Test
Project Management Final
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Preguntas del test (198)
1You are the Project Manager for a large construction project. While reviewing the expenditures, you realize that you are 20% over budget. What process group are you working in?
- AClosure
- BExecution
- CPlanning
- DMonitor & Control
2What is the main benefit of a balanced matrix organization over a projectized organizational structure?
- AAs a Project Manager, you have a great deal of authority
- BMore efficient use of resources
- CReporting to a functional manager
- DReporting to 2 Managers
3As the Sponsor on a large, multi-national hydroelectric power project, during the execution phase, your primary responsibilities are to:
- AProvide the financial resources and champion the project
- BManage a group of interrelated projects
- CManage the Project Team
- DProvide status updates to the customer
4Name the 5 project management process groups.
- AInitiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Control, Closing
- BPlanning, Executing, Monitoring, Integrated Change, Closing
- CBusiness Case, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Control, Closing
5You are hired to manage an exciting new project for a software development company making CRM tools. You are unfamiliar with the project management resources available in the company. Who should you go to for help identifying the resources and best practices?
- AProject Sponsor
- BOperations Manager
- COther Project Managers
- DProject Management Office
6As you progress through the project life cycle:
- ARisk increases and cost of changes increases
- BCost of changes decreases and risk increases
- CRisk decreases and cost of changes increases
- DCost of changes decreases and risk decreases
7The purpose of the Closer Process Group is:
- AComplete the work as quickly as possible
- BAnalyze the project risks at the end of the project
- CInspect the outputs to ensure the quality is as planned
- DFormally complete the project
8In the Statement Of Work, you provide:
- AProject charter
- BMarket demand analysis
- CChange control tools you will use
- DScope description
9The output of the Develop Project Charter process is:
- AProject charter
- BProject Management Plan
- CWork performance data
- DBusiness case
10According to the PMBOK all the following are types of project constraints except:
- AScope
- BPortfolio Alignment
- CRisks
- DSchedule
11You are the Project Manager for a project that will design and build the iPhone X, the latest in mobile phone technology. The requirements call for a new production facility in Asia. Immediately after working with Senior Management to create a business case and statement of work for the new production facility, what document will you want to produce?
- AProject document updates
- BLessons learned
- CProject plan
- DProject charter
12The ideal Project Team size is?
- A10-15
- B3-6, 6-9
13Your project has been officially approved by your sponsor, what process group will you move from and which process group will you move to?
- APlanning to execution
- BInitiation to execution
- CPlanning to initiation
- DInitiation to planning
14All the following are examples of expert judgement except:
- APMO
- BTech manuals
- CPM information system
- DProfessional associations
15In Project Integration Management, as you develop the Project Management Plan, you will:
- ADirect and manage the planning of work defined in the Project Charter and implement to achieve the project’s objectives
- BProvide the project schedule which is derived from progress against the schedule baseline.
- CValidate plans and changes from Perform Integrated Change Control and ensure that the changes are appropriately executed
- DDefine, prepare, and coordinate all subsidiary plans and integrate them into a comprehensive plan.
16The process group where you will identify if any changes to the plan are needed and initiate those plans is:
- AMonitoring and control
- BExecuting
- CPlanning
- DInitiating
17The organizational structure that gives project managers a very high degree of authority over their project is:
- AFunctional
- BProjectized
- CWeak matrix
- DStrong matrix
18The largest portion of the projects budget will be expended in what process group?
- APlanning
- BExecution
- CClosing
- DMonitoring and control
19All of the following are examples of Enterprise Environmental Factors EXCEPT:
- AEstablished communication channels
- BOrganizational culture
- CProject management information system
- DProject charter
20The leader of the project is working on completing a database upgrade but cannot get the additional resources she needs to be able to complete the project. The rest of the project team is working on daily operations work. The leader has not been given the authority to put additional resources on the project. What is the organizational structure this team is working in?
- AProject team
- BStrong matrix
- CProjectized
- DFunctional
21Portfolio management refers to:
- AApplying resource-leveling heuristics across all the organization's projects to achieve the organization's strategic objectives.
- BManaging the levels of functional authority to facilitate project decision making.
- CManaging various contents of the project file
- DThe centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.
22A project has all of the following characteristics except:
- AShort duration
- BUnique
- CTemporary endeavor
- DSpecific end
23A program is:
- AProject over 1$ mill
- BGroup of related projects, subprograms & program activities managed in a coordinated way.
- CSequence of steps constituting a project
- DGroup of related tasks lasting one year or less
24The project manager has the lowest level of authority in this type of organization:
- AProjectized
- BWeak matrix
- CStrong matrix
- DFunctional
25Project Management Process Groups are:
- AGenearlly, discrete, one-time events
- BOverlapping activities that occur throughout the project
- COverlapping activities that generally occur at the same level of intensity within each phase of the project.
- DDiscrete, repetative events that occur generally at the same level of intensity throughout each phase of the project.
26Decomposition is:
- ACreating subproject to ensure scope
- BOrganizing and defining the complete scope
- CSubdividing project scope & deliverables into more manageable components
- DDocuments planning assumptions
27You are exactly half way through a construction project when the customer insists that you add a third entry way. What process will you need to follow to make the updates?
- AValidate scope
- BBrainstorming
- CControl scope
- DCollect requirements
28What process group determines how the scope is defined?
- ACreate WBS
- BControl scope
- CPlan scope management
- DDefine scope
29Requirements must be:
- AA component of change control
- BA validated for conformity as part of the project scope statement
- CAn out put of the Validate Scope process
- DMeasureable
30All of the following are tools for collecting requirements EXCEPT:
- AFocus groups
- BObservations
- CInterviews
- DQuality assurance
31The process that documents stakeholder needs to meet the projects objectives are:
- ADecomposition
- BWBS
- CValidate scope
- DCollect requirements
32Acceptance Criteria is:
- APart of the lessons learned
- BUnique & verifiable product, result or capability for a product
- CA set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.
- DGiven by the PMO
33The project scope statement is:
- ADetermining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements.
- BSet of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.
- CThe features and functions that characterize a project.
- DDescription of the project, major deliverables, assumptions and constraints
34The WBS is:
- AProject schedule components organized by work package
- BWork breakdown system
- CProject document updates
- Da hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team
35The lowest level of WBS components are:
- AQuality requirements
- BAcceptance criteria
- CWBS dictionary
- DWork packages
36The project scope statement includes all of the following except:
- AScope baseline
- BScope description
- CDeliverable
- DAcceptance criteria
37One of the outputs for the validate scope process is:
- AAcceptance criteria
- BResources required
- CDescription of work
- DAccepted deliverables
38Which of the following provides more detailed information?
- AScope statement
- BScope baseline
- CWBS
- DWBS dictionary
39You are the leader of the Project Management Office for your company. One day, an experienced Project Manager asks why he should go to the trouble of creating a Work Breakdown Structure for his new project. The best answer would be:
- AIt is optional
- BIt is a legal requirement for external projects
- CIt will help you organize project deliverables & work
- DIt helps to verify project quality
40What is the purpose of the validate scope process?
- ACollect requirements for the project
- BMake needed changes to the project charter
- CAcceptance of the project deliverables
- DCreate WBS
41Create WBS is in which process group?
- AExecution
- BMonitoring & control
- CInitiation
- DPlanning
42Gold plating is:
- ADecreasing risk by providing project safeguards
- BChanging requirements to improve the project
- CGiving a customer more than they want
- DTaking features away to keep costs down
43Project scope is:
- AMaking sure there is no gold plating in the project
- BThe value created by completing a project under budget and on schedule
- CDetermining, documenting & managing stakeholder needs and requirements
- DWork performed to deliver a product, service or results with specified features and functions
44What is the WBS typically used for?
- ADefines the stakeholder list
- BIdentifies the logical person to be the sponsor
- CDefines the level of reporting that the seller provides the buyer
- DOrganizes & defines the work elements required to create the required deliverables
45Which of the following processes is not an output of the control scope process?
- AWork performance information
- BChange requests
- CProject document updates
- DAccepted deliverables
46You are managing a global project that involves stakeholders and several international locations. You are likely to consult the WBS dictionary to find:
- AStrengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of key stakeholders and their impact upon the WBS.
- BDetail deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the WBS.
- CAccepted deliverables
- DHigh level task information for the schedule management plan
47The following is an example of a constraint associated with the project scope that limits the team's options and scope definition:
- AThreat of a strike
- BQuality of analysis
- CPredefined budget or any imposed dates/schedule milestones that are issued by the customer or performing organization.
- DExisting relationships with sellers, suppliers, or others in the supply chain
48An output of the define scope process is:
- AWBS
- BScope & schedule delays control plan
- CProject scope statement
- DResource breakdown structure
49The difference between the Project Charter and the Project Scope Statement is:
- AThe Project Scope Statement lists high level technical requirements and regulatory constraints.
- BThe Project Scope Statement provides a high level description of scope elements.
- CThe Project Charter provides a high level description of scope elements.
- DThe Project Charter lists project deliverables in smaller, more manageable components.
50Control scope:
- AUpdates the WBS dictionary to ensure all tasks are accounted for
- BEnsures risks are mitigated
- CPlans how to determine scope
- DManages changes to the scope baseline
51Plan schedule management is:
- AIdentifying and documenting logical relationships among project activities.
- BAnalyzing activity sequences to create the project schedule baseline.
- CMonitoring the status of project activities to ensure they are performing to expected specifications in regards to project constraints.
- DEstablishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule.
52The duration of a milestone is:
- A0 days
- B1 days
- C10 days
53What is the best tool for determining the overall length of a project?
- AWBS
- BPrecedence diagram
- CExpert judgement
- DPie chart
54The critical path is:
- AThe shortest sequence duration
- BThe sequence of activities that are determined to be key activities for successful project execution
- CThe path with the highest number of activities
- DThe shortest amount of time you can get the project done in
55The maximum amount of slack in the critical path is:
- A+1
- B-1
- C0
56The Critical Path has a duration of 10. There is an independent sequence, XYZ. Activity X has a duration of 2. Activity Y has a duration of 3. Activity Z has duration of 2. The EAC is 4000. The total float of XYZ is:
- A0
- B3
57To complete your project on time, you ask for additional overtime for your project team. This is an example of:
- AFast tracking
- BCrashing
- CCritical chain
- DSchedule network analysis
58Lag is:
- AThe time an activity will start sooner than its dependency
- BDetermined by the critical chain
- CThe time when an activity is dependent on another activity to start at the same time
- DThe time an activity will start later than its dependency
59You ask your construction manager how long it will take to complete the new server room. He gives you a likely estimate of 6 weeks, but says it may take as long as 10 weeks. He may be able to get it done in 4 weeks if everything goes well. Calculate your PERT estimate of how long it will take to complete the server room.
- A20 weeks
- B6.3 weeks
- C6 weeks
- D4.6 weeks
60The method where buffers are added to each activity to account for resource availability is:
- ACritical path
- BResource leveling
- CCritical chain
- DCrashing
61A benefit of bottom-up estimating is:
- ADetermines resources need to schedule the project
- BAbility to automate your estimate
- CAllows for what-if analysis
- DA more accurate estimate
62One of the outputs of the Develop Schedule process group that helps create the Project Management plan is:
- ASequence activities
- BWork package acceptance criteria
- CSchedule baseline
- DScope baseline
63The minimum project duration is 6 months. Another path, series ABCD, will take 4 months to complete. In addition, series EFG will take 2 months. How much float is in ABCD?
- A4 months
- B0 months
- C2 months
- D12 months
64Which of the following allows you to accomplish tasks in parallel when they normally would be done in sequence?
- AFast tracking
- BCritical chain
- CResource leveling
- DCrashing
65Analogous estimating is a technique for estimating the duration or cost of an activity or project using historical data from a similar activity or project. What is the disadvantage of this technique?
- AMore costly
- BTakes more time
- CRequires using PERT
- DLess accurate
66Your project will run through the summer when your employees generally take vacation. To account for the risk of lower resource availability in your project plan, you could use:
- ACritical chain
- BCrashing
- CResource leveling
- DFast tracking
67 You need Activity A in your project plan to start 3 days before Activity B. Activity B would be called:
- ALag
- BLead
- CCritical chain
68You are creating the Schedule Baseline for a multi-national government pipeline project that will deliver oil faster and cheaper. You need to know how long it will take to build the new capacity. Who would you consult to determine the time required?
- AGovernment experts
- BProject sponsor
- CScrum master
- DThe people that will be doing the work
69An example of a finish to finish relationship is:
- ARocket fuel tanks that must be filled prior to launch
- BA dinner cruise that sells tickets up until departure
- CDinner when all of the food is ready at the same time
- DDrag racing
70Parametric estimating:
- AAccounts for risk
- BIs where an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data
- CFocuses on planning at a daily activity level
71In rolling wave planning:
- AFocus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near-term objectives to be rolled out as part of the ongoing wave of activities.
- BThe work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, the work in the more distant future is planned at a higher level.
72Analogous duration estimating is:
- AFrequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project
- BA bottom up estimating technique
- CBased on multiple duration estimating
- DGenerally more accurate than other duration estimating methods when expert judgement is used
73To enter logical dependencies in MS project you enter the dependency in which column:
- APredecessor
- BResource
- CLinkages
- DCritical chain
74Outputs from the Estimate Activity Resources process include:
- AActivity resource requirements
- BSalary schedules for various project human resources
- CRisk register
- DActivity list
75An example of a mandatory dependency is:
- AA dependency established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area
- BA dependency established based on some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired
- COn a construction project, to erect the superstructure only after the foundation has been built.
- DOn a software development project, to start design only after completion and approval of all project requirements.
76Earned Value is:
- AActual cost of work scheduled
- BAC / % Complete
- CMeasure of work expressed in terms of budget authorized for that work
77A SPI is 1.4 - your project is?
- AAhead of schedule
- BOver budget
- CUnder budget
78You are 1 month into your project. You need to determine how much your project will cost when it is done. What Earned Value metric will you use to determine the cost?
- ABAC
- BEAC
79Project XYZ has a Schedule Variance of -500. That means that:
- AThe SPI is 500
- BYour project is behind schedule
80Your EAC is 4000. The PV is 1000. The AC is 400. What is the ETC?
- A-10
- B10
- C2600
- D3600
81All of the following are processes included in Project Cost Management except:
- ADetermine budget
- BEstimate activity resources
- CEstimate costs
- DControl costs
82Planned value is:
- AActual cost of work
- BRealized cost of work
- CAuthorized budget assigned to the scheduled work
- DDifference btwn earned value and actual cost
83If the earned value is 40,000, the planned value is 50,000, and the actual cost is 45,000, what is the cost performance index?
- A1.13
- B.88
- C1.27
84In class, we discussed that in Initiation, a Rough Order of Magnitude estimate should be within what percent?
- A+ - 25%
- B+ - 3%
- C+ - 50%
85Your project is behind schedule and over budget. When calculating the project’s CPI, you will get:
- Anumber greater than 1
- Bnumber less than 1
86What metric will show how efficiently the project team is using time?
- APV
- BSPI
- CCPI
- DSV
87The output of the determine budget process is:
- ASchedule
- BCost forecasts
- CCost management plan
- DCost baseline
88During a project, earned value analysis is performed. You get the following numbers:
EV = 50,000 PV = 60,000 AC = 75,000
What are the correct results?- ACV = -25000 SV = -10000
- BCV 10000 SV= -15000
89There are 4 activities in your project. Activity A has a planned value of 20,000. Activity B has a planned value of 30,000. Activity C has a planned value of 10,000. Activity D has a planned value of 40,000. What is the BAC?
- A25000
- B37000
- C12500
- D100000
90Determine the variance at completion with the following information:
SV = -50,000
Estimate at completion = 100,000
Budget at completion = 200,000- A50000
- B10000
- C2
- D1.5
91Direct costs are:
- ADirectly related to the project and can be controlled
- BIncluded in overhead costs
- CExcluded from the project budget
- DPart of activity cost estimates
92Which of the following processes do not belong to the Project Cost Management process group?
- APlan cost management
- BControl cost
- CDetermine budget
- DContingency reserve
93Cost estimation of individual work packages or activities is called:
- ABottom-up estimating
- BAnalogous estimating
- CThree point estimation
- DExpert judgement
94The output of determine budget is:
- ACost management plan
- BActivity cost estimate
- CCost baseline
95The earned value calculations for your project are:
BAC = 10,000 EAC = 5,000 ETC = 4,000
What is the VAC and will you be over or under budget?- A6000 and over budget
- B5000 and over budget
- C1000 and over budget
- D6000 and under budget
96Parametric estimating involves:
- ADefining cost or duration parameters of the project lifecycle
- BCalculating the individual cost estimates or each work package & integrating them to obtain the total cost of the project
- CUsing statistical relationship between relevant historical data and other variables to calculate a cost estimate for project work
97The EAC is based on:
- AThe actual costs incurred for work completed (AC) and the estimate to complete (ETC) the remaining work
- BThe EV and the actual cost for work completed CV
- CThe cost performance index (CPI) and the cost of variance (CV).
98Earned value management (EVM) is a commonly used:
- AAnalysis of the value of the equipment that has been installed in the project as of the status to date.
- BAnalysis of the sum of the labor costs, which have been incurred on the project to date.
- CMethod to assess performance management and progress for projects.
- DMethod of measuring the amount of money that has been spent on the project to date.
99You're earned value management analysis indicates that your project is falling behind its baseline schedule. You know this because the cumulative EV is much:
- AHigher than the AC
- BHigher than the PV
- CLower than the PV
- DLower than the CPI
100Item PV AC EV
1 10,000 11,000 10,000
2 9,000 8,000 7,000
3 8,000 8,000 8,000
4 7,000 7,000 5,000- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
101Plan quality management is:
- AProcess of identifying quality requirements
- BPlanning the cost of precision measurement
- CIdentifying project grade
- DAuditing the quality requirements and results
102What would be the least effective tool or method to reduce quality cost?
- AStatistical sampling
- BInspection
- CNominal group technique
- DControl charts
103Quality is:
- AMeasure of exactness
- BAssessment of correctness
- CDegree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements
104The 3 quality processes in project quality management are:
- ADetermine quality, monitor quality, plan quality
- BCost benefit analysis, cost of quality, cost of conformance
- CPlan quality management, control quality, perform quality assurance
105The Ishikawa Diagram tool is used to:
- AGather info on the frequency of poor quality
- BHelp identify the actionable root cause of the problem
- CDescribe the central tendency of a process
- DShow if a process is stable and predictable
106Grade is:
- AMeasure of exactness
- BMeasure of correctness
- CCategorization of deliverables having the same functional use but different technical characteristics
107The cost of quality includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- APrevention costs
- BReturns
- CRaw materials
- DCustomer service
108The quality management plan is an output of which process:
- AProject quality management
- BPlan quality management
- CControl quality
109Increased prevention costs should result in:
- AIncreased frequency of external failures
- BHigh internal failure costs
- CDecreased internal and external failure costs
110Pareto diagrams:
- AAre used to gather attributes data while performing inspections
- BIdentify the vital few sources that are responsible for causing the most problems
- CAre used to monitor cost and schedule variances
111Perform quality assurance is:
- AThe processes and activities that will determine quality policies, objectives & responsibilities
- BAuditing the quality requirements and results from quality control measurements
- CProcess of determining project grade
112Scatter diagrams:
- AShow forces for and against change
- BMap operational details of procedures
- CSeek to explain changes in variable Y in relation to changes in X
113A project manager can use a control chart to determine:
- AThe central distribution of a statistical distribution
- BIf the amount of prevention costs are increasing
- CIf a process is stable or predictable
114The results of performing the control quality process are:
- ADecreased costs
- BStable processes
- CVerified deliverables
115An example of appraisal costs is:
- ARework
- BWarranties
- CTraining
- DInspections
116The perform quality assurance process is in:
- AExecution
- BPlanning
- CMonitor & Control
117Checksheets are:
- AUsed to organize facts in a manner that will facilitate the effective collection of useful data about a potential quality problem
- BUsed to monitor cost & schedule variances
- CUsed to describe the central tendency, dispersion, and the shape of the distribution
118Degree of quality should be:
- AInspected in
- BPlanned in
- CSWOT
119Control Quality is:
- AComparing the cost of quality to the requirements
- BAchieving project objectives of scope, time & cost
- CProcess of monitoring & recording results of quality activities to asses project performance
120Understanding, evaluating, defining & managing requirements are essential to satisfying:
- ACustomer expectations
- BThe scope statement
- CUpper management
- DFunctional requirements
121The quality management plan is a component of the ________________ that describes how the organization's quality policies will be implemented.
- AWBS
- BProject scope
- CProject management plan
122The seven basic quality tools include all of the following EXCEPT:
- ACalibration graphs
- BPareto diagrams
- CControl charts
123Inspection is:
- AExamination of a work product to determine if it conforms to documented standards
- BDocumenting results of control quality activities
- CA validated deliverable required by the project
124Which of the following is true regarding precision and accuracy?
- APrecision is a measure of correctness whereas accuracy is an assessment of exactness
- BPrecision is a measure of exactness, whereas accuracy is an assessment of correctness.
125Project Human Resource Management includes the following processes:
- AAcquire project team, develop project team, HR management plan, performance assessments
- BPlan HR team, manage project team, evaluate project team, identify project roles
- CPlan HR management, acquire project team, develop project team, project team
126The human resource management plan is an output of which process:
- AAcquire project team
- BPlan HR management
- CDevelop project team
- DManage project team
127The best illustrate for your project teams reporting relationships you would use:
- AMatrix chart
- BRACI chart
- CA hierarchical chart
128Which of the following is NOT one of toucans 5 stages of team development?
- ANorming
- BStorming
- CAdjourning
- DDeveloping
129There is a critical disagreement between two of your project team members. You need to help them resolve the issue. To help them find a solution that is a win for both sides, you would use which technique for resolving conflict?
- AForce
- BWithdraw
- CCollaborate
- DSmooth
130RACI stands for?
- ARational Accountable Creative Informed
- BResponsible Actionable Creative Independent
- CResponsible Accountable Consulted Informed
131The project manager:
- APerforms the work of the project
- BThe person assigned to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives
- CThe person who provides the resources and support for the project
132A member of your team has broken one of the agreed upon ground rules, who should enforce the rule?
- APMO
- BProject Manager
- CAll project team members
- DSponsor
133The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholder’s needs, requirements, and available organizational assets is:
- AControl communications
- BPlan communications management
- CManage communications
- DDevelop communications plan
134In addition to distributing information, the Manage Communications process is also concerned with:
- AMaking sure the information has been received and understood
- BCreating the project communications plan
- CPlanning the correct channel to use to distribute the information
135For your new project, you need to produce a simple status update for your Sponsor. What information would you not want to include?
- ALessons learned
- BCurrent status
- CRisks
136As a Project Manager in a matrix environment, you do not have direct authority over your project team. However, your team likes you and enjoys working for you. You are relying on what type of influence?
- AFormal
- BReferent
- CExpert
- DReward
137What topic would likely be covered in the kick off meeting?
- AProcurement plan
- BLessons learned
- CPerformance evaluations
- DRoles and responsibilities
138Mid-way through a project, your sponsor comes to you and asks for a monthly project status report to be produced that will help the executive team understand the progress being made on the project. What process are you in now?
- APlan communications management
- BControl communications
- CCommunication models
- DManage communications
139You have a virtual team working on your project. What is a disadvantage of having a team that is not all located in the same place?
- ACannot have kick off meetings
- BOpportunity for misunderstandings
- CEasy conflict resolution
140The PMO:
- AIs a person/group that provides resources/support
- BStandardizes the project related governance
- CIs a collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables
141Your project team is beginning to work together and adjust their habits to support the team. They are beginning to trust each other more. What development stage is your team in?
- AForming
- BWithdraw
- CForcing
- DNorming
142You are creating a weekly status update, what process are you in?
- ADevelop project team
- BControl communications
- CManage communications
- DPlan communications management
143Your project team is well organized, interdependent and handles issues effectively. What stage are they in?
- ADeveloping
- BNorming
- CPerforming
144The HRMP should generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
- AStaffing management plan
- BProject interfaces
- CRoles & responsibilities
- DProject organization charts
145Techniques and considerations for effective communications management generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- AEmploying organizational process assets to reduce risk
- BFacilitation techniques for building consensus
- CListening techniques
146The acquisitions strategy for acquiring a project team consists of:
- AHiring consultants from the outside
- BObtaining resources through ranking criteria
- CAcquiring members of the team from other teams within the organization
147The Acquire Project Team is the process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities. The enterprise environmental factors that can influence this process generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
- AOrganizational structure
- BMulti-criteria decision analysis
- CCompetency levels, prior experience & cost rate.
148Generally acknowledged techniques for resolving conflict include:
- AAccept, compromise, attack & separate
- BSmooth compromise collaborate co-locate
- CAccommodate compromise force & collaborate
149Project risk is:
- AA condition that causes negative impact to the project
- BA threat to the success of the project
- CAn uncertain event that if it occurs has a positive or negative effect
150The strategy to address opportunities and seek to ensure the opportunity happens is:
- AAvoid
- BEnhance
- CExploit
151The risk register is an output of which project risk management process?
- APerforming qualitative risk analysis
- BPerform quantitative risk analysis
- CPlan risk management
- DIdentify risks
152The following process is in monitoring & control:
- APlan risk management
- BControl risks
- CPerform quant risk analysis
153Relies on anonymous feedback from experts through questionnaires and drives toward consensus
- ARoot cause analysis
- BProbability impact matrix
- CDelphi technique
- DRisk register
154The risk register should include:
- AIdentified risks & WBS number
- BIdentified risks & potential responses
- CRisk categorization & identified risks
- DIdentified risk & risk analysis
155Is used to determine the risk rating to help prioritize risks:
- ARisk categorization
- BRisk register
- CExpected monetary value analysis
- DProbability & impact matrix
156Helps compare the relative importance & impact of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty to those that are more stable:
- AExpected monetary analysis
- BTornado diagram
- CDecision tree
- DMonte carlo technique
157Uses a computer to produce many simulations using random sampling to obtain probable results distribution:
- AExpected monetary analysis
- BMonte Carlo technique
- CDecision tree diagram
- DSensitivity analysis
158You are building a skyscraper in New York City. If the project falls behind schedule, you will lose millions of dollars in fees to the city. You want to shift the financial burden of the threat of fees to a third party. What strategy should you use?
- AMitigate
- BAvoid
- CExploit
- DTransfer
159Your software project is given very good press in The Wall Street Journal. You want to make sure the chances for success are increased so you add more resources to the project. What strategy are you using?
- AShare
- BAccept
- CTransfer
- DEnhance
160Qualitative risk analysis deals with:
- ADeveloping options for risk responses
- BNumerically analyzing the effect of risks
- CPrioritizing risks
- DMonitoring residual risks
161Using Expected Monetary Value Analysis, calculate the average outcome for a project that has either a $300,000 profit and 30% chance of achieving it, or a $100,000 loss and 70% chance of having that happen.
- A160,000
- B20,000
- C400,000
- D90,000
162Process of determining options to reduce threats and enhance opportunities:
- AIdentify risks
- BControl risks
- CPlan risk response
- DPerform qualitative risk analysis
163Your Risk Register calls out several risks, including not having enough resources available to complete the software in time to ship it. You check in weekly with the developers to make sure the software will be completed in time. What process are you in?
- APlan risk management
- BControl risks
- CPlan risk response
- DIdentify risks
164When using the Delphi technique, you should:
- AHave a unanimous decision
- BEncourage brainstorming
- CNot share the responses through the entire process
- DMake sure the participants are experts
165In the plan risk responses process, an accept strategy for a negative risk or threat indicates that the project team has decided:
- ATo agree with the PM
- BTo eliminate a specific threat or risk
- CNot to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy
166As an update of the control risks process, an updated risk register generally includes some or all of the following EXCEPT:
- AThe WBS
- BActual outcomes of the projects risks
- COutcomes of risk reassessments
167To be successful, an organization should be committed to addressing risk management:
- AProactively throughout the entire project
- BAs soon as time & cost estimates are ready
- CAs early as possible in the execution phase
168The primary output of the identify risks process is the:
- ARisk register
- BRisk mitigation plan
- CList of the corrective actions
169The mitigate risk response strategy:
- AReduces the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat
- BSeeks to make sure the risk negative response happens
- CSeeks to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact
170The probability and impact risk assessment thresholds:
- AShow quantitative risk results for the project
- BAre determined by the # of threats
- CAre unique for each organization
171Sensitivity analysis helps determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. How is that info shown?
- AProbability and impact matrix
- BCost/probability chart
- CTornado diagram
172Expected monetary value (EMV) analysis has all of the following characteristics except:
- AIt is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen.
- BThe EMV of opportunities are generally expressed as positive values, whereas those of threats are expressed as negative values.
- CEMV analysis cannot be used effectively in decision tree analysis unless a risk-averse assumption is made.
173An output of perform qualitative risk analysis is:
- AProject documents updates
- BRisk management plan
- CRisk register
- DMeetings
174Identify stakeholders is a part of which process group?
- AInitiation
- BExecution
- CPlanning
175You are evaluating various bids to determine which vendor you will purchase your building materials from. What process are you in?
- APlan procurement management
- BConduct procurements
- CPlanning
176You are a Project Manager constructing a large building to store your company’s work vehicles. You know exactly what you want built. It will only take 3 weeks to build. In this case, what type of contract would you want to use?
- AHybrid
- BTime & material
- CFixed price
- DCost reimbursable
177You a working on a project that will augment the staff in grade schools by providing temporary substitute teachers for the school district. To account for fixed overhead costs and hourly wages, the best contract type would be:
- AFixed cost
- BCost reimbursable
- CTime & material
178The stakeholder register is an output of which process?
- AStakeholder analysis
- BPlan stakeholder management
- CManage stakeholder engagement
- DIdentify stakeholders
179In the Power/Interest stakeholder grid, which quadrant should you spend the most time on and provide the most attention?
- ALow p low I
- BHigh p low I
- CHigh p high I
180The stake holder register should contain at least the following:
- A Identification information, risk analysis, assessment matrix
- B Stakeholder engagement data flow diagram, risk analysis, assessment matrix
- C Identification information, assessment information, stakeholder classification
- DStakeholder management plan, stakeholder classification, risk analysis
- A Identification information, risk analysis, assessment matrix
181Lessons learned:
- ACollects project performance data
- BShows how events were addressed or should be addressed in the future with the purpose of improving future performance
- CAn event to plan organize and direct work
182If a contract has an incentive fee, financial incentives are dependent on:
- AInflation
- BLegal penalties
- CAgreed upon metrics
183During closing, you should hand off the project to:
- APMO
- BExec Sponsor
- CEnd User
- DThe group that will own or be responsible on a daily basis
184In the agile framework, individuals and interactions are valued more than:
- ADeliverables
- BMethodology
- CProcesses & tools
185You are a Project Manager for Apple and your latest project is developing the new iPhone 6Z. You need to build a solar battery that will enable the phone to go without charging for 2 weeks at a time. Critical to this project is the new chip design that requires a special assembly line to produce. This new assembly line is not a core competency of Apple. You need to decide what type of contract will work best to acquire the new chip. What procurement process are you in?
- AConduct procurements
- BIdentify stakeholders
- CPlan procurement management
186Which type of contract is the riskiest for a contractor?
- ACost plus fee
- BTime & materials
- CFirm fixed price
187The output of the conduct procurements process is:
- AProcurement management plan
- BClosed procurements
- CSigned contract agreement
- DWork performance info
188Your project Sponsor is actively engaged in your project and understands the benefits and impacts. How would you classify the Sponsor as a stakeholder?
- AResistant
- BExpert
- CLeading
189During the Closing process, you should do all of the following except
- AConduct lessons learned
- BGain approval to close
- CClassify stakeholders
190Enterprise environ factors are:
- AOutputs
- BProject management systems
- CConditions that influence or constrain
191Who represents the customer in SCRUM?
- APM
- BPT
- CProduct Owner
- DScrum master
192Procurement is:
- AAcquiring goods & services
- BReviewing contracts
- CObtaining the resources you need for the project
193The best measure for progress in agile is:
- ADesign
- BWorking software
- CTechnical excellence
194Cost plus fixed fee contracts (CPFF) have all of the following characteristics except:
- ASeller receives a fixed-fee payment calculated as the initial estimated project cost.
- BThe fee is paid only for completed work and does not change due to seller performance unless the project scope changes.
195You are involved in the process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project life cycle. This is known as:
- APlan stakeholder management
- BCommunicate with stakeholders
- CControl stakeholders
- DManage stakeholder engagement
196Manage Stakeholder Engagement involves all of the following activities except:
- AManaging stakeholder expectations through negotiation and communication
- BAvoiding potential concern that have not yet become issues
- CAnticipating future problems
- DClarifying & resolving identified issues
197Control Stakeholder Engagement tools and techniques include all of the following except:
- ABehavior modification analysis
- BExpert judgement
- CMeetings
- DInformation management systems
198Outputs from the Close Procurements Process generally include all of the following except:
- ADeliverable acceptance
- BClosed procurements
- CLessons learned
- DThe contractors working proposal
Información
- Descripción
- Test sobre Project Management Final, creado por Laura Qualey el 22/07/2015.
- Autor
- Laura Qualey
- Idioma
- English
- Visitas
- 80
- Historial
- Creado el 22 jul 2015 · actualizado el 18 ene 2017
- Valoración
- Aún sin valoraciones Valora este test