Citation CJ1

1. 1A good battery should supply power to the hot battery bus and the emergency bus for approximately:

   1. A2 hours.
   2. B1 hour.
   3. C30 minutes.
   4. D10 minutes.
2. 2The crossfeed bus serves as:

   1. AA power-off DC source.
   2. BAn emergency power source.
   3. CAn extension bus.
   4. DA generator tie bus.
3. 3In flight, with the generators on line, the battery is isolated from any charging source when the battery switch is in:

   1. AOFF
   2. BBATT
   3. CEMER
   4. DBoth A and C
4. 4If manual termination of a start sequence is desired, the switch to press is:

   1. AEngine start
   2. BStarter disengauge
   3. CLh start
   4. DRh start
5. 5The voltage read on the voltmeter with the selector switch in BATT is sensed from the:

   1. ACrossfeed bus
   2. BLh feed bus
   3. CHot battery bus
   4. DRh feed bus
6. 6If the generators are not operating, the voltmeter reads battery voltage when the battery switch is in:

   1. AOFF
   2. BBATT
   3. CEmer
   4. DB and C
7. 7The light in each engine start button illuminates to indicate:

   1. AStarting is complete
   2. BOpening of the start relay
   3. CClosing of the start relay
   4. DGenerator disconnect
8. 8The generator field relay opens when:

   1. AAn internal feeder fault is sensed.
   2. BAn overvoltage condition is sensed
   3. CAn engine fire switch is activated
   4. DAll of the above
9. 9If a battery start is intended, the generator switches should be placed to:

   1. AOFF
   2. BGEN
   3. CRESET
   4. DON
10. 10With the battery as the only source of power and the battery switch in the OFF position, the bus(es) powered are:

    1. ACrossfeed bus, hot battery bus
    2. BHot battery bus
    3. CEmergency bus, crossfeed bus, hot battery bus
    4. DEmergency bus, hot battery bus

11. 11With the battery as the only source of power and the battery switch in the EMER position,the following bus(es) are powered:

    1. ACrossfeed bus, hot battery bus
    2. BEmergency bus, crossfeed bus, hot battery bus
    3. CEmergency bus only
    4. DEmergency bus, hot battery bus
12. 12With the battery as the only source of power and the battery switch in the BATT position, the following conditions exists:

    1. AAll DC buses are powered for 10 minutes.
    2. BAll buses except the emergency bus are powered
    3. COnly the left and right main DC buses are powered
    4. DOnly the battery,emergency and hot battery buses receive power
13. 13The primary item that receives power directly from the hot battery bus is:

    1. AKCS-55
    2. BNose baggage compartment light
    3. CLH pitot-static heater
    4. DAudio 1 and Audio 2
14. 14In flight, an engine start accomplished with the start button (not a windmilling start):

    1. AIs a generator-assist start to prevent excessive battery drain
    2. BIs not possible; only windmilling air starts are possible
    3. CIs a battery start as the generator assist is disabled in flight to protect the operating generator
    4. DMust be manually terminated by the starter disengauge button
15. 15Regarding the engine starting sequence (battery start on the ground):

    1. AIt is normally terminated by the pilot with the Starter disengauge button
    2. BThe boost pumps and ignition switches must booth be in the ON position before the start button is depressed
    3. CA minimum of 57% N2 is required on the operating engine prior to starting the second engine
    4. DIt is terminated normally by the 45% N2 speed-sensing switch on the starter-generator
16. 16The most correct statement is:

    1. AThe illumination of the starter disengauge button is a function of the panel lights control night-dim switch
    2. BThe generator switches are placed in the OFF position for an EPU start
    3. CA failed left 225-ampere current limiter prevents starting of the left engine
    4. DAll of the above
17. 17With the electrical system operating normally (both generators on the line with the battery switch in BATT):

    1. AThe greater control unit (GCU) serve to automatically regulate,parallel and protect the generators
    2. BThe battery will supply power to the hot battery and emergency buses
    3. CEach generator will supply power to the equipment on its respective main and extension buses
    4. DThe voltage of a battery and generators may be read by momentarily selecting the desired position with the voltage selector switch
18. 18Placing the battery switch in EMER with the generators on the line:

    1. AWill cause loss of power to the emergency bus since the generators are on the line
    2. BThe emergency bus is powered by the battery
    3. CWill still provide charging power to the battery
    4. DShould result in the battery voltage remaining at 29.0 volts
19. 19Loss of both generators:

    1. ARH and LH GEN OFF annunciator light illuminates
    2. BRH and LH GEN OFF annunciator light will not illuminate, but the Master Caution will flash
    3. CRH and LH GEN OFF annunciator light and Master Caution lights illuminate
    4. DRH and LH GEN OFF annunciator light and Master Caution and Warning lights illuminate
20. 20During engine start, the speed sensing switch will terminate the start sequence thus removing power from the:

    1. AStarter-generator,engine driven fuel pump, and the fuel firewall shutoff valve
    2. BElectric fuel boost pump, ignitors, ande the starter-generator
    3. CElectrical fuel boost pump, motive flow shutoff valve, and the fuel low pressure sensor
    4. DStarter-generator, generator power relay, and manual fue, shutoff valve
21. 21The batt o,temp light comes on steady and remains steady when the flashing Master warning is pressed out

    1. AA fire and explosion hazard now exists
    2. BMove the battery switch to EMER and see the amps and volts drop
    3. CSelect batt switch to off
    4. DAll of the above
22. 22Both engines are started and the “AFT J-bOX LMT” light is observed on:

    1. AYou are airworthy; go ahead and fly
    2. BThe start relay is stuck closed
    3. CA 225 amp current limiter is blown repair this before flight
    4. DIf a generator fails, the other one will b able o pick up the load
23. 23The battery disconnect switch is used for

    1. AStuck start relay
    2. BStuck battery relay during battery overtemperature
    3. CTest
    4. DAll of the above
24. 24The lighting rheostat labeled LEFT controls

    1. APilot’s instrument panel lights
    2. BCenter instrument panel lights
    3. CCopilot’s instrument panel lights
    4. DBoth A and B
25. 25The lighting rheostat that controls the electroluminescent lighting is labeled

    1. ALeft
    2. BCenter
    3. CRight
    4. DEL
26. 26Turning the panel light control master switch on

    1. AActivated the control rheostats
    2. BDims the annunciator panel lights
    3. CIlluminates the starter disengauge button
    4. DAll of the above
27. 27The map lights are controlled with rheostats locates on the

    1. ACenter pedestal
    2. BPilot and copilot instrument panels
    3. COverhead lights panel
    4. DForward side of the left and right side consoles
28. 28When the indirect fluorescent light switch is positioned to DIM, the lights illuminate

    1. ABright for three seconds and then dim
    2. BDim
    3. CAnd dim should be used during engine ground starts
    4. DAfter three seconds
29. 29When the landing gear is retracted, the landing lights

    1. AAutomatically extinguish
    2. BRemain illuminated and must be manually switches off
    3. CAre selected to land for longest life
    4. DAlternately flash Rh,LH,etc.
30. 30An annunciator panel light will extingish

    1. AWhen pressed
    2. BUpon landing
    3. CWhen the malfunction is corrected
    4. DIf the master warning system is reset under all conditions
31. 31The master warning lights illuminate flashing

    1. AWhen any annunciator panel light illuminates
    2. BWhen a red annunciator panel light illuminates
    3. CWhen both the L and R GEN OFF annunciator as illuminate
    4. DBoth B and C
32. 32The rotatory test switch

    1. AIlluminates all annunciators in the annu position
    2. BIs spring-loaded to OFF
    3. COnly illuminates all red annunciators in the ANNU position
    4. DOnly illuminates all Amber annunciators in the annu position
33. 33Amber annunciator lights illuminate

    1. ASteady
    2. BFlashing,then go steady when the steady master caution light switch is pressed out
    3. CAnd go out only when they burn out
    4. DThen are pressed out by the master warning switchlights
34. 34The most correct answer is

    1. AThe fuel boost pump switches do not have to be on for engine start
    2. BWith the fuel boost pump switches off, the respective boost pump can not turn on
    3. CThe fuel boost pump will be automatically energized anytime the fuel boost switches are in norm and the start button is depressed, crossfeed/fuel transfer is selected, or low pressure (5psi) is sensed in the engine -supply line (throttle at idle or above)
    4. DAll of the above
35. 35After engine start, the fuel boost pump is deenergized by

    1. AThe fuel boost pump switch
    2. BStar circuit termination
    3. CDiscontinuing crossfeed/fuel transfer
    4. DA time-delay relay
36. 36If a LH or RH fuel low level annunciator light illuminates

    1. AThe fuel quantity indicator must read less than 185 pounds
    2. BThe electric boost pump in the appropriate tank will automatically be activated
    3. CThe pilot should activate the appropriate fuel boost pump
    4. DThe master warning light will flash
37. 37If the LH or RH fuel boost on white annunciators illuminate without any action by the crew(engine operating normally),the probable cause is

    1. AThe engine driven fuel pump has failed
    2. BThe firewall shutoff valve has closed
    3. CThe low pressure sensing switch has energized the boost pump
    4. DThe fuel flow compensator has energized the boost pump below 5 psi
38. 38To verify that crossfeed/fuel transfer is in fact occurring, it is necessary to

    1. AMonitor the fuel quantity indicators for appropriate quantity changes
    2. BOnly observe that the white fuel transfer light is on
    3. CEnsure both white fuel boost on lights are illuminated
    4. DEnsure that the fuel boost pump switch for the tank being fed is on
39. 39When crossfeed/fuel transfer is selected by positioning the fuel transfer switch to the desired tank and the white fuel transfer light comes on

    1. AThis is normal,indicating the valve is energized to open
    2. BThe boost pump did not actuate
    3. CThe crossfeed valve did not fully close
    4. DThe crossfeed valve did not fully open
40. 40Operation of the primary ejector pump is directly dependent upon:

    1. ADC electrical power
    2. BHigh-pressure fuel from the engine-driven fuel pump (motive flow)
    3. CAC electrical power supplied by the No. 1 or No. 2 inverter
    4. DFlow from the transfer ejector pump
41. 41If the engine-driven fuel pump fails:

    1. AThe engine will flame out
    2. BThe primary ejector pump will fail also, but the boost pump will be energized by low pressure and will be energized by low pressure and will sustain the engine
    3. CThe transfer ejector pump will also be inoperative
    4. DRight or left Fuel Transfer must be selected in order to obtain high-pressure motive flow from the opposite engine
42. 42If right or left FUEL TRANSFER has been selected and normal DC electrical power is lost (battery switch in EMER with a dual generator failure):

    1. AThe system will remain in fuel crossfeed/transfer
    2. BThe crossfeed valve will fail closed
    3. CThe boost pump will be energyzed to terminate fuel crossfeed/transfer
    4. Dnone of the above
43. 43The maximum normal asymmetric fuel diferential is:

    1. A600 pounds
    2. B400 pounds
    3. C1000 pounds
    4. D200 pounds
44. 44The primary thrust indicator for the williams-rolls fj44-1a is

    1. Afuel flow
    2. Bn1
    3. Citt
    4. Dn2
45. 45if one igniter should fail during engine start

    1. Athe engine will start normally
    2. Bit will result in a hot start
    3. Ccombustion will not occur
    4. Dthe exciter box will act as a backup and the engine will start
46. 46ignition during normal engine start is activated by

    1. Aturning the ignition switches to on at 8 to 12% n2
    2. Bmoving the throttle to idle at 8 to 12% n2 and n1 rotation
    3. Cdepressing the start button
    4. Dnothing; ignition not needed during normal engine start
47. 47ignition and boost pump operation during engine start are normally terminated by

    1. Aturning the ignition switches to off
    2. Bthe speed-sensing switch on the starter-generator at aprox 45% n2
    3. Cturning the boost pump switch off
    4. Dopening the ignition circuit breakers on the right-hand circuit breaker panel
48. 48Power will be automatically applied to the igniters when the ignition switch is in the norm anytime

    1. AThe start button is depressed and the throttle is out of off
    2. BThe surface device system is activated
    3. CThe engine anti ice switch is on
    4. DBoth a and c
49. 49Of the following statements concerning the
    FJ44-1A engine, the correct one is:

    1. AFuel from the engine fuel system is used to
       cool the engine oil through a fuel-oil heat
       exchanger
    2. BThe engine accessory gearbox has its own
       oil lubricating system (independent of the
       engine itself).
    3. CThe indication of low oil pressure is only
       the LH or RH OIL PRESS WARN annunciator
       light
    4. DElectrical power is not required to power the
       ITT instrument since it is self-generating.
50. 50The LH or RH OIL PRESS WARN light on
    the annunciator panel illuminates whenever:

    1. AOil temperature exceeds 121°C.
    2. BOil pressure is less than 25 psi.
    3. COil filter clogs and bypasses oil
    4. DThe fuel-oil cooler becomes clogged.
51. 51The maximum allowable operating oil consumption
    for the FJ44-1A engine is:

    1. A0.8 quart per hour
    2. B.023 U.S. gallon per hour
    3. C.5 gallon every 40 hours
    4. DNo specified figure since it depends upon
       TBO
52. 52If the N1 fan shaft shifts more than .050 inch

    1. AThe engine automatically shuts down.
    2. BThe vibration detector causes illumination
       of the MASTER WARNING lights.
    3. CThe synchronizer shuts the engine down.
    4. DNothing occurs.
53. 53The following engine instruments are available
    in the event of a loss of normal DC electrical
    power:

    1. AN1 rpm and ITT
    2. BN1 rpm, N2 rpm, and ITT
    3. CN1 rpm (tape only)
    4. DN1 rpm (tape and lighted display)
54. 54The ENGINE SYNC switch:

    1. AShould be in FAN for takeoffs and landings
    2. BShould be in TURB at altitude
    3. CCan be placed in FAN or TURB after takeoff
       and should be left there for the remainder
       of the flight
    4. DShould be off for large power changes
55. 55The FJ44-1A:

    1. AStart fuel nozzle pump 9 pph constant
    2. BGreen ignition light confirming one or
       both exciters powered
    3. CMobil Jet II and Mobil 254 are approved
    4. DAll of the above
56. 56Left fuel filter is bypassed

    1. AThe engines will flame out soon, and the
       airplane should be landed immediately
    2. BThe fuel boost pump will automatically be
       activated.
    3. CCrossfeed should be selected to in-sure
       that the fuel is filtered before reaching the
       engine.
    4. DFuel will not flow through the left engine’s
       fuel filter. The LH fuel filter bypass annunciator
       will illuminate.
57. 57What is the maximum engine ground start
    tailwind component?

    1. A15 KTS
    2. B10 KTS
    3. C13 KTS
    4. D20 KTS
58. 58Maximum oil consumption for an operating
    engine is:

    1. A0.5 gallon per hour
    2. B1.5 pints per hour
    3. C0.5 quarts per hour
    4. D.023 gallon per hour
59. 59During inflight windmilling, the engine will
    vent oil overboard. Typical consumption is
    approximately:

    1. A.20 gallon per hour
    2. B2 gallons per hour
    3. C1 quart per minute
    4. D3 quarts per hour
60. 60What is the maximum engine ground start
    crosswind component?

    1. A12 KTS
    2. B10 KTS
    3. C21 KTS
    4. D13 KTS
61. 61An ENG FIRE switchlight illuminates when:

    1. AIt is depressed
    2. BThe MASTER WARNING lights
       illuminate for an engine fire.
    3. CTemperature in the engine reaches 500°F
    4. DA pressure switch trips due to thermally
       induced inert gas expansion in a stainless
       tube.
62. 62In order to fire the explosive cartridges on the
    fire-extinguisher bottles:

    1. ADC power need only be available to the
       emergency bus
    2. BNormal system DC power is required
    3. CThe right BOTTLE ARMED light must be
       pressed for a right engine fire and the left
       BOTTLE ARMED light for a left engine
       fire.
    4. DThe ENG FIRE switchlight need not be
       previously activated.
63. 63After a bottle has been discharged into a
    nacelle:

    1. ANo cleaning of the engine and nacelle area
       is required.
    2. BA thorough cleaning of the engine and
       nacelle area is required.
    3. CAn inspection of the engine and nacelle
       area is required to determine if cleaning
       is necessary.
    4. DNone of the above.
64. 64When the fire-extinguishing system is armed
    (both white lights ON):

    1. AThe FUEL LOW PRESS and FUEL
       BOOST ON lights come ON.
    2. BThe HYD FLOW LOW light illuminates.
    3. CThe GEN OFF light illuminates.
    4. DAll of the above.
65. 65If the contents of a bottle have been discharged
    into a nacelle and the ENG FIRE switchlight
    remains on for 30 seconds:

    1. AThe fire has been extinguished.
    2. BThe other bottle can be discharged into
       the same nacelle by depressing the other
       BOTTLE ARMED switchlight.
    3. CThe fire still exits, but no further action
       can be taken
    4. DThe same BOTTLE ARMED switchlight
       can be depressed again, firing a second
       charge of agent from the same bottle.
66. 66Depressing the ENG FIRE switchlight a second
    time:
    

    1. AOpens the fuel firewall shutoff valve
    2. BOpens only the hydraulic firewall shutoff
       valve
    3. CResets the generator field relay
    4. DAll of the above
67. 67An engine fire or overheat is indicated by:

    1. AIllumination of a red ENG FIRE light and
       a flashing MASTER WARNING light
    2. BIllumination of the ENG FIRE light and
       automatic arming of the extinguisher
       bottles
    3. CIllumination of the red ENG FIRE warning
       light
    4. DAutomatic closing of the firewall shutoff
       valves and subsequent engine flameout
68. 68The EMER PRESS ON light can only be
    selected ON by the source selector and the air
    source is:

    1. ALeft engine bleed air only
    2. BEither/both engine bleed air through the
       W/S heat exchanger at 120°F and regulated
       by the EMER valve at 6 ppm
    3. CRight engine bleed air only
    4. DRam pylon inlet air
69. 69The systems that use pneumatic bleed air for
    operation are:

    1. AInstrument air, emergency brakes and the
       entrance door
    2. BSurface deice, windshield anti-ice,
       entrance door seal and cabin or emergency
       pressurization
    3. CEntrance door seal, ACM and thrust
       reversers
    4. DSurface deice, windshield anti-ice,
       entrance door seal and ACM
70. 70The LH and RH bleed-air shut off valves, when
    open, allow engine bleed air to feed:

    1. A8-ppm flow control and cabin heat
       exchanger for normal heating, cooling,
       and pressurization
    2. B23-psi service air to the main cabin door
       seal
    3. CThe windshield anti-ice valve
    4. DAll of the above
71. 71Fresh air draws pylon inlet air:

    1. ATo pressurize the cabin
    2. BTo circulate air during unpressurized
       ground/inflight operations
    3. CTurns on a fan to the lower ducts
    4. DB and C above
72. 72Anti-ice systems should be turned on inflight
    when operating in visible moisture with an
    indicated RAT:

    1. A+10°F and +30°F
    2. B–30°F
    3. C. –20°C
    4. D+10°C or below
73. 73The P/S HTR OFF light:

    1. AWill illuminate, with the system selected,
       when any pitot or static heating element
       has failed
    2. BWill illuminate, with the system selected,
       if the AOA heating element has failed
    3. CWill not illuminate if the pitot heat switch
       is OFF
    4. DIndicates that icing has caused all pitot
       static instruments to be inoperative
74. 74At night, ice formation can be detected by:

    1. AWing inspection lights on both sides of the
       airplane
    2. BRed windshield ice detection lights
    3. CIllumination of the ICING DETECTED
       annunciator light
    4. DAny of the above
75. 75In the windshield anti-icing system:
    

    1. AThe bleed-air control valve will fail electrically
       in the closed position
    2. BAn overtemperature condition is not critical
       since neither the ducting nor the windshield
       are vulnerable to overheat
    3. CAn overheat light, with the system ON,
       indicates excessive bleed-air temperature
    4. DDuring rain removal, the W/S AIR
       O’HEAT light will not function
76. 76Select the one correct statement concerning
    the W/S AIR O’HEAT annunciator light:

    1. AIf the light illuminates when the system is
       operating, the solenoid valve should close,
       cutting off windshield air.
    2. BThe light can only illuminate when the
       windshield bleed-air switch is positioned
       to HI or LOW
    3. CThe light always indicates that the temperature
       of the air is uncontrolled.
    4. D. When the light is illuminated, the rain
       removal augmenter doors will not operate.
77. 77Failure of the normal electrical system will
    result in:

    1. AComplete failure of the windshield antiicing
       system
    2. BContinuous flow of hot bleed air, with
       windshield temperature control possible
       only through regulation of the volume of
       bleed air permitted to the windshield
    3. CContinued windshield anti-icing with complete
       control of the bleed-air temperature
    4. DContinuous isopropyl alcohol flow to the
       windshield, to replace the normal bleedair
       anti-icing
78. 78The W/S AIR O’HEAT light will illuminate:

    1. AIf 5 psi pressure is sensed in the duct with
       the W/S BLEED switch in OFF
    2. BIf the temperature of the air going to the
       windshield exceeds 149°C with the W/S
       BLEED switch in the HI or LOW position
    3. CNeither A or B
    4. DBoth A and B
79. 79When using rain removal:

    1. AThe augmenter doors can be easily pulled
       open with windshield bleed air in LOW or
       HI flow
    2. BThe volume of bleed air to the windshield
       is regulated by the HI–LO W/S BLEED
       switch.
    3. CA windshield bleed overheat will not affect
       rain removal.
    4. DThe augmenter doors should be opened
       prior to applying bleed air on the
       windshield.
80. 80The windshield alcohol system:

    1. AIs a backup system for the windshield antiice
       system
    2. BEnergizes ejectors which apply alcohol
       to both the pilot’s and the copilot’s
       windshields
    3. CUtilizes a pump that supplies alcohol to
       the pilot’s windshield only for a maximum
       of ten minutes
    4. DBoth A and C
81. 81 Once conditions necessary to extinguish the
    ENG ANTI-ICE annunciator lights are satisfied,
    a minimum power setting to sustain the
    operation inflight is:

    1. A70% N1 RPM
    2. B70% N2 RPM
    3. C60% N2 RPM
    4. D80% N2 RPM
82. 82The time for the ENG ANTI-ICE annunciator
    lights to extinguish after initiating operation
    inflight will vary with outside air temperature
    at cruise or climb thrust settings. Normally, no
    more than:

    1. A30 seconds
    2. B2 minutes
    3. C10 seconds
    4. D5 minutes
83. 83f the engine inlet temperature of the engine
    drops below, the amber ENG ANTI-ICE
    annunciator illuminates.

    1. A300°C
    2. B104°C
    3. C90°C
    4. D120°C
84. 84The cockpit indications of the engine antiice
    system operating, and the opening of the
    valves will be:

    1. AIllumination of the MASTER CAUTION
       lights
    2. BThe stator valve opens and the ENG
       ANTI-ICE light comes ON
    3. CITT rise, N1 and N2 decrease and the amber
       ENG ANTI-ICE annunciator illuminates
    4. DThe nacelle temperature exceeds 320°F,
       and the MASTER CAUTION light
       illuminates
85. 85If the MASTER CAUTION and WING ANTIICE
    annunciator illuminate:

    1. A. Bleed-air temperature entering the wing
       leading edge is less than 109° C.
    2. BThe minimum power setting to extinguish
       the WING ANTI-ICE is 85% N2.
    3. CIf the left engine is shut down, the left
       wing cannot be anti-iced.
    4. DThe minimum power setting to extinguish
       the WING ANTI-ICE is 60% N2.
86. 86When using the TAIL DEICE boots:

    1. AThey may be cycled at any temperature
    2. BIf the AUTO mode of operation is inoperative,
       then the switch must be placed to
       MANUAL twice to inflate all boots
    3. CIllumination of the SURFACE DE-ICE
       light always indicates a system malfunction
    4. DMANUAL mode serves as a backup way
       to inflate the boots
87. 87When controlling the cabin temperature with
    the manual temperature toggle switch, the
    ram-air modulating valve is positioned from
    full hot to full cold in approximately:

    1. A18 seconds
    2. B6 seconds
    3. C3 seconds
    4. D15 seconds
88. 88The AIR DUCT O’HEAT annunciator light
    illuminates when the:

    1. AACM shuts down
    2. BTemperature of air in the duct to the cabin
       is over 149°C (300°F).
    3. CTemperature of the air going to the windshield
       is excessive
    4. DEMER source is selected unless the left
       throttle is retarded.
89. 89How can the windshield anti-ice shutoff valve
    be opened?

    1. ALost DC power
    2. BSelect windshield anti-ice to HI or LOW.
    3. CSelect EMER pressure mode(6 ppm).
    4. DAll of the above.
90. 90The precooler exhaust doors are opened for
    cooler engine bleed source air or closed for
    hotter engine bleed source air:

    1. AAutomatically by the precooler temperature
       control system to keep the BLEED
       AIR O’HEAT lights out
    2. BPrecooler exhaust doors not to be pushed
       by hand during walkaround
    3. CBy the ram-air modulating valve when
       more than 30% open in AUTO when NO
       WING/ENG anti-ice is required
    4. DAll of the above
91. 91The cabin heat exchanger ram-air modulating
    valve is opened for cooler cabin air or closed
    for warmer cabin source air by:

    1. AAutomatic temperature control
    2. BManually toggling the 15 second
       motorized valve
    3. CA and B above
    4. DNone of the above
92. 92The source of bleed air when the EMER
    PRESS ON annunciator is illuminated in flight
    is:

    1. AEither the left, right, or both engines
    2. BLeft engine only
    3. CRight engine only
    4. DRam air
93. 93The vapor-cycle compressor may be ON
    (green light—on) when:

    1. AAir conditioner in AUTO on a hot day with
       the ram-air modulating valve full open
    2. BBelow 18,000 feet in AUTO
    3. COn the ground without ram air, the ram
       valve will motorize FULL OPEN anytime
       cabin temperature is above the cabin
       temperature control set point engaging the
       compressor
    4. D. All of the above
94. 94The vapor-cycle compressor is OFF (green
    light—out) when:

    1. AAIR COND circuit breaker is popped
    2. B. Ram-air modulating valve more than 70%
       closed in AUTO
    3. CAutomatic load shedding circuit during
       engine or generator failure
    4. DAll of the above
95. 95What closes the LH and/or RH bleed-air shutoff
    valves:

    1. ASelecting LH or RH
    2. BSelecting FRESH AIR, EMER, or OFF
    3. CIn AUTO during cabin taxi temperatures
       over 18°C (65°F) temperature sensor closes
       the flow control and shutoff valves
    4. DAll of the above
96. 96The pilot and copilot footwarmer outlets are
    located:

    1. AOn the cockpit sidewalls
    2. BUnder the pilot and copilot rudder pedals
    3. COn the side of the throttle pedestal
    4. DUnder the pilot and copilot seats
97. 97In the AUTO position, the forward fan is OFF
    except:

    1. AWhen flood cooling is selected
    2. BWhen the compressor is on, then operating
       at low speed
    3. CWhen the compressor is on, then operating
       at high speed
    4. DWhen the compressor is on, then operating
       at medium speed
98. 98The AFT fan switch is labeled:

    1. ALOW, OFF, or HI
    2. BLOW, HI, and Flood
    3. CLOW, AUTO, or HI
    4. DLOW, MED, or HI
99. 99The forward fan switch is labeled:

    1. A. LOW, AUTO, or HI
    2. BLOW, OFF, or HI
    3. CLOW, MED, or HI
    4. DAUTO, OFF, or HI
100. 100 During climb and cruise the COCKPIT AIR
     DIST knob is selected to:

     1. AMAX, 80% air to crew
     2. B11 O’CLOCK, 60% air to crew
     3. CNORM, 50% air to crew
     4. D10 O’CLOCK, 70% air to crew
101. 101Cabin air is circulated through two evaporators;
     one is in the forward cabin under the sidefacing
     seat, and one is in the aft bulkhead. The
     aft evaporator provides conditioned air to the:

     1. AForward diffuser
     2. BOverhead WEMAC valves
     3. CSide-wall outlets
     4. DFlood-cooling outlet only
102. 102The cabin air temperature in the AUTO mode
     will keep the cabin temperature in a selectable
     range of:

     1. A12 to 35°C
     2. B50 to 75°F
     3. C65 to 85°F
     4. D18 to 29°C
103. 103The ram-air modulating valve controls:

     1. AThe amount of cooling ram air that passes
        through the cabin heat exchanger
     2. BThe amount of air flowing into the cabin
        from the pylon air inlet when the FRESH
        AIR position is selected
     3. CBelow 18,000 feet, a barometric switch
        shutting OFF the operation of the air modulating
        valve
     4. DAt approximately 50% closed position, the
        compressor is disengaged on the vaporcycle
        air conditioner
104. 104Selecting the FRESH AIR position:

     1. ATurns on the refrigerant to cool the cabin
     2. BDepressurizes the cabin inflight
     3. CMust not be used during ground operations
     4. DWill not affect normal pressurized flight
105. 105The EPU is powering the compressor and
     both evaporators in AUTO on a hot day before
     engine start. The pilot is concerned that no cool
     air is venting the crew overhead WEMACs
     when the AFT evaporator fan switch is in HI
     or LOW:

     1. AThis is normal
     2. BThe flood-cooling door spring-loads to the
        flood cool (open) position without 23 psi
        service air.
     3. CWith any engine running, 23 psi service
        air will close the flood-cooling doors, thus
        sending all aft evaporator cooling air to the
        overhead WEMACs.
     4. DAll of the above.
106. 106Pressurization of the airplane is normally
     maintained by:

     1. AControlling the amount of air entering the
        cabin
     2. BControlling the amount of air escaping the
        cabin
     3. CModulating the temperature of the cabin
        temperature controller
     4. DManipulating the throttles
107. 107The normal outflow valve control modes are:

     1. AGround taxi mode
     2. BPrepressurization mode
     3. CFlight mode
     4. DAll of the above
108. 108Both throttles are advanced above 85% N2 on
     the ground. The outflow valves slowly close,
     driving cabin pressure 200 feet below field
     altitude. This is the:

     1. AFlight mode
     2. BGround mode
     3. CPrepressurization mode
     4. DNone of the above
109. 109What OPENS the two outflow valves to climb
     the cabin?

     1. AAUTO uses the digital cabin pressure
        controller to meter ejector vacuum to the
        climb solenoid of the primary valve
     2. BThe CABIN DUMP switch sends DC
        power to the climb solenoid and the cabin
        rises to the 13,000 feet cabin altitude limit
        valve
     3. CWith the MANUAL switch selection and
        using the red knob to manually meter
        ambient low pressure air to the secondary
        valve
     4. DAll of the above
110. 110What CLOSES the two outflow valves to dive
     the cabin?

     1. AAUTO uses digital cabin pressure controller
        to meter 23 psi service air pressure to
        close the primary valve
     2. BIn the MANUAL switch position, using
        the red knob to manually meter cabin pressurized
        air to the secondary valve
     3. CNone of the above
     4. DA and B above
111. 111If control vacuum becomes excessive inflight,
     cabin altitude:

     1. AExplosively decompresses to cruise
        altitude
     2. BStays where it is
     3. CRises to the maximum altitude limit valve
        setting of 13,000 feet, where cabin pressure
        enters the valve reducing vacuum
        effect and the cabin levels at 13,000 feet
     4. DDecreases to a value as determined by
        the maximum differential pressure valve
        setting
112. 112The normal mode for controlling cabin pressure
     is the:

     1. AAUTO mode
     2. BMANUAL mode
     3. CIsobaric mode
     4. DNone of the above
113. 113The source of bleed air for cabin pressurization
     when the EMERG PRESS ON light is
     illuminated inflight is:

     1. A. Vapor-cycle air
     2. BRight engine
     3. C. Either or both engines
     4. DPylon ram air
114. 114The source of bleed air for cabin pressurization
     when the EMERG PRESS ON light is
     illuminated is:

     1. AFreon
     2. B120°F bleed air from the windshield antiice
        bleed-air shutoff valve and 6 ppm flow
        from the EMER valve
     3. CLH and RH bleed-air shutoff valves
     4. DPylon ram air
115. 115The DC-powered pressure controller modes
     are:

     1. AIsobaric mode
     2. BAUTO mode
     3. CMANUAL mode
     4. DA and B above
116. 116. If the air data sensor/computer fails inflight:

     1. AThe controller amber light illuminates and
        CA switches to FL Isobaric mode.
     2. BIt remains in the CA AUTO mode.
     3. C. Only manual control remains.
     4. D. It automatically switches to the EXER
        mode.
117. 117During taxi out, the controller is set to:

     1. ADestination field elevation plus 200 feet in
        the CA mode
     2. BCruise plus 1,000 feet in the FL mode
     3. CField pressure altitude plus 500 feet
     4. D300 to 500 fpm on the cabin rate-of-climb
        control
118. 118The controller on the panel continuously generates
     an AUTO-SCHEDULE while in flight,
     based on:

     1. ADeparture field elevation, the maximum
        altitude reached, and pilot input of destination
        field elevation plus 200 feet
     2. BInformation inputs made in MANUAL
        using red knob
     3. CCabin always at maximum differential
        pressure
     4. DDeparture field elevation only
119. 119On the ground with either engine operating
     below 85% N2:

     1. AOnly the primary outflow valve opens.
     2. BNeither outflow will open.
     3. CBoth outflow valves are open
     4. D. Only the secondary outflow valve ope
120. 120The hydraulic system bypass valve is:

     1. ASpring-loaded closed
     2. BSpring-loaded open
     3. CEnergizes closed
     4. DBoth B and C
121. 121Depressing an ENG FIRE switchlight:

     1. AShuts off hydraulic fluid to the pump
     2. BTrips the generator field relay
     3. CArms the fire-extinguishing system
     4. DAll of the above
122. 122Closing of a hydraulic valve is indicated by:
     

     1. AA warning horn
     2. BIllumination of the applicable F/W SHUTOFF
        annunciator if the fuel firewall shutoff
        valve also closes
     3. CIllumination of the HYD PRESS ON
        annunciator
     4. DNone of the above
123. 123. If DC power is lost, the system bypass valve:

     1. ASpring-loads to the closed position
     2. BMotorizes open
     3. CSpring-loads to the open position
     4. DNone of the above
124. 124The hydraulic system provides pressure to
     operate the:

     1. ALanding gear, speedbrakes, flaps, and
        thrust attenuators
     2. BLanding gear and speedbrakes only (all
        airplanes)
     3. CAntiskid brakes, landing gear, and flaps
     4. DSpeedbrakes, landing gear, and wheel
        brakes
125. 125Access to the hydraulic reservoir sight glass
     is:

     1. A. In the right forward baggage compartment
     2. BOn the copilot’s instrument panel
     3. CAhead of the tail cone baggage
        compartment
     4. DUnder a door behind the right flap under
        right engine
126. 126The hydraulic system:

     1. AUses only red MIL-H-83282 fluid
     2. BHas a reservoir capacity of 2 liters (125
        in.3)
     3. CIs limited to 1,500 psi when loaded
     4. DAll of the above
127. 127Hydraulic system operation is indicated by
     illumination of the:

     1. AHYD LEVEL LO annunciator
     2. BHYD PRESS ON annunciator (1,500 psi)
     3. CLH or RH HYD LEVEL LO annunciator
     4. DLH or RH HYD FLOW LOW annunciator
128. 128A hydraulic leak may be detected by:

     1. A. Visible red fluid observed during pre- or
        post-flight walkaround
     2. BMay be a possibility if both HYD FLOW
        LOW lights illuminate
     3. C. Below ADD on the sight gage
     4. DAll of the above
129. 129The MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate:

     1. AIf inflight and unlocked
     2. BIf inflight with STOW selected and flaps
        beyond 15° (normally AUTO for landing)
     3. CDuring taxi with STOW selected and
        either throttle above 85% N2 (normally
        AUTO for takeof
     4. DAll of the above
130. 130On the ground, the LDG GEAR handle is prevented
     from movement to the UP position by:

     1. AMechanical detents
     2. BA spring-loaded locking solenoid
     3. CHydraulic pressure
     4. DA manually applied handle locking device
131. 131. The landing gear uplocks are:

     1. AMechanically held engaged by springs
     2. BHydraulically disengaged
     3. CPneumatically engaged
     4. DBoth A and B
132. 132Landing gear downlocks are disengaged:

     1. AWhen hydraulic pressure is applied to the
        retract side of the gear actuators
     2. BBy action of the gear squat switches
     3. CBy removing the external down-lock pins
     4. DBy mechanical linkage as the gear begins
        to retract
133. 133Each main gear wheel incorporates a fusible
     plug that:

     1. ABlows out if the tire is overserviced with
        air
     2. BMelts, deflating the tire if an over-heated
        brake temperature occurs
     3. C. Is thrown out by centrifugal force if maximum
        wheel speed is exceeded
     4. DNone of the above
134. 134At retraction, if the nose gear does not lock in
     the up position, the gear panel light indication
     will be:

     1. A. Red light on, green LH and RH lights on
     2. BRed light out, green LH and RH lights on
     3. CRed light on, all three green lights out
     4. D. All four lights out
135. 135The gear warning horn cannot be silenced
     when one or more gears are not down-andlocked
     and:

     1. AFlaps are extended beyond the 15°
        position.
     2. BAirspeed is less than 130 KIAS
     3. CEither throttle is retarded below 85% N2
        rpm
     4. D. Both throttles are retarded below 85% N2
        rpm
136. 136When the LDG GEAR handle is positioned
     either UP or DOWN:

     1. AThe hydraulic bypass valve is energized
        open.
     2. BThe hydraulic bypass valve is energized
        closed.
     3. CThe bypass valve is not affected.
     4. DThe HYD PRESS ON annunciator light
        goes out.
137. 137Emergency extension of the landing gear is
     accomplished by actuation of:

     1. AA switch for uplock release and application
        of air pressure
     2. BOne manual control to release the uplocks
        and apply air pressure for extension
     3. CTwo manual controls—one to mechanically
        release the uplocks and another to
        apply air pressure for gear extension and
        downlocking
     4. DNone of the above
138. 138Nosewheel steering is operative:

     1. AOnly on the ground
     2. BWith the gear extended or retracted
     3. CWith the gear extended, in flight or on the
        ground
     4. DNone of the above
139. 139The powerbrake valve is actuated:

     1. AMechanically by the rudder pedals
     2. BMechanically by the emergency airbrake
        control lever
     3. CHydraulically by master cylinder pressure
     4. DAutomatically at touchdown
140. 140Do not actuate the brake pedals while applying
     brakes with the emergency brake system
     because:

     1. AAir bubbles will be induced into the brake
        fluid
     2. BThe shuttle valve may allow air pressure
        into the brake reservoir, rupturing it.
     3. CThe shuttle valve will move to the neutral
        position, and no braking action will occur.
     4. DThe brakes will be “spongy.”
141. 141The DC motor-driven hydraulic pump in the
     brake system operates:

     1. ADuring the entire time the LDG GEAR
        handle is in the DOWN position
     2. BAs needed with the LDG GEAR handle
        DOWN in order to maintain system
        pressure
     3. COnly when the PWR BRK PRESS LO
        annunciator illuminates
     4. DEven when the LDG GEAR handle is UP
        to keep air out of the system as the airplane
        climbs to altitude
142. 142When using the emergency brake:

     1. ADifferential braking is not available.
     2. BAntiskid protection is provided.
     3. CThe handle should be pumped.
     4. DNosewheel steering is inoperative.
143. 143 Concerning the landing gear, the correct statement
     is

     1. AThe red GEAR UNLOCKED light will
        illuminate and the warning horn will
        sound whenever either or both throttles
        are retarded below 85% N2 and the gear
        is up.
     2. BThe gear warning horn can be silenced
        when the gear is not down and locked and
        the flaps are extended beyond 15°.
     3. CThe landing gear pins must be inserted on
        the ground due to loss of hydraulic pressure
        as the engines are shut down.
     4. DThe landing gear is secured in the extended
        position by mechanical locks.
144. 144Concerning landing gear auxiliary extension,
     the correct statement is:

     1. AIf three green lights are observed after
        yawing the airplane, it is not necessary to
        use the pneumatic bottle.
     2. BThe optimum airspeed for this procedure
        is 150 KIAS.
     3. CThe LDG GEAR handle is placed in
        the DOWN position to release the gear
        uplocks in order to allow the red T-handle
        to release the doors
     4. DAfter the gear is extended by this procedure,
        it can be retracted in flight if the
        hydraulic system is returned to normal
        operation.
145. 145The wheel brakes:

     1. AWill be inoperative with a HYD LOW
        LEVEL light illuminate
     2. BMust be applied with the emergency
        system if a HYD LOW LEVEL light is
        illuminated
     3. CUse a different type of approved fluid from
        that used by the airplane hydraulic system
     4. DAre totally independent of the open center
        airplane hydraulic system
146. 146When the emergency brakes are used:

     1. AThe EMER BRAKE PULL lever should
        be pumped in order to build up sufficient
        pressure to stop the airplane.
     2. BThe normal toe brakes must also be applied
        to allow the bottle pressure to reach the
        brakes.
     3. CDifferential braking is not available
     4. DBraking action will be insufficient if the
        gear has been extended pneumatically,
        since that process will exhaust the bottle
        pressure.
147. 147The parking brake:

     1. AMay be set immediately after a maximum
        braking effort due to the modulation of the
        antiskid system
     2. B. Will still be operable if the emergency
        brakes have to be utilized
     3. CMust be off to ensure proper operation of
        the antiskid system
     4. D. Has thermal relief valves to prevent the
        fusible plugs in the tire from melting
148. 148 The HYD PRESS ON light remains illumi
     -
     nated after the landing gear is up and locked.
     The corrective action is to:

     1. AExtend the gear, and leave it down for the
        remainder of the flight
     2. BPull the hydraulic pump CB to prevent
        system damage.
     3. CPull the GEAR CONTROL CB to allow
        the system bypass valve to open.
     4. DDo nothing. The landing gear are held
        in the retracted position by hydraulic
        pressure.
149. 149Which is the incorrect statement?

     1. AWhen the landing gear are extended out
        -
        side the OM, powerbrake and antiskid are
        inoperative.
     2. BThere is no powerbrake or antiskid until
        the main wheels touch down and spin up
        and the squat switch(es) go to ground.
     3. CTo defeat touchdown protection, pull the
        skid control CB.
     4. DTo defeat antiskid protection, pull the skid
        control CB.
150. 150The ailerons are operated by:

     1. AHydraulic pressure
     2. BMechanical inputs from the control wheels
     3. CA fly-by-wire system
     4. DAn active control system that totally eliminates
        adverse yaw
151. 151The aileron trim tab is operated by:

     1. AAn electrically operated trim tab motor
     2. BA hydraulically operated trim tab motor
     3. CA mechanical trim knob on the throttle
        control quadrant
     4. DChanging the angle of the aileron “fence”
152. 152Regarding the rudder:
     

     1. AThe pilot’s and copilot’s pedals are
        interconnected.
     2. BThe trim tab actuator is powered only
        electrically.
     3. CThe servo is connected to the air data computer
        to restrict rudder pedal deflection at
        high airspeeds.
     4. DIt is independent of the nose-wheel steering
        on the ground.
153. 153The elevator:

     1. A. Trim tabs are controlled only electrically.
     2. BRunaway trim condition can be alleviated
        by depressing the AP/TRIM DISC
        switch and pulling the PITCH TRIM circuit
        breaker
     3. CElectric pitch trim has both high speed and
        low speed positions.
     4. DTrim tab is located on the right elevator
        only.
154. 154If hydraulic power is lost:

     1. AThe flaps will be inoperative
     2. BThe flaps will operate with the backup
        electrical system, but will extend and
        retract at a reduced rate
     3. CThere is no effect on wing flap operation
     4. DA split flap condition could result if the
        flaps are lowered.
155. 155The wing flaps:

     1. A. Can be preselected to only four positions
        (up, 15°, 35°, 60°)
     2. BDepend on both actuators to function to
        prevent a split flap condition
     3. CCan be lowered manually if electrical
        power is lost, but only if all hydraulic fluid
        has not been lost
     4. DCan be selected to GROUND FLAP position
        on the ground or inflight; the ground
        flap selection is prohibited in flight
156. 156Regarding the gust lock:
     

     1. AThe engines may be started with it
        engaged.
     2. BThe airplane should not be towed with it
        engaged.
     3. CIt may be engaged for towing
     4. DIf the airplane is towed past the 60° limit,
        nosewheel steering may be lost. It is still
        permissible to fly the airplane if the gear
        is left down.
157. 157Moving the flap selector lever to any position:

     1. AEnergizes the hydraulic system bypass
        valve closed
     2. BEnergizes the flap solenoid valve to the
        selected position
     3. CA and B
     4. D. Energizes the electric hydraulic pump for
        flap operation
158. 158If hydraulic failure occurs with the flaps
     extended and the FLAPS handle is moved,
     the flaps:

     1. AMay move upward depending on air-load
     2. BCannot be fully retracted
     3. CCan be retracted to the midrange position
     4. DCan be completely retracted
159. 159Extended speedbrakes are maintained in that
     position by:

     1. AHydraulic pressure
     2. BTrapped fluid in the lines from the control
        and safety valves
     3. CInternal locks in the actuators
     4. DExternal locks on the actuators
160. 160The white HYD PRESS ON light on the annunciator
     panel will illuminate during speedbrake
     operation:

     1. AWhen the speedbrakes are fully extended
     2. BWhile the speedbrakes are extending and
        retracting
     3. CBoth A and B
     4. DNeither A nor B
161. 161A true statement concerning the speedbrake
     is:

     1. AThe white SPD BRK EXTEND light will
        illuminate when both sets of speedbrakes
        are fully extended.
     2. BIf DC electrical failure occurs while
        the speedbrakes are extended, they will
        remain extended since the hydraulic pressure
        is trapped on the extend side of the
        actuators.
     3. CIf hydraulic pressure loss should occur
        while the speedbrakes are extended (system
        bypass valve fails open), the speedbrakes
        will automatically blow to trail.
     4. DThe speedbrakes can only be retracted
        by placing the speedbrake switch to
        RETRACT.
162. 162Speed brakes must not be extended within:

     1. A50 feet on landing
     2. B110 feet on landing
     3. C40 meters
     4. D50 meters
163. 163The speedbrakes will fully retract if:

     1. AA complete electrical failure occurs
     2. BA hydraulic failure occurs
     3. CEither throttle is advanced above 85% N2
        position with the electrical and hydraulic
        systems operating normally
     4. DHydraulic quantity drops below 0.2 gallons
164. 164The cockpit oxygen pressure gage reads:

     1. AThe oxygen pressure which is present at
        the crew masks
     2. BElectrically derived system low pressure
     3. CBottle pressure
     4. DElectrically derived system high pressure
165. 165Passenger masks are dropped when:
     

     1. AThe OXYGEN selector is in NORMAL
        and cabin altitude exceeds 13,500 feet
     2. BThe cabin altitude exceeds 13,500 feet,
        regardless of OXYGEN selector position
     3. CThe OXYGEN selector is in MANUAL
        DROP, regardless of altitude.
     4. DBoth A and C
166. 166If DC power fails, placing the OXYGEN selector
     in:

     1. AMANUAL DROP deploys the passenger
        masks, regardless of the cabin altitude.
     2. BMANUAL DROP deploys the passenger
        masks only if 13,500 feet cabin altitude is
        exceeded.
     3. CCREW ONLY does not restrict oxygen to
        the crew only if the cabin altitude is above
        13,500 feet.
     4. DAny of the three operating positions will
        not route oxygen to the passengers—they
        have their own oxygen.
167. 167The purpose of the altitude pressure switch is
     to:

     1. ABypass oxygen flow directly to the passengers
        regardless of OXYGEN selector
        position.
     2. BOpen a solenoid at 13,500 feet cabin altitude,
        allowing oxygen flow to the passenger
        oxygen distribution system
     3. CClose a solenoid valve at 13,500 feet
        cabin altitude, stopping oxygen flow to
        the passengers.
     4. DRestore cabin altitude to 8,000 feet so that
        oxygen is not required.
168. 168. If the oxygen selector is placed in CREW
     ONLY:

     1. AThe passenger masks cannot be dropped
        automatically.
     2. BThe passenger masks will not deploy automatically,
        but they can still be dropped
        manually.
     3. CThe passengers will still receive oxygen if
        the cabin altitude is above 8,000 feet.
     4. DD. Normal DC power is removed from the
        passenger mask door actuators, thus preventing
        them from dropping the masks.
169. 169. If normal DC power is lost with the oxygen
     selector in NORMAL:

     1. AThe passenger masks will deploy immediately,
        regardless of the cabin altitude.
     2. BThe passenger masks cannot be dropped
        manually.
     3. CThe oxygen pressure gage on the copilot’s
        panel will be inoperative.
     4. DAutomatic dropping of the passenger
        masks will not occur.

Descripción

Test en Citation CJ1, creado por Iván Rial Castro en 30/10/2018.

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Iván Rial Castro

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