglobin <7%
85Asymptomatic patient with absent popliteal and pedal pulses should be treated by:
- ARisk factor control
- BFemoropopliteal bypass
- CPercutaneous transluminal angioplasty
- DHomeopathy
86Patient with intermittent claudication should be treated by:
- APrompt percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
- BPrompt vascular surgery
- CWalking training
- DHemorheologic drugs
87Treatment of PAD:
- ARevascularization procedures are indicated when interval walking training has not been successful
- BAfter revascularization, medical treatment is no longer needed.
- CIn critical limb ischemia, prompt revascularization is mandatory
- DWalking is advised also after revascularization
- EInterventional revascularization is performed more often than surgical revascularization
88Endovascular procedures are most suitable for treatment of:
- AVery long arterial occlusions
- BHeavily calcified arterial occlusions
- CArterial stenoses or occlusions that are not excessively long
- DMicrocirculatory disturbances
89When a stent is inserted into a peripheral artery, which statement is true
- ASingle drug antiplatelet treatment with aspirin is sufficient
- BDual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and clopidogrel is recommended for 1-3 months
- CAll patients should be anticoagulated with warfarin
- DAntiplatelet treatment is not necessary
90Which test is not necessary before cardiac surgery:
- ACardiac ultrasound
- BECG
- CRTG p.c.
- DEEG
- EChecking of carotid artery
91Warfarin should be stopped 5-7 days before surgery. Which test is necessary to check homeostasis?
- AActivated prothrombin time in aPTT
- BProthrombin time in PT, INR
- CPlatelet count
- DBleeding time
- ENo test is necessary
92Acetylsalicylic acid influence the function of platelet:
- AReversible
- BIrreversible
- CHas no impact on the platelet function
- DIt only affects fresh platelet
- EImproved the function of platelets
93For premedication the drug which is usually prescribed:
- ABenzodiazepine
- BAntiarrhythmic
- CAntipsychotic
- DDiuretic
- EAntidepressant
94Heart operation could be performed:
- AIn general anesthesia
- BSpinal block
- CSedation
- DCombination: general anaesthesia and spinal block
- EHypnosis
95Oxygen consumption in heart muscle is increased by:
- AHypertension, tachycardia, increased contractility
- BHypertension, bradycardia, increased contractility
- CBradycardia, reduced contractility
- DHypertension, tachycardia
- EHypotension, increased contractility
96The pain after cardiac surgery could be alleviated by:
- AOpioid analgesic
- BNonsteroidal analgesic
- CLocal anaesthetic and epidural anaesthesia
- DLocal anaesthetic through catheter in the wound
- ENone of the above
97Symptoms of unstable coronary artery disease are:
- AThe patient is complaining of lowering of the threshold of chest pain in the last month
- BThe patient has heavy breathing on effort
- CThe patient complains of new chest pain in the last three months
- DThe patient has a chest pain at rest, depending on position, but never during physical activity
- EThe patient complains of chest pain during rest
98Risk factors for cardiovascular complications in patients with known coronary artery disease are:
- AHistory of myocardial infarction
- BHeart failure symptoms
- CNo ECG changes documented
- DNot well controlled arterial hypertension
- ENon-sustained ventricular tachycardia
- FA positive serum troponin
99Typical coronary chest pain is:
- AChest pain that occurs in the chest during physical or mental strain
- BThe pain, which varies with the position of the body
- CThe pain which disappears within 1-2h after start of physical activity
- DThe pain, which resolves spontaneously within 5-10 minutes
- ENitroglycerin shorten the duration of chest pain
- FThe pain is stabbing and takes a few seconds
100Patient with stable coronary artery disease is at higher risk when
- AHas orthopnea during sleep
- BGood exercise capacity with no ECG changes and typical chest pain at very high exertion
- CPositive scintigraphy test with 10% of ischemic myocardium during stress
- DProximal coronary artery disease
- ECalcinations of coronary arteries on CT scan done for screening purposes
- FHas the symptoms of intermediate threshold AP without any medication
101What would be cost effective diagnostic approach in patients with intermediate probability for coronary artery disease?
- AInitiation of medication
- BECG exercise testing
- CStress echo or stress scintigraphy
- DCT coronary angiography
- ECoronary angiography
102Action potential of the heart muscle is generated by properly functioning:
- AIonic channels
- BIonic exchangers
- CIonic pumps
- DOn ionic channels and pumps
103Which ionic channels mediate fast depolarizing currents in the heart (faze “0” of the action potential)?
- APotassium
- BCalcium
- CSodium
- DCalcium and sodium
- ESodium-potassium A TPaze
104Arrhythmia is defined as a heart rhythm that is not:
- ASinus rhythm or nodal rhythm in young people
- BSinus rhythm
- CSinus rhythms and ectopic atrial rhythm
- DSinus rhythm and atrial and ventricular premature beats
- ERegular or rhythmic
105The most frequent mechanism of clinical arrhythmia is:
- AEnhanced or reduced automaticity
- BEnhanced triggered activity
- CSlowed or blocked depolarization
- DReentry
106Arrhythmia may be manifested with different symptoms. Which is the most important?
- APalpitations
- BSyncope
- CChest pain
- DHeart “jumps”
- EStrong heart beat, but normocardic
107The most important diagnostic test in arrhythmology is:
- AElectrocardiography
- BExercise testing
- CEchocardiography
- DTilt testing
- EInvasive electrophysiological examination
108Which ECG interval defined the period of atrial, A-V node and His-Purkinje system (from the beginning of atrial depolarization to the beginning of the ventricular depolarization)
- AR-R
- BP-Q (P-R)
- CP wave time
- DQ-T
109The most prevalent arrhythmia in elderly is:
- AV entricular tachycardia
- BAtrioventricular block
- CAtrial fibrillation
- DParoxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
110Mechanism of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is:
- AHas irregular heart rate, lasting days or weeks
- BAbrupt onset and end, during attack heart rate is rapid and regular
- CIt is life threatening arrhythmia and necessitates urgent cardioversion
- DNothing of the above
111Syndrome WPW is defined by:
- AA.Signs of preexcitation in the EKG
- BB.Attack of rapid heart rate
- CAandB
- DNothing of the above
112Atrial flutter is characterized by following EKG features
- AAbsolute arrhythmia, no visible regular atrial activity
- BRegular wide QRS tachycardia
- CRegula flutter waves (“seesaw pattern”) and typically regular ventricular activity with heart rate around 150/min
113Wide QRS tachycardia is defined as VT under the following conditions:
- AVery rapid heart rate on EKG and patient not feeling well
- BAV dissociation and fusion beats documented in EKG
- CIn no circumstance we can confirm VT solely on the EKG recording
- DNothing from the above
114Which auscultation sign is always present in mitral stenosis patient?
- ALow frequency mid-diastolic rumbling
- BProminent first sound
- CPresystolic murmur
- DHigh frequency Graham-Steell murmur
- EHolosystolic murmur at apex
115Which is the best method to determine the extent of mitral valve disease?
- AV ntriculography
- BCardiac catheterization and haemodynamics
- CEchocardiography
- DCardiac magnetic resonance (MRI)
- ECardiac computer tomography (CT)
116Which is the best method to assess dynamics of mitral valve disease?
- AV entriculography
- BInvasive measurement of pulmonary artery pressure
- CStress echocardiography on semisupine ergometer
- DCardiac magnetic resonance (MRI)
- ECardiac computer tomography (CT)
117Explain the influence of altered heart rate and on valve disease: (two answers)
- ASinus tachycardia worsens the symptoms of mitral valve stenosis
- BSinus tachycardia improves the symptoms of mitral valve stenosis
- CSinus tachycardia has no effect on the symptoms of mitral valve stenosis
- DSinus bradycardia improves the symptoms of aortic valve regurgitation
- ESinus bradycardia worsens the symptoms of aortic valve regurgitation
- FSinus bradycardia has no effect on the symptoms of aortic valve regurgitation
118 When to do percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty in asymptomatic patient with mitral stenosis?
- AIf area <1,5 cm2 and systolic pulmonary pressure >60 mmHg
- BIf area<1,5 cm2 and elevated risk for hemodynamic decompensation
- CIf area <1,5 cm2 and elevated risk for thromboembolism
- DAll.
119When to operate asymptomatic patient with severe organic mitral regurgitation?
- AAlways
- BNever
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- Beschreibung
- Quiz am Class questions, erstellt von Sophie GonzalezLl am 12/01/2022.
- Autor
- Sophie GonzalezLl
- Sprache
- Español
- Aufrufe
- 44
- Bewertung
- Noch keine Bewertungen Bewerte dieses Quiz