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Fragen in diesem Quiz (112)
1On the approach, with all theexterior lights selected ON, which lights will not illuminate until the landing gear is extended?
- ATurn off only.
- BNose (Take off only).
- CNose (Take of and Taxy) and Turn off.
- DNose (Take off and Taxy) only.
2What is the difference between the cockpit crew and the passenger oxygen system?
- AThere is no difference: both are served by oxygen cylinders
- BCrew is supplied from an oxygen cylinder, passengers are supplied by chemical oxygen generators.
- CBoth the crew and passengers are supplied with oxygen from chemical oxygen generators.
- DThe crew has an oxygen bottle for an emergency back-up supply
3If both lanes of ACSC 2 are failed ...
- APACK 1 lost and PACK 2 goes to high flow.
- BPACK 2islost whilst there is no effect on PACK .1
- CBoth Cabin (FWD and AFT) Trim air Valves are inoperative.
- DACSC 1 will take over, resulting in normal operation.
4When LO isselected on the PACKFLOW selector, what could cause the actual flow to be NORMAL:
- AThe APU supplying bleed air.
- BSingle PACK operation,
- CSingle engine supplying bleed air.
- DTemperature demands not being satisfied.
5When the Ram Air switch is selected to ON, which of the following statements is true regarding theRam Air Valve?
- AIt will open only when the pressure differential is less than1.0 psi.
- Bit directs ambient air to the PACKS.
- Cit will open only when pressure differential is more than 1.0 psi.
- Dt shouid not be opened above 10,000 ft cabin altitude.
6What is the meaning ofCAB PR LDG ELEV FAULT?
- ALDG ELEV data from FMGC is not available.
- BWrong selection of LDG ELEVis made,
- CLDG ELEV selector is moved out of auto inappropriately.
- DOutflow valve is in Manual Control
7in flight, which valve will not close if the DITCHING switch is pushed?
- AThe RAM AIR VALVE
- BTheOUTFLOW VALVE (if ti is selected toMANUAL).
- CThe pack FLOW CONTROL VALVE.
- DThe Avionics Vent EXTRACT VALVE.
8When the Extract pushbutton switch is set at the OVRD (Override) position, the system goes to.... . . ?
- AClose Circuit Configuration.
- BOpen Circuit Configuration.
- CIntermediate Circuit Configuration.
- DNo configuration change.
9Whilst in flight, at HIGH SKIN AIR temperature. In which configurationwill the AVIONICS VENT be in?
- AOPEN
- BINTERMEDIATE
- CCLOSED
- DSMOKE
10in which modes will the Yaw bar be displayed on PFD (LOC signal available) ?
- ARWY and NAV mode
- BRWY and ROLL OUT mode
- CLAND mode
- DRWY TRK mode
11if both FAC's fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?
- AThe Rudder Limiter is locked at its present deflection limit and assumes the low-speed deflection limit when flap1 is selected.
- BThe Rudder Travel Limiter immediately selects the low-speed deflection limit.
- CMaximum high-speed rudder deflection can be obtained after slat extension.
- DThere will be no effect on the rudder limiter as ELAC 2 will take over the function.
12In flight AP can be engaged when..
- AAt or above 400ft
- Bat least 5s after V1 speed
- Cat least 5s after lift-off above 100ft
- Dbelow 100ft during T/O
13Immediately after setting the MASTER SW to ON, the START switch is pushed: what happens then?
- AThe AVAIL light illuminates.
- BThe FAULT light illuminates.
- CThe AIR INTAKE FLAP starts to open and the starter engages when the flap is fuly open
- DThe AIR INTAKE FLAP starts to open and the starter engages simultaneously.
14Regardinglimitations, which of thefollowing statements is true?
- AThe waiting time, after threefailed start attempts, is 30minutes.
- Bthen the LOW OIL LEVEL message appears on the S.D., the APU must not be started.
- CThe APU may be started at any point in the flight envelope
- DThe maximum altitude for APU start, when in the ELEC EMER CONFIG, is 30,000 .ft
15When should the AUDIO SWITCHING switch be moved from the NORM position?
- AAfter a failure of ACP1 or ACP2
- BAfter a failure of the Capt's or F/O's loudspeaker.
- CAfter a failure of RMP 1 and RMP 2.
- DAfter a failure of any RMP.
16Regarding RMP 2, If VHF 1 is selected an amber SEL light illuminates......
- AOn RMP 2.
- BOn RMP 1 and 2.
- COn RMP 1
- DOn RMP 2 and 3.
17What alert will trigger in cockpit, when an emergency call is made by Cabin Crew?
- A1 buzzer, with ATT lights flash on all 3 ACPs
- B3 buzzers, with ATT lights flash on all 3 ACPs.
- C3 hi-lo chime, with ATT light on only Capt's ACP.
- D3 buzzers, with ATT light on only Capt's ACP.
18After first engine start (ENG 1) and ENG 2 is OFF, and APU is running, which source is supplying AC BUS1 and AC BUS2 ?
- AEngine GEN 2 will supply both buses.
- BAPU GEN wil supply both buses
- CAPU GEN to AC BUS 2&Engine GEN 1to AC BUS 1
- DAPU GEN to AC BUS 1&Engine GEN 1ot AC BUS 2
19Apart from the EMER GEN, what can supply the AC ESS bus?
- AAC BUS 1, AC BUS 2, AC ESS SHED.
- BAC BUS 1, AC BUS 2, Bat 1 (via static inverter).
- CAC BUS 1, AC BUS 2, Bat 2 (via static inverter).
- DOnly AC BUS 1 or AC BUS 2.
20What is the meaning of the green AVAIL light in EXT PWR p/b?
- AExternal power is available to the batteries only.
- BThe external power panel door has been opened
- CExternal power is plugged in and parameters are normal.
- DExternal power is supplying the aircraft electrical system
21Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is the use of the boom mike re-established?
- AAutomatically, by re-stowing the oxygen mask.
- BBy selecting BOOM on the associated ACP.
- CBy closing the left door of the storage box, and then pressing the TEST slide.
- DBy pressing the OXY ON button.
22Passenger oxygen is provided by ?
- AA chemical generator system, generate oxygen automatically after mask drop-down
- BA chemical generator system, generate oxygen by pressing MASK MAN ON pb
- CIndividual cylinders, generate oxygen by pulling the mask towards the passenger seat
- DA chemical generator system, generate oxygen by pulling the mask towards the
passenger seat
23If there is an APU fire in flight the APU.....
- AWill automatically shut down and the fire bottle will automatically discharge.
- BMust be shut down manually and the fire bottle should manually discharged.
- CWill automatically shut down and the fire bottle should manually discharged.
- DMust be shut down manually but the fire bottle will discharge automatically.
24What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button?
- AWhen selected OFF the avionics compartment isolation valves close.
- BWhen selected OFF the Gen 1 powers all AC busses.
- CWhen selected OFF Gen 1 is removed from all busses but continues to power one fuel pump in each wing.
- DTo force Gen 1 to shut down
25The F/O has pressed his takeover pb and holds it for more than 40 secs:
- Athe Capt is unable to re-activate his sidestick for the rest of the flight.
- Bthe Capt's sidestick is de-activated unless he presses his takeover pb.
- CBoth sidesticks are active,
- DThe Capt's sidestick is active as long as the F/O's side stick is in neutral position.
26What is the lowest speed achievable with "hands off* (nopilot input) and A/THR on?
- ATop of Alpha protection (Alpha Prot)
- BV Alpha Max speed
- CGreen Dot
- DVLS
27Which of the following is NOT available when aircraft is in Direct Law?
- AOverspeed Warning
- BTurn co-ordination
- CDirect stick to elevator relationship
- DStall Warning
28Following the selection of FLAP ,1 which of the following statements is true?
- AWhen decelerating for the approach, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result.
- BDuring acceleration, following a takeoff, CONFIG 1 will be the result.
- CDuring the acceleration, following a go-around, CONFIG 1 +F will be the result.
- DThe result is always CONFIG 1 + F.
29Rejecting the take off at 65 kts, which facilities are NOT available?
- AGround spoilers only.
- BAuto brakes only
- CManual brakes.
- DGroundspoilers and auto brakes
30If both Pilots deflect their side sticks fully back...
- AThe "pitch up' order is limited to maximum deflection of single sidestick.
- BThe pitch up order is 1.5 times greater than with only one stick deflected.
- CNo inputs are sent to the flight control computers unless one pilot presses the takeover pb on his stick
- DThe pitch up order is increased by a factor of two compared with only one stick deflected.
31In flight, with Config 1 selected, what is represented by amber = on the speed strip?
- AThe maximum permitted speed with FLAP 1
- BThe minimum permitted speed with FLAP 1
- CThe maximum speed for selecting FLAP 2 .
- DThe minimum speed for selecting FLAP 0.
32What happens when slat/flap config is 1+F and aircraft reaches 210 knots?
- ASlats retract automatically to 0.
- BFlaps retract automatically to 0.
- CThe Alpha lock function is engaged.
- DOverspeed warning wil trigger
33The aircraft is flying with a maximum roll input when it enters overspeed protection: what happens to the bank angle?
- AIt will remain the same,
- BIt goes to 40° to will go to 0° if the sidestick is released.
- CIt goes to 67°, it will go to 33° if the sidestick is released.
- DIt goes to 33°: it will go to 0° if the sidestick is released.
34Regarding LOW SPEED STABILITY, which of the following statements is true?
- AIt is only available in ALT LAW
- BIt is available in NORM, ALT and DIRECT Laws.
- CIt cannot be overridden by the sidestick
- DIt triggers a nose-down input at alpha max.
35When, and why, is the Side Stick Order symbol displayed?
- AOn the ground it is used during the Flight Controls check.
- BBelow 30 feet RA: it enables PNF to monitor PF's inputs.
- CBelow 30 feet RA: it is for monitoring the control inputs when both sidesticks are deflected at the same time.
- DAt all times: it is used to monitor sidestick serviceability.
36Which of the following configurations can be selected for take-off?
- A1+F, 2, 3
- B1, 2, 3
- C1+F, 2, FULL
- D1 & 2 ONLY
37The aircraft has achieved, and is maintaining, a constant high alpha, which has caused speedbrake auto-retraction: how can the speedbrakes be extended again??
- ABy reducing the alpha.
- BBy reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrakes lever, waiting 10 seconds, then extending the lever.
- CBy reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrakes lever, then extending it again.
- DBy keeping same alpha, and retracting the speedbrake lever, waiting 10 seconds, then extending the lever
38During the final approach, which of the following statements is true?
- AThe actual speed may be greater than the Vapp: this is due to the MINI G/S function.
- BThe target speed (magenta triangle) will be at V-LS
- CThe target speed (magenta triangle) will be> Vapp
- DThe target speed (magenta triangle) maybe >Vapp Or <Vapp
39What would cause the MACH display, on the Capt's PFD, to be inhibited?
- AThe aircraft is flying at a MANAGED or SELECTED speed
- BActivating the approach phase on the PERF APPR page (MCDU)
- CSelecting ILS button on the Capt's EFIS Control Panel
- DAircraft altitude below 10,000ft.
40The aircraft is accelerating in straight and level flight with the FPV displayed: which of the following statements is true?
- AThe FPV will remain on the horizon, and the pitch attitude will increase.
- BThe FPV will remain on the horizon, and the pitch attitude will decrease.
- CThe pitch attitude will remain constant, and the FPV will move up.
- DThe pitch attitude will remain constant, and the FPV will move down.
41Both CAM display unitshave failed: how can the FLT CTLS S.D be displayed?
- APress the FLT CTLS switch on the ECAM control panel.
- BRotate the EIS DMC switch to F/O, then press the FLT CTLS switch on the ECAM control panel.
- CRotate the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O, then press the FLT CTLS switch on the ECAM control panel.
- DUse the ALL button (on the ECAM control panel).
42The message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD appears in the MEMO. What does it mean?
- AIt is a reminder to show that at least one transfer valve is open in one wing tank.
- BAll four transfer valves are open
- CTransfer valve failed in close position
- DIt is a reminder to open the outer tank transfer valve.
43On the FUEL S.D., what may be signified by the fuel on Board indication being half boxed in amber?
- ANot all of the FUEL ON BOARD is useable at the moment.
- BTwo booster pumps have failed in the same wing tank.
- COne centre tank booster pump has failed.
- DThe FUEL ON BOARD quantity is inaccurate
44Which of the following events would cause the centre tank pumps to automatically stop running?
- AThe centre tank quantity having reached 1000kg
- BSelecting the gear down.
- CSelecting FLAP 1 when taxiing for take-off
- DSelecting FLAP 0 after take-off
45After Engine start, centre tank fuel pumps will run for....
- A3 min regardless of slat position
- B2 min only regardless of slat position
- C3 min, if slats are in extended position
- D2 min only if slats are in retracted position
46Just after first engine start (with Parking brake ON), how many Hyd. Systems are pressurized?
- Aone
- Btwo
- CAll the Three if PTU sw is in Auto and parking brake on
- DGreen HYD will pressurise regardless of any engine start if PTU is in Auto.
47What does the RAT MAN ON switch on HYD panel do?
- AExtends RAT, pressurises BLUE system. Emergency Generator starts
- BExtends RAT. pressurises BLUE system, but Emergency Generator does not connect.
- CRetracts and stores RAT manually.
- DExtends RAT. pressurises GREEN system, but Emergency Generator does not start.
48Can you recover a Hyd System if it is lost due to fluid LO LVL?
- AYellow system can be recovered on approach only by an electric pump.
- BGreen system can be recovered on approach but only by the PTU operation.
- CBlue system can be recovered but by RAT extension only
- DHyd Sys cannot be recovered fi ti is lost duet o fluid LO LVL.
49What are the important points to note, when aircraft is on stand, engines are not running and you want to pressurize Yellow Hydraulic System?
- AThe PTU sw is in AUTO condition.
- BThe PTU sw is in OFF condition.
- CDo not pressurise the hydraulic system without clearance from ground
- DAircraft must be chocked, doors closed and gear lever selected down
50What happens if WING ANTI-ICE is selected ON when taxing for take-off?
- AThe anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only if ENG anti-ice is ON.
- BThe anti-ice valves remains close as aircraft is on Ground.
- CThe anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only and on lift off the valves will re-open.
- DThe anti-ice valves remain OPEN and remains OPEN until the switch is set to OFF.
51If a WING or ENG anti-ice valve loses electrical power, which of the following statements is true?
- AThe valves will remain in their present position
- BWING and ENG valves CLOSE
- CWING and ENG valves OPEN
- DWING valves CLOSE: ENG valves OPEN
52When an engine anti-ice valve is open:
- AEPR limit is automatically increased and the idle EPR is automatically reduced.
- BEPR limit is automatically reduced and the idle EPR is automatically increased
- CN1 limit is automatically reduced and the idle N1 is automatically increased
- DThere is no change in the N1 and EPR limits.
53Regarding the AUTOBRAKE system, which of the following statements is true?
- AMAX autobrake is selectable in flight only
- BIt is available in NORMAL and ALTERNATE braking.
- CIf LO is selected, the system will be activated four seconds after ground spoiler deployment.
- DIf MED is selected, the system will be triggered two seconds after touchdown.
54During pushback, what will cause the NW STRG DISC memo to change to amber?
- AThe NW STRG disconnect mechanism has failed.
- BThe memo has become amber because one engine is running with towing lever in towing position.
- CIt is an indication that a loss of control of nose wheel steering from the rudder
pedals has occurred. - DIt is an indication that the tow bar is connected and towing lever is in normal position.
55Landing gear indicator panel UNLK light illuminates red if....
- AGear is extended by gravity and doors are not closed
- BGear is extended normally and doors are not closed
- CGear is not locked in selected position
- DGear is not selected down by 1.000 ft RA
56What causes the DECEL light to illuminate?
- AActivation of the anti-skid system.
- BApplication of brake pressure to all wheels.
- CAchievement of 80% of the selected deceleration rate.
- DActivation of the anti-skid and autobrake systems.
57If the captain is holding down the DISC button on his steering handwheel, which of the following statements is true?
- ANosewheel steering is not available from Capt's or F/O's rudder pedals.
- BNosewheel steering is not available from F/O's rudder pedals only
- CNosewheel steering is not available from Capt's rudder pedals only.
- DNosewheel steering is totally inhibited.
58Regarding the coloured arc or arcs, which may appear above the wheels on the S.D. Which of the following statements is true?
- AThere may be four arcs displayed one over each wheel.
- BThere may be one green arc and one amber arc displayed together.
- CThere will be no arcs displayed if all wheel temperatures are <300°C.
- DOnly o n e arc will be present: it will be either amber or green.
59If ILS 2 receiver fails, where can ILS 1 displays be seen?
- APFD 1 and ND 1
- BPFD 2 and ND 2
- CPFD 1 and ND 2
- DPFD 2 and ND 1
60If both FMGC's fail, how can ILS 2 be tuned?
- ABy RMP 1only
- BBy RMP 2 only.
- CBy RMP 3 only.
- DBy RMP 1or RMP 2.
61When should the SBY compass not be checked?
- ADuring ENG start.
- BDuring APU start.
- CWhen ground electrics are in use.
- DWhen not on "battery power only"
62If the TERRAIN ON ND pushbutton is switched OFF what happens if a Terrain awareness warning or caution is generated?
- AThe system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps from the centre outwards.
- BThe system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps anti-clockwise.
- CThe TERR ON ND *ON* light flashes
- DThe Terrain Awareness Display pulses on the N.D.
63What could be the significance of an ALIGN light flashing?
- AIt may be possible to recover Altitude and Heading.
- BThe alignment has been completed.
- CThe system is doing a battery power test.
- DThe P.POS has not been entered within 10 mins of selecting NAV.
64Which Navaids can be tuned from which RMP's?
- AAll 3 RMP's can tune all navaids.
- BRMP 1can tune VOR 1/ADF 1and both ILS receivers.
- CRMP 2 can tune VOR2/ADF 2 and ILS 2(only)
- DRMP 3 can tune all navaids as a Backup for RMP 1 or 2.
65During a TCAS Resolution Advisory, which colours maybe displayed on the Vertical speed scale?
- ARed, Green and Grey.
- BRed, Green and Blue.
- CRed and Grey only.
- DRed and Green only.
66What happens if BMC 2 fails?
- AThere will be no leak detection available for the Right Wing and ENG 2.
- BThere will be no leak detection available for the Left Wing and ENG 2.
- CThere will be no effect on leak detection system as BMC1 will takeover.
- DThere will be no leak detection available for ENG 2 but the Right Wing leak detection will be provided by BMC1.
67Regarding bleed system, which statement is correct
- AAPU bleed has priority over Engine 1 & 2 bleed
- BEngine 1 bleed valve closes when BMC 1 fails
- CDue to BMC 1 fault, left wing bleed leakage detection is lost
- DDuring single Engine bleed operation, -bleed valve opens automatically
68Regarding Thrust control, which of the following statements is true?
- AThere are two separate detents for FLX and MCT.
- BLVR MCT flashes on FMA if the thrust levers are not in CL position while a/c is above thrust reduction altitude with both engines running.
- CWhen A/THR on and trust levers are set at the CL detent, commanded thrust will be between idle and max climb.
- DA/THR cannot be engaged when Thrust lever is at IDLE detent,
69What is signified by IDLE (green) being displayed between the EPR gauges?
- ABoth engines are at IDLE.
- BEngine 1 or 2 is at IDLE.
- CBoth engines have been at IDLE for more than two minutes.
- DBoth Thrust Levers are at IDLE.
70On the EPR gauge, there is a "Transient EPR" (concentric circles) Indication: what does this represent?
- AA general indication of increasing EPR
- BA general indication of decreasing EPR.
- CThe difference between the actual EPR and the FADEC commanded EPR thrust.
- DThe difference between the TLA and the FADEC commanded thrust.
71If during engine start, the amber FAULT light on the ENG MASTER panel illuminates. This indicates:
- AA failure of the ENG MODE SELECTOR.
- BA failure in the automatic start sequence.
- CA failure in the engine fire extinguishing system.
- DStarter time exceeded.
72Regarding IGNITION, which of the following statements is true?
- AIgniter A is always used at engine start.
- BIgniter B is always used at engine start.
- CBoth igniters operate for 5 mins only when ENG ANTI-ICE is selected ON
- DBoth igniters operate simultaneously on a MANUAL START.
73During a MANUAL start, how is the START VALVE closed?
- ABy selecting the MANSTART switch to OFF
- BBy selecting the MODE SEL to NORM.
- CAutomatically N2 slightly above 43%
- DAutomatically 30 seconds after light-off.
74During an AUTOMATIC start, what happens when FADEC detects a HOT START?
- AMaintenance action is necessary.
- BThe FADEC will run an abort sequence.
- CThe start valve will close: the crew must perform a manual CRANK
- DThe FADEC wil reduce the fuel flow by 50%.
75During a MANUAL start, what happens following an abnormal start below 50%N 2 (FADEC passive survey)?
- AThe FADEC will perform an autocrank.
- BThere must be a 10 minute cooling period before another start attempt is made.
- CThe crew must perform a crank (actions not shown on ECAM).
- DThe crew must perform a crank (actions are shown on ECAM)
76How can the CRANK function be controlled?
- ATurn the MODE SEL to CRANK
- BTum theMODE SEL to CRANK, and use the associated MAN START switch to OPEN/CLOSE the START valve.
- CTurn the MODE SEL to CRANK, and open the start valve on the MAN START switch; the start valve will close automatically after 30 seconds.
- DPut the MAN START switch to ON, then put the MODE SEL to CRANK.
77Which statement is true?
- AMax EGT TOGA 610° for 10 minutes when one engine inoperative.
- BMax EGT TOGA 635° for 5 minutes when one engine inoperative.
- CMax EGT TOGA 635° for 5 minutes when all engines operative.
- DMax EGT TOGA 610° for 10 minuteswhen al engines operative.
78What is the maximum permitted wind speed for passenger door operation?
- A50 kts
- B55 kts.
- C60 kts
- D65 kts
79What is the maximum permitted speed for selecting the gear down?
- A250 kts
- B220 kts
- C280 kts
- DVFE NEXT
80What are the maximum altitudes up to which pneumatic(single PACK) and electrical power could be extracted from the APU?
- A22500 ft, aircraft ceiling respectively.
- B39000 ft for electrical and pneumatic loads.
- C25000 ft, 30000ft feet respectively.
- D25000 ft feet for electrical and pneumatic loads
81What is the maximum altitude you can start APU when aircraft on battery only?
- AFL 410
- BFL 250
- CFL 225
- DFL 150
82Regarding engine starter limitations, which of the following statements is true?
- AThe minimum time between start cycles is ten seconds.
- BAfter four start cycles, allow 30 mins cooling.
- CThe maximum time for continuous engagement is 3 minutes.
- DThe maximum N2 for starter running engagement 18% in flight.
83What precautions should you be taking if LP ground air unit is connected?
- ADo not use conditioned air simultaneously from PACKs
- BDo not use APU bleed air
- COnly single PACK operation is permitted
- DUse both PACKs
84What isthemaximum permitted speed for selecting FLAP3?
- A185 kts.
- B177 kts
- C200 kts
- D187 kts
85What is the maximum permitted speed for the use of windscreen wipers?
- A230 kts
- B220kts.
- C210 kts.
- D200 kts
86What is the limiting speed whilst the Cockpit Window is open?
- A190 kts.
- B185 kts.
- C200 kts
- D195 kts.
87What Is the maximum speed for a straight line taxiing?
- A10 kts
- B23 kts
- C33 kts
- D30 kts
88In column four of the MEL, what is indicated by a (o)?
- AA placard is required on the Flight Deck
- BThe crew must perform an operational procedure
- CA maintenance procedure must be performed.
- DA circuit breaker must be locked open.
89What are the correct initial actions following a "WINDSHEAR" warning after V1 during take- off?
- ATOGA thrust: Reaching VR -Rotate: SRS - follow:
- BFLEX thrust: Reaching VR -Rotate: SRS - follow.
- CPerform Reject Take-off.
- DTOGA thrust. FD OFF. Rotate at VR.
90What are the combined correct initial actions of the Crew in event of a Rejected Take Of at 100kts?
- AIdle thrust. when ground spoilers have deployed, SELECT REVERSE MAX.
- BCall 'STOP' REVERSE MAX:. when ground spoilers have deployed, apply full pedal braking.
- CCall "STOP": REVERSE thrust MAX: apply full pedal braking
- DCall "STOP" : REVERSE - MAX : monitor braking
91When will the passenger oxygen masks drop down automatically?
- AIf the differential pressure rise above 8.6 PSI
- Bif the differential pressure reached below negative 1.6 PSI
- CIf the cabin altitude rises above 14000ft
- Dif the cabin altitude rises above 10000ft
92Following a GPWS "TOO LOW GEAR" warning, what are the correct initial actions?
- APerform a go-around.
- BContinue Landing.
- CLanding Gear down.
- DSpeed check and Flap Full
93What is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in the event of unreliable: IAS indications just after take-off?
- ATHR CLB: Pitch +10°
- BTHR CLB: Pitch +5°
- CTHR TOGA Pitch +15°
- DTHR TOGA: Pitch +10°.
94What are the correct initial actions on receipt of a TCAS "CLIMB" message?
- AA/P ON: ATHR OFF: VIS to green area onPFD
- BA/P OF: ATHR OF. VIS to green area on PFD
- CA/P OFF: Both FD's OFF: V/Sto 1500ft/min -if still in red area, increase to 2500ft/min.
- DA/P OFF: Both FD's OFF: V/S to green area on PFD.
95In event of sudden depressurisation at FL 300 due to structural failure, what will be the correct initial actions on FCU?
- AEmer Descent - Initiate. Both PACKS- High
- BEmer Descent -Initiate, fI AT/HR is of THR LEVERS -IDLE
- CEmer Descent - Initiate, AP and A/THR- OF
- DAP/FD - OFF, THR lever - IDLE, Emer Descent - Initiate
96During landing, you realise the aircraft is not slowing down....what are the correct initial actions?
- AReverse MAX Brake pedals - press.
- BParking brake ni short and successive application.
- CReverse MAX. brake pedals release. ASKID and NW STRG OFF
- DReverse MAX: brake pedals release A/SKID and N / STRG OFF then ON.
97After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units?
- AThis function is automatic.
- BOnce a DMC has failed, the information is irrecoverable.
- CRotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
- DSelect ECAM/ND TSFR switch on the switching panel to the failed display
98What is the significance of "T/O INHIBIT" being displayed in the MEMO's?
- AAll synthetic voice messages are inhibited during takeoff.
- BAll ECAM messages are suppressed until 80 kts on takeoff
- CAll warning and caution messages will be suppressed during T/O and climb to 150 feet.
- DMost warning and caution messages will be suppressed during takeoff and climb to 1500ft.
99On the CAM Control panel, what is the purpose of the RCL button?
- AOnly to display suppressed warnings on the EWD and SD.
- BOnly to display suppressed cautions on the EWD and SD.
- CDisplay suppressed warnings and cautions on ECAM.
- DRecall STS page for related warnings and/or cautions
100Which of the following statements is Incorrect?
- AEngine Warning Display has priority over System Display.
- BPrimary Flight Display has priority over Navigation Display
- CSingle chime is triggered for Level 1 warning
- DCRC is triggered for Level 3 warning.
101On the ECAM Control panel, (ECP), what is the main purpose the ALL button?
- AAs a backup for the STS button.
- BTo display all current malfunctions on the EWD.
- CSo the crew can press and hold it to monitor the systems in the cruise
- DTo provide redundancy in the event of an ECP button failure.
102Regarding Metric Altitudes, which of the following statements is true?
- APressing the Metric Alt. Button changes the FCU (only) indication to metres.
- BPressing the Metric Alt, Button changes the FCU and the PFD displays to metres.
- CThe Metric ALT display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.
- DThe Metric ALT display on the ECAM shows the actual aircraft altitude.
103If only one ECAM DU is operative, how is an advisory brought to the attention of the crew?
- AA level one caution is triggered
- B'ADVISORY' is displayed on the PFD, the associated ECP button flashes
- CADV is displayed on the EWD. the associated ECP button flashes.
- DThe associated SD replaces the EWD.
104What happens to the System Display during low altitude Go-around?
- AENG SD appears
- BFLT CTLS SD appears
- CCRZ SD appears
- DStays on Wheel SD
105With the F.D.s. and A/P's switched OFF, the ATHR is switched on: which of the following statement is correct?
- AThe airspeed bug is magenta, and is set by the FMGS.
- BThe airspeed bug is blue and defaults to the current airspeed.
- CThe airspeed bug is magenta, and defaults to the current airspeed.
- DThe airspeed bug is magenta, and defaults ot green dot speed.
106Which speed will FMGS use during an Expedite climb?
- AGreen dot speed.
- BECON climb speed.
- C250 knots below 10,000 feet.
- DVMO/MMO
107What happens to the aircraft speed when the APPROACH PHASE has been ACTIVATED in the MCDU?
- AIf the speed is managed (magenta) it will go to the speed associated with the current flap setting
- BIf the speed is managed (magenta) it will always go to green dot.
- CIt will go to S speed.
- DIt wil go to 210 kts.
108During the managed descent phase and the aircraft enters F-PLN discontinuity, the M A changes from DES/NAV to......
- AVS / HDG.
- BVS / NAV.
- COP DES / HDG
- DOP DES / NAV.
109What occurs on descending through 400' R.A on the approach?
- AAP/FD Vertical mode "LAND" is annunciated on the FMAs'.
- BAP/FD Lateral mode"LAND" is annunciated on the FMA'S
- CActual altitude goes amber.
- DAP/FD Commonmode "LAND" is annunciated on the FMAs'.
110On the FMA in the fifth column
- AA/THR in green indicates A/THRis active.
- BA/THR in white indicates A/THR is active.
- C1FD1 indicatesFD 2 is switched OFF.
- D1FD- indicates FD 2 has failed.
111At high altitudes if the aircraft overflys the optimum top of descent point, what is enunciated on the FMA?
- AMACH/DESC (on the top line).
- BDESCEND NOW (on the third line).
- CMORE DRAG (on the third line)
- DDECELERATE (on the third line)
112Manual tuning of NAVaids has priority over automatic tuning when FMGS is in...
- ASingle Mode.
- BDual Mode.
- CIndependent Mode.
- DAny Mode.
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- PILOT A320 TYPE Quiz am A, erstellt von Ella Davies am 18/10/2023.
- Autor
- Ella Davies
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 62
- Schlagwörter
- Bewertung
- Noch keine Bewertungen Bewerte dieses Quiz