Test
Routing and Switching Final Exam v6.0
Este test tiene tipos de pregunta que se abren en el reproductor de siempre.
Preguntas del test (120)
1Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?
- Amanagement
- Buser-generated
- Cuntagged
- Dtagged
2Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number?
- AThe NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number.
- BAn NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.
- COther systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP.
- DThe NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number.
- EThe NTP master will lower its stratum number.
3A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?
- Aaccess-group 11 in
- Baccess-class 11 in
- Caccess-list 11 in
- Daccess-list 110 in
4A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)
- Avty lines
- BVTP domain
- Cloopback address
- Ddefault gateway
- Edefault VLAN
- FIP address
5A network administrator configures a router to provide stateful DHCPv6 operation. However, users report that workstations do not receive IPv6 addresses within the scope. Which configuration command should be checked to ensure that statefull DHCPv6 is implemented?
- AThe dns-server line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.
- BThe ipv6 nd managed-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.
- CThe ipv6 nd other-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.
- DThe domain-name line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.
6Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?
- AFrames are forwarded without any error checking.
- BError-free fragments are forwarded, so switching occurs with lower latency.
- CBuffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.
- DOnly outgoing frames are checked for errors.
7Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?
- A10.0.0.31
- B172.16.12.5
- C172.16.12.33
- D192.168.1.10
- E172.16.25.35
8Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?
- AThe default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
- BNo clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
- CThe IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
- DThe state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.
9Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
- Aip dhcp pool
- Bip address dhcp
- Cservice dhcp
- Dip helper-address
10Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?
- Aa DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
- Ba DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
- Ca DHCPREQUEST unicast message
- Da DHCPDISCOVER unicast message
11Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
- AA DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
- BR1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
- CThe ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
- DThe ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
12A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
- Aip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
- Bip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
- Cip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365 - Dip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365 - ENo additional configuration is necessary.
13What is a disadvantage of NAT?
- AThere is no end-to-end addressing.
- BThe router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
- CThe internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
- DThe costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
14Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
- ATelnet
- BIPsec
- CHTTP
- DICMP
- EDNS
15What benefit does NAT64 provide?
- AIt allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
- BIt allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
- CIt allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
- DIt allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
16 Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)
- AR1 Gi0/1.12
- BR1 S0/0/0
- CR2 S0/0/1
- DR2 Gi0/1.20
- Einbound
- Foutbound
17Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
- Adestination MAC address
- BICMP message type
- Ccomputer type
- Dsource TCP hello address
- Edestination UDP port number
18A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?
- Ain an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
- Bin an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
- Cin an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
- Din an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device
19Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
- Aaccess list number between 1 and 99
- Baccess list number between 100 and 199
- Cdefault gateway address and wildcard mask
- Ddestination address and wildcard mask
- Esource address and wildcard mask
- Fsource subnet mask and wildcard mask
- Gdestination subnet mask and wildcard mask
20A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
- A0.0.0.127
- B0.0.0.255
- C0.0.1.255
- D0.0.255.255
- EA single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.
21The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
- Aaccess-class 5 in
- Baccess-list 5 deny any
- Caccess-list standard VTY
- Dpermit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
- Eaccess-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
- Fip access-group 5 out
- Gip access-group 5 in
22A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
- Apermit ip any any
- Bpermit ip any host ip_address
- Cpermit icmp any any nd-na
- Ddeny ip any any
23Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
- AIt is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
- BIt is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
- CIt has an administrative distance of 1.
- DIt is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
24Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?
- AThe ip route command was used.
- BThe ipv6 route command was used.
- CAnother router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.
- DThe ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.
25Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
- AIPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
- BIPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.
- CIPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
- DIPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.
26Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?
- Achild route
- Bultimate route
- Cdefault route
- Dlevel 1 parent route
27Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
- Ascalability
- BISP selection
- Cspeed of convergence
- Dthe autonomous system that is used
- Ecampus backbone architecture
2828. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?
- Adirectly attached static route
- Brecursive static route
- Cfully specified static route
- Dfloating static route
29A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
- Aip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
- Bip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
- Cip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
- Dip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
30Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
- Aipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
- Bipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
- Cipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
- Dipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
31Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
32Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?
- AOSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
- BOSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
- COSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
- DOSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.
33What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
- AThey exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
- BThey negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
- CThey request more information about their databases.
- DThey exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.
34What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
- AA higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
- BLink cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
- CCost equals bandwidth.
- DA lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
35Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
- Athe link router interface IP address and subnet mask
- Bthe type of network link
- Cthe link next-hop IP address
- Dthe link bandwidth
- Ethe cost of that link
36Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
- AThe two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
- BThe OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
- CThe OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
- DThe OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
- EThe link interface subnet masks must match.
- FThe link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
37A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
- ARouterA(config)# router ospf 0
- BRouterA(config)# router ospf 1
- CRouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
- DRouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
- ERouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
38What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
- ARouters send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
- BRouters send triggered updates in response to a change.
- CRouters create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
- DThe database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
- EPaths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
39Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?
- Ato determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding
- Bto determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
- Cto determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
- Dto determine which ports are functioning
40Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
- Aswitchport mode access
switchport port-security - Bswitchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict - Cswitchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky - Dswitchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect
- Aswitchport mode access
41Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
- AAn encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
- BA cable has not been attached to the port.
- CThe no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
- DThere is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
42What caused the following error message to appear?
01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down- AAnother switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
- BAn unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
- CNAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
- DA host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
- EPort security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
43While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?
- AAll traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
- BThe control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
- CAll traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
- DUnexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.
44Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
- Adynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
- Bdynamic auto – dynamic auto
- Cdynamic desirable – dynamic auto
- Ddynamic desirable – trunk
- Eaccess – trunk
- Faccess – dynamic auto
45What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)
- AChange the native VLAN on both ports.
- BConfigure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
- CConfigure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.
- DConfigure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
- EPlace the two attached switch ports in access mode.
46A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
- ASwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1 - BSwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast - CSwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk - DSwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
- ASwitch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
47Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)
- ADesigned to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.
- BThe native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
- CThis VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.
- DHigh priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
- EThe native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.
48On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
- ASwitch# delete flash:vlan.dat
- BSwitch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
- CSwitch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
- DSwitch(config)# no vlan 100
49What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
- AThe native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
- BThe security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
- CA separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
- DThe native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
50A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
- AAll devices in all VLANs see the frame.
- BDevices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
- COnly devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
- DOnly devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
51Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?
- AA configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
- BThere is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
- CThe wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.
- DThe VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.
52What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?
- AThe access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.
- BThe access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
- CThe access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
- DThe access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.
53Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?
- AR2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
- BR2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
- CR2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
- DR2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
54Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)
- AStep 1 – Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.
- BStep 2 – Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.
- CStep 3 – Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
- DStep 4 – Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
- EStep 5 – Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best
55Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
- Athe destination MAC address and the incoming port
- Bthe destination MAC address and the outgoing port
- Cthe source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
- Dthe source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
- Ethe source MAC address and the incoming port
- Fthe source MAC address and the outgoing port
56Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?
- A10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
- B5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
- C5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
- D16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
57What is a function of the distribution layer?
- Afault isolation
- Bnetwork access to the user
- Chigh-speed backbone connectivity
- Dinterconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
58Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
- Aborderless switching
- Bcut-through switching
- Cingress port buffering
- Dstore-and-forward switching
59In IPv6, all routes are level [blank_start]1[blank_end] ultimate routes.
- A1
60Static routes are configured by the use of the [blank_start]ip route[blank_end] global configuration command.
- Aip route
61The OSPF Type 1 packet is the [blank_start]Hello[blank_end] packet.
- AHello
62The default administrative distance for a static route is [blank_start]1[blank_end].
- A1
63When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?
- Adata VLAN ID
- Bnative VLAN ID
- Cunused VLAN ID
- Dmanagement VLAN ID
64Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)
- A(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport - B(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown - C(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk - D(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk - E(config)# ip routing
- A(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
65Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
- AAdd an administrative distance of 254.
- BChange the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
- CChange the exit interface to S0/0/1.
- DAdd the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.
66How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?
- Athe highest IPv6 address on an active interface
- Bthe highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
- Cthe highest IPv4 address on an active interface
- Dthe lowest MAC address on an active interface
67Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
- AIn a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.
- BThey support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
- CThe interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
- DThey are used for point-to-multipoint links.
- EThey are not associated with a particular VLAN.
68Match the switching characteristic to the correct term. (Not all options are used.)
- AI remember this.
- BI don't remember this.
69A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?
- Astatic NAT
- Bdynamic NAT
- Cport address translation
- DDHCP
70What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
- AThey use hop count as their only metric.
- BThey send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
- CThey flood the entire network with routing updates.
- DThey only send out updates when a new network is added.
71Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
- AThe path a static route uses to send data is known.
- BNo intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
- CStatic routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.
- DStatic routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
- EConfiguration of static routes is error-free. Static routes scale well as the network grows.
72When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
- Ashow active SSH ports on the switch
- Bdisconnect SSH connected hosts
- Ccreate a public and private key pair
- Dshow SSH connected hosts
- Eaccess the SSH database configuration
73Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?
- AThe routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
- BThe serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.
- CNo router ID has been configured on the routers.
- DThe gigabit interfaces are passive.
74Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
- Ashow processes show cdp neighbor
- Bshow access-lists
- Cshow ip route
- Dshow running-config
75Refer to the exhibit. What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?
- A192.168.0.0/24
- B192.168.0.0/23
- C192.168.0.0/22
- D192.168.0.0/21
76A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?
- Aauto secure MAC addresses
- Bdynamic secure MAC addresses
- Cstatic secure MAC addresses
- Dsticky secure MAC addresses
77Which value represents the “trustworthiness” of a route and is used to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?
- Arouting protocol
- Boutgoing interface
- Cmetric
- Dadministrative distance
78Which type of router memory temporarily stores the running configuration file and ARP table?
- Aflash
- BNVRAM
- CRAM
- DROM
79Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?
- ARouter R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.
- BRouter R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
- CRouter R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.
- DRouter R2 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
80Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the HQ router over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The 198.51.0.8/30 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was issued on Branch and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?
- AAdd the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8.
- BChange the administrative distance to 1.
- CChange the destination network to 198.51.0.5.
- DChange the administrative distance to 120.
81Refer to the exhibit. An attacker on PC X sends a frame with two 802.1Q tags on it, one for VLAN 40 and another for VLAN 12. What will happen to this frame?
- ASW-A will drop the frame because it is invalid.
- BSW-A will leave both tags on the frame and send it to SW-B, which will forward it to hosts on VLAN 40.
- CSW-A will remove both tags and forward the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 40.
- DSW-A will remove the outer tag and send the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 12.
82A new network policy requires an ACL to deny HTTP access from all guests to a web server at the main office. All guests use addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:DB8:19:C::/64. The web server is configured with the address 2001:DB8:19:A::105/64. Implementing the NoWeb ACL on the interface for the guest LAN requires which three commands? (Choose three.)
- Apermit tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80 deny tcp host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 any eq 80
- Bdeny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80
- Cpermit ipv6 any any
- Ddeny ipv6 any any
- Eipv6 traffic-filter NoWeb in
- Fip access-group NoWeb in
83An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 172.16.0.0/16, 172.16.1.0/16, and 172.16.2.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 172.16.1.0 network to neighbors?
- Arouter(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
- Brouter(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
- Crouter(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
- Drouter(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
84Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 192.135.250.27?
- A255.0.0.0
- B255.255.0.0
- C255.255.255.0
- D255.255.255.224
85Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?
- A1
- B5
- C8
- D20
- E25
- F30
86The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?
- AFlash
- BNVRAM
- CRAM
- DROM
87A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source address are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?
- Aoff
- Brestrict
- Cprotect
- Dshutdown
88A standard ACL has been configured on a router to allow only clients from the 10.11.110.0/24 network to telnet or to ssh to the VTY lines of the router. Which command will correctly apply this ACL?
- Aaccess-group 11 in
- Baccess-class 11 in
- Caccess-list 11 in
- Daccess-list 110 in
89Refer to the exhibit.What address will summarize the LANs attached to routers 2-A and 3-A and can be configured in a summary static route to advertise them to an upstream neighbor?
- A10.0.0.0/24
- B10.0.0.0/23
- C10.0.0.0/22
- D10.0.0.0/21
90A security specialist designs an ACL to deny access to a web server from all sales staff. The sales staff are assigned addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:db8:48:2c::/64. The web server is assigned the address 2001:db8:48:1c::50/64. Configuring the WebFilter ACL on the LAN interface for the sales staff will require which three commands? (Choose three.)
- Adeny tcp host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 any eq 80
- Bdeny tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80
- Cpermit ipv6 any any
- Ddeny ipv6 any any
- Eip access-group WebFilter in
- Fipv6 traffic-filter WebFilter in
91To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 192.168.5.64 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?
- A192.168.5.64
- B192.168.5.0
- C192.168.0.0
- DNo address is displayed.
92Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the interval web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board Office. The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implement the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?
- Ainbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed
- Bthe ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers
- Cnamed ACLs requite the use of port numbers
- Dthe ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction
93Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
- E5
- F6
94A router learns of multiple toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for specific situation?
- AMetric
- BColour
- CMeter
- DBread
95What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?
- AIpv6
- BOSPF
- CLink-access
- DTo have only a link-local IPv6 address
- EProtocol
96Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)
- AFull duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.
- BHalf duplex has only one channel.
- CAll modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
- DFull duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.
- EFull duplex increases the effective bandwidth.
97Fill in the blank. The acronym describes the type of traffic that has strict QoS requirements and utilizes a one-way overall delay less than 150 ms across the network.
- AVOIP
- BDNS
- CTCP
- DUDP
98Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)
- AS1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan
- BS1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan
- CS1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
- DS1(config-if)# switchport mode access
- ES1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
99Which command will enable auto-MDIX on a device?
- AS1(config-if)# mdix auto
- BS1# auto-mdix S1(config-if)# auto-mdix
- CS1# mdix auto S1(config)# mdix auto
- DS1(config)# auto-mdix
100What is the effect of issuing the passive-interface default command on a router that is configured for OSPF?
- ARouters that share a link and use the same routing protocol
- BIt prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.
- CAll of above
101A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?
- Arouters that are reachable over a TCP session
- Brouters that share a link and use the same routing protocol
- Crouters that reside in the same area
- Drouters that exchange LSAs
102Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)
- AAddress translation is working.
- BThree addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.
- CThe name of the NAT pool is refCount.
- DA standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.
- ETwo types of NAT are enabled.
- FOne port on the router is not participating in the address translation.
103Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)
- Aconsole access –> Not Scored
- Bfull operating system –> flash
- Climited operating system –> ROM
- Drouting table –> RAM
- Estartup configuration file –> NVRAM
104Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
- AConfigure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
- BConfigure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.
- CConfigure SSH for remote management.
- DConfigure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
- EConfigure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.
105Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?
- A0.0.0.0
- B10.16.100.128
- C10.16.100.2
- D110
- E791
106Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?
- ASource MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10 - BSource MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1 - CSource MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1 - DSource MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10 - ESource MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 192.168.1.1
- ASource MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
107Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?
- Aa network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer
- Ba network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer
- Ca collapsed core network design
- Da three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions
108Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
- E5
- F6
- G11
109A router learns of multiple routes toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for this specific situation?
- Arouting protocol
- Boutgoing interface
- Cmetric
- Dadministrative distance
110Which value in a routing table represents trustworthiness and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?
- Aadministrative distance
- Bmetric
- Coutgoing interface
- Drouting protocol
111The network address 172.18.9.128 with netmask 255.255.255.128 is matched by which wildcard mask?
- A0.0.0.31
- B0.0.0.255
- C0.0.0.127
- D0.0.0.63
112Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)
- AFF02::5
- BFF02::6
- CFF02::A
- D2001:db8:cafe::1
- EFF02::1:2
- FFE80::1
113Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from East?
- A65
- B20
- C1
- D0
114Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the R2 LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from R1?
- A782
- B74
- C128
- D65
115A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?
- Aoff
- Brestrict
- Cprotect
- Dshutdown
116A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?
- A172.16.20.2
- B172.16.26.254
- C172.16.47.254
- D172.16.48.5
117What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)
- Amismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces
- Ba mismatched Cisco IOS version that is used
- Cuse of private IP addresses on the link interfaces
- Done router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port
- Emismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers
118Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs as many switch ports as possible for end devices and the business is using the most common type of inter-VLAN method. What type of inter-VLAN interconnectivity is best to use between the switch and the router if R1 routes for all VLANs?
- Aone link between the switch and the router with the router using three router subinterfaces
- Bone link between the switch and the router with the one switch port being configured in access mode
- Cthree links between the switch and the router with the three switch ports being configured in access mode
- Dtwo links between the switch and the router with the two switch ports being configured in access mode
119Router R1 routes traffic to the 10.10.0.0/16 network using an EIGRP learned route from Branch2. The administrator would like to install a floating static route to create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down. Which static route meets this goal?
- Aip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100
- Bip route 255.255.0.0 10.10.0.0 209.165.200.225
- Cip route 255.255.0.0 10.10.0.0 209.165.200.225 100
- Dip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225
120Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?
- A172.16.100.64
- B255.255.255.0
Información
- Descripción
- A cumulative final exam! Please note that some exhibits may be missing.
- Autor
- Jesse Collins
- Idioma
- English
- Visitas
- 108
- Etiquetas
- Valoración
- Aún sin valoraciones Valora este test