Quiz
SFPC 5
Perguntas do quiz (172)
1Which of the following statements are true?
- APhysical security systems provide the means to counter threats only during wartime.
- BPhysical security measures are a combination of active or passive systems, devices, and security personnel used to protect a security interest from possible threats.
- CDoD 5200.8-R addresses the physical security of personnel, installations, operations, and assets of DoD Components.
2Which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply.)
- AThe Commander is responsible for the development of the AT plan.
- BThe ATO is responsible for the writing of the AT plan.
- CThe ATO is responsible for leveraging the capabilities of the organization’s AT Working Group to assist with creating the AT plan.
3Which paragraph of the AT plan lists the specific task for each subordinate unit?
- AExecution
- BSituation
- CMission
- DAnnexes
4Which AT plan exercise(s) uses scenario driven events to test specific portions of the AT plan?
- ATable-top
- BDrill
- CFull-scale
- DAll of the above
5Which of the following are reasons why AT plan exercises are important?
- AThey increase anti-terrorism awareness
- BThey provide a way to assess and identify vulnerabilities and resources
- CThey confirm training adequacy
- DAll of the above
6Whose primary responsibility is working with Industrial Security Representatives (IS Reps) and contractor personnel to authorize and maintain classified Information Systems?
- ACounterintelligence Special Agent (CISA)
- BInformation System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)
- CInformation System Security Manager (ISSM)
- DFacility Security Officer (FSO)
7True or false? An employee’s need for a Personnel Security Clearance (PCL) is determined by the program manager, but the clearance level is determined by the Government Contracting Activity (GCA).
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
8When an employee no longer needs access to classified information, who is responsible for removing access and debriefing the employee?
- AIndustrial Security Representative (IS Rep)
- BInformation System Security Manager (ISSM)
- CFacility Security Officer (FSO)
- DInformation System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)
9Which of the following organizations conducts periodic Security Vulnerability Assessments (SVAs) of contractor facilities as the CSO to the Department of Defense?
- ADefense Security Service (DSS)
- BFederal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)
- CDepartment of Homeland Security (DHS)
- DFederal Acquisition Service (FAS)
10When cleared contractors visit a cleared facility or government installation, whose security requirements take precedence?
- AThe security requirements of the contractor’s home facility
- BThe security requirements of the host activity/facility
11After a need is identified, the Government Contracting Activity (GCA) ___________________.
- Aawards the contract
- Bdefines the initial requirements for the product/service
- Cpublishes a Request for Proposal (RFP)
- Devaluates the contractors’ proposals
12Who administers and oversees the contractor security program?
- AFacility Security Officer (FSO)
- BInformation System Security Manager (ISSM)
- CInformation System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)
- DCounterintelligence Special Agent (CISA)
13True or false? The Contracting Officer’s Representative (COR) is authorized to make changes to the contract, even if those changes affect price or quality.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
14Which contracting document provides a record of the contractor’s commitment to comply with the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?
- ADD Form 254, Department of Defense Contract Security Classification Specification
- BStatement of Work (SOW)
- CDD Form 441, Department of Defense Security Agreement
15The ______________ has been designated as the Cognizant Security Office (CSO) for the DoD and over 30 other non-DoD agencies.
- ADepartment of Energy (DOE)
- BDefense Security Service (DSS)
- COffice of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI)
- DDepartment of Homeland Security (DHS)
16Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
- Aworks for a company with a Facility Clearance (FCL)
- Bmight work on a classified contract
- Crequires access to classified information
17True or false? A contractor facility may access and store classified material as soon as the Facility Clearance (FCL) is granted.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
18Which of the following topics is NOT included in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?
- AGeneral policies and procedures
- BFacility Clearances (FCLs)
- CAcquisitions guidelines
- DReporting requirements
19Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following roles are filled by contractor employees?
- AInformation System Security Manager (ISSM)
- BInsider Threat Program Senior Official (ITPSO)
- CInformation System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)
- DFacility Security Officer (FSO)
20Select ALL the correct responses. The National Industrial Security Program (NISP) is:
- Aa voluntary program for cleared contractor facilities
- Bdesigned to safeguard classified information entrusted to industry
- Ca government-industry partnership
- Destablished by Executive Order 12829
21Select ALL the correct responses. The Cognizant Security Office (CSO) does which of the following?
- AEstablishes industrial security programs
- BProvides security guidance
- CProvides policy clarifications
- DAdministers the National Industrial Security Program (NISP)
22Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are Counterintelligence Special Agent (CISA) responsibilities?
- AProvide advice, assistance, and guidance regarding counterintelligence best practices
- BAuthorize and maintain Information Systems
- CAssist with foreign travel briefings and debriefings
23To issue a Facility Clearance (FCL), the Facility Clearance Branch (FCB) reviews which of the following?
- AInformation System Security Plans
- BFacility sponsorship
- CEmployee foreign travel records
24Who performs classified Information System assessments?
- AInsider Threat Program Senior Official (ITPSO)
- BInformation System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)
- CCounterintelligence Special Agent (CISA)
- DFacility Security Officer (FSO)
25Select ALL the correct responses. DD Form 254, Department of Defense Contract Security Classification Specification, contains which of the following?
- ATravel requirements
- BSpecific clearance and access requirements
- CAuthorization to generate classified information
- DClassified storage requirements
26What is OPSEC?
- AA process, not a set of rules
- BA method for denying an adversary access to our critical information
- CPart of everyone’s job – including yours
- DAll of the above
27How many steps are there in the OPSEC process?
- ATwo
- BFive
- CSix
- DToo many
28What step in the OPSEC process is Analyzing Threats?
- AStep Three
- BStep Five
- CStep Six
- DStep Two
29____________ are like pieces of a puzzle an adversary uses to reveal a picture of our operations.
- AThreats
- BIndicators
- CQuestions
- DCritical information
30What is the last step in the OPSEC process?
- AIdentify threats
- BIdentify OPSEC countermeasures
- CIdentify vulnerabilities
- DIdentify critical information
31Simonne left a safe containing classified material open while she went out for lunch. There is no evidence that anyone had access to the material while she was out, but nobody can confirm that the materials were safe from disclosure. What type of violation has occurred?
- ASuspected compromise of classified information
- BLoss of classified information
- CCompromise of classified information
32Security violations are reported to which entity?
- Athe DoD System of Record
- BPSMO-I
- CDSS IS Rep
- DFBI
33Changes in a facility's storage capability are reported how?
- ABy phone to the FBI
- BTo PSMO-I via the DoD System of Record
- CIn writing to your DSS IS Rep at the DSS field office
- DTo your DSS IS Rep via e-FCL
34Cleared employees who refuse to execute Standard Form 312 are reported how?
- AIn writing to your IS Rep at the DSS field office
- BTo PSMO-I via the DoD System of Record
- CBy phone to the FBI
- DTo your IS Rep via e-FCL
35Loss, compromise, and suspected compromise of classified information are reported how?
- AIn writing to your DSS IS Rep at the DSS field office
- BBy phone to the FBI
- CTo PSMO-I via the DoD System of Record
- DTo your IS Rep via e-FCL
36Any individual or group that represents a foreign government is considered a security threat.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
37Reports on changes in KMP are required only when there is a change in the president, CEO, or FSO.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
38Of the scenarios listed below, which ones must be reported to your IS Rep as change conditions affecting the facility's clearance?
a. The company has merged with another company and is under new ownership.
b. The company has hired 12 new employees to support a new major contract.
c. The company is moving to a new location to meet the needs of its growing staff.
d. The company just lost its largest contract and has filed for bankruptcy.- Aa, b, c, and d
- Ba, b, and c
- Ca, c, and d
- Da and d
39Evidence of tampering with your facility's classified storage container is an example of what type of security threat?
- AEspionage
- BSabotage
- CSubversive activity
- DTerrorism
40Which of the following is reported to PSMO-I?
- ASuspicious contacts
- BUnauthorized receipt of classified material
- CSecurity equipment vulnerabilities
- DChanges in cleared employee status
41After returning from a recent professional conference, Franklin received a request for classified information from an uncleared person that he met at the conference. What kind of report should be submitted?
- ASuspicious contact
- BIndividual culpability
- CAdverse information
- DUnauthorized receipt of classified material
42The two primary methods of submitting reports to your DSS IS Rep at the DSS Field Office are _________ and __________.
- Ain writing; through e-FCL
- Bin writing; through the DoD System of Record
- Cthrough the DoD System of Record; through e-FCL
- Dby phone; through e-FCL
43Working late one evening on a priority project, Helen left several classified documents visible on her desk while she stepped away from her desk for a moment. When she returned, she found a member of the cleaning crew straightening the classified documents on her desk. What type of violation has occurred?
- ALoss of classified information
- BSuspected compromise of classified information
- CCompromise of classified information
44Of the following types of personnel-related information, which is NOT reported to PSMO-I?
- ASuspicious contacts
- BAdverse information
- CRefusal to execute Standard Form (SF) 312
- DCitizenship by naturalization
45Failure to report unauthorized disclosure of classified information does not affect the service members’ safety.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
46According to the NISPOM, espionage, sabotage, terrorism, or subversive activities should be reported as a(n) ___________________.
- ANational security threat
- BIndividual culpability
- CSecurity violation
47Contractors must report to the DSS IS Rep only those violations that result in the loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
48NISPOM paragraph 1-300 states that contractors must report certain events to the government.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
49According to NISPOM paragraph 1-300, which of the following is the contractor required to report to the government?
- AEvents that require the facility to be open outside of regular business hours
- BEvents that affect the proper safeguarding of classified information
- CAny change in the number of GSA security containers being used at the contractor facility to protect classified information
- DAn increase or decrease in the number of classified documents stored at the contractor facility
50Assessing a vulnerability in conjunction with the threat, and then determining the impact this would have on an operation if the vulnerability is exploited determines the level of risk.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
51OPSEC is a systematic, proven process to identify, control and protect classified information about a mission, operation or activity, and, thus, denying/mitigating adversary's ability to compromise/interrupt that mission, operation or activity.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
52Patterns, stereotypes, and predictable actions are all types of which of the following?
- ARisks
- BIndicators
- CVulnerabilities
- DThreats
53An adversary's capability is defined as his ability to do which of the following?
- AAcquire critical information
- BNone of these choices
- CAcquire and exploit critical information
- DExploit critical information
54What are the elements of threat?
- AAll of these choices
- BIntent and Capability
- CFriendly and Adversarial perspectives
- DVulnerabilities and Indicators
55Which step in the OPSEC process is a decision making step because it helps the decision maker prioritize and decide whether or not to apply a countermeasure?
- AIdentify critical information
- BApply countermeasures
- CAssess Risk
- DAnalyze vulnerabilities
56The development of a countermeasure focuses directly on the
- Alevel of risk to the organization.
- Badversary it is guarding against.
- Cimportance of the critical information item.
- Dvulnerability it is designed to protect.
57Why do we need to have threat information?
- AWe need to identify an adversary's intent.
- BWe need to identify an adversary's capability.
- CKnowledge of the threat supports all other steps in the OPSEC process.
- DAll of these choices
58What is the preferred method of assessing the risk to your organization?
- AUse of expert testimony
- BAll of the choices
- CIntuitive reasoning
- DThe committee approach
59Which organizations are tasked with establishing OPSEC programs under the law signed by President Reagan?
- AThe Interagency OPSEC Support Staff
- BAll executive departments and agencies
- CAll executive departments and agencies with national security missions
- DAll government departments and agencies
60What factor takes into account the impact that a compromise would have on your operation?
- AThreat
- BRisk
- CCountermeasure
- DVulnerability
61Why should organizations use and practice OPSEC?
- ATo protect their critical information
- BTo maintain the element of surprise
- CTo protect the integrity of their mission
- DAll of these choices
62OPSEC focuses on what type of critical information?
- ASensitive but unclassified information
- BAll of these choices
- CAll levels of classified information
- DHighly classified information
63Lack of proper training, use of non-secure communications, and poor system design are all examples of
- Arisks.
- Bvulnerabilities.
- Cindicators.
- Dthreats.
64When dealing with countermeasure development, what is the bottom line?
- AAlways develop countermeasures on a first-come, first-served basis
- BAlways apply a unique countermeasure to each vulnerability
- CAlways think of a countermeasure as a smarter way to do a task
- DAlways weigh the cost of the countermeasure against its benefit
65Identifying what an adversary already knows about your operation helps you to
- Adetermine the collection methods the adversary is using against you.
- Bprioritize the distribution of resources for applying countermeasures.
- Clook at your operation from both the friendly and adversary perspectives.
- Dassess the level of risk to your operation.
66In order to determine our critical information, we need to consider both the friendly and adversary points of view.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
67Which of the following statements concerning activity tip-offs is correct?
- AThey are indicators that tell adversaries where to focus their collection efforts
- BThey are vulnerabilities that tell adversaries where to focus their collection efforts
- CThey are indicators that are not part of a unit's normal conduct
- DThey are vulnerabilities that are not part of a unit's normal conduct
68The level of risk is indirectly proportional to all three factors of risk.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
69The more we know about an adversary's intent and capability, the better we can judge how and why he may collect the information that he needs.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
70Identifying a unit based upon how they deploy their equipment is an example of
- Aa pattern example of an indicator.
- Ba predictable action example of a risk.
- Ca stereotype example of a vulnerability.
- Dpattern example of a threat.
71Which of the following is NOT a step in the OPSEC process?
- ALock all classified material
- BIdentify critical information
- CAnalyze the threat
- DApply countermeasures
72Which step in the OPSEC process requires you to look at your operation through the eyes of the adversary?
- AAnalyze vulnerabilities
- BApply countermeasures
- CIdentify critical information
- DAll of the choices
73Which of the following statements BEST describes the risk status if any one element of risk shrinks to zero?
- AThere is no risk.
- BThe level of risk remains constant.
- CThe level of risk increases.
- DThe level of risk decreases.
74Specific facts about friendly intentions, capabilities, and operations vitally needed by adversaries to plan and act effectively is called
- Acritical information.
- Bvulnerabilities.
- Cindicators.
- Drisk
75Which of the following countermeasures may be necessary if routine activities provide an adversary with tip-offs to critical information?
- AAwareness training
- BSpeed of execution
- CCover and deception
- DChanges in procedure
76An advantage of incorporating the use of OPSEC surveys is that it
- Aprovides for early detection of OPSEC problems.
- Breduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.
- Cmakes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees
- Dallows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.
77Which of the following countermeasures should be used sparingly because of its expense and maintenance difficulty?
- AChanges in procedure
- BCover and deception
- CSpeed of execution
- DAwareness training
78Your knowledge of which factors impact your capability to analyze your vulnerabilities?
- AYour mission
- BYour operations
- CThe interaction with other OPSEC steps
- DAll of these choices
79Which of the following BEST identifies the goal of OPSEC?
- ATo provide you with a holistic picture of your operation
- BTo protect your operation by properly controlling classified information
- CTo establish a systematic process to assess the requirements for mission success
- DTo control information about your capabilities and intentions
80What document signed by President Reagan directed the establishment of OPSEC programs, and in what year did this document become law?
- ANSDD 289; in 1988
- BNSDD 289; in 1989
- CNSDD 298; in 1988
- DNSDD 298; in 1989
81Observable and detectable items that can be pieced together through analysis to reveal sensitive information about your operation are called
- Aindicators.
- Bcritical information items.
- Cthreats.
- Dvulnerabilities.
82Which of the following countermeasures is considered among the most effective for all organizations?
- ACover and deception
- BChanges in procedure
- CAwareness training
- DSpeed of execution
83It's often the little things we do every day that can develop into vulnerabilities and cause damage to our operation.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
84An advantage of incorporating OPSEC principles in the planning stage of any operation is that it
- Amakes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees.
- Bprovides for early detection of OPSEC problems.
- Creduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.
- Dallows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.
85An advantage of using good OPSEC principles during contingencies is that it
- Amakes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees.
- Breduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.
- Callows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.
- Dprovides for early detection of OPSEC problems.
86Because each adversary may have different intentions and capabilities, you may need to enact different scenarios for different adversaries.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
87Which of the following, when looked at by itself or in conjunction with something else, can point to a vulnerability that an adversary can exploit?
- ACritical information item
- BRisk
- CIndicator
- DThreat
88What is defined as a weakness that can be exploited by an adversary?
- AVulnerability
- BRisk
- CCountermeasure
- DThreat
89Risk is a function of the
- Athreat only.
- Bthreat, vulnerability, and impact.
- Cvulnerability and impact.
- Dthreat and vulnerability.
90An advantage of integrating OPSEC principles in your day-to-day operations is that it
- Aallows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.
- Breduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.
- Cprovides for early detection of OPSEC problems.
- Dmakes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees.
91OPSEC differs from other programs because it requires you to look at yourself through the eyes of the adversary.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
92Anyone who opposes or acts against your interest is called a(n)
- Aliability.
- Bthreat.
- Cadversary.
- Drisk.
93In analyzing the threat, we are concerned with adversaries that
- Apossess the ability to acquire and exploit our critical information.
- Bintend to do us harm.
- Cdemonstrate the intent and capability to be a threat to our mission.
- Dpossess the ability to exploit our critical information.
94Stan has recently witnessed some unusual behavior from a co-worker. He’s not sure if he should report it, but he knows it is better not to report an incident or behavior than to make a potentially false report.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
95Jorge is a security official for a DoD organization. Where can he find reporting procedures that pertain to his organization?
- ADoD Directive 5240.06, CI Awareness and Reporting (CIAR)
- BDoD 5220.22-M, the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
- CDSS Counterintelligence Office
96Security officials should seek out and consider threat information only from official, government sources.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
97Which of the following is an objective of the DSS CI Directorate?
- AProvide for the early detection and referral of potential espionage cases
- BConduct counterintelligence investigations for the U.S.
- CMaintain list of militarily critical technology
98Specific reporting procedures vary widely across agencies and contractor facilities. While imminent threats should be reported directly to the FBI, employees should use their agency’s or facility’s reporting procedures to report other threats through their chain of command.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
99Incorporating counterintelligence and threat awareness into a security program can potentially prevent theft, espionage, and loss of life.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
100Jack is his organization’s Facility Security Officer. He is working with other company officials to identify the organization’s assets. When they identify assets, they should include only classified information.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
101Sam is a Facility Security Officer for a cleared defense contractor. Which of the following should Sam refer to for counterintelligence and threat awareness requirements for contractors?
- ADoD 5200.2-R, Personnel Security Program
- BDoD 5220.22-M, the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
- CDoDM 5200.01, Volume 1, Enclosure 3, DoD Information Security Program
102A cleared U.S. company received a request to sell export-controlled technology to an Eastern European security organization. This is an example of _____________________.
- Aa cyber threat
- Ban unsolicited request
- Csolicitation and marketing of services
- Dtargeting insiders
103Select ALL the correct responses. Adam is an expert in his organization’s dual use technology. He is invited to speak at a foreign conference. He knows seminars, conventions, and exhibits can be used by adversaries to target knowledgeable resources like him. What are some of the indicators Adam should look out for?
- AForeign attendees’ business cards do not match stated affiliations
- BExcessive or suspicious photography and filming of technology and products
- CConversations involving classified, sensitive, or export-controlled technologies or products
104Anna is her organization’s Facility Security Officer. When considering assets, she knows that the greatest target of our adversaries is ___________.
- Ahuman assets
- Btechnology assets
- Cequipment assets
105Which step of the analytical risk management process includes considering the impact to military and strategic advantage?
- AIdentify vulnerabilities
- BAssess risk
- CDevelop and apply countermeasures
- DIdentify assets
106Which of the following is a secure online environment offered by the OPM Center for Federal Investigative Services?
- AAmerican Society for Industrial Security International (ASIS)
- BNCMS, the Society of Industrial Security Professionals
- CIndustrial Security Awareness Council (ISAC)
- DExtranet for Security Professionals
107The Secretary of Defense is the Executive Agent of the National Industrial Security Program and is responsible for overall implementation of the program.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
108The Cognizant Security Office (CSO) for the DoD is Director of National Intelligence (DNI).
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
109Which government entity is responsible for providing National Industrial Security Program (NISP) policy direction?
- ACognizant Security Agencies (CSAs)
- BSecretary of Defense (SecDef)
- CNational Security Council (NSC)
- DInformation Security Oversight Office (ISOO)
110What document does DSS publish and post on its website to change or clarify existing policy requirements in the NISPOM?
- ACDSE Newsletter
- BDSS Access Magazine
- CTechnology Collection Trends in the U.S. Defense Industry
- DIndustrial Security Letter (ISL)
111Only select Cognizant Security Agencies (CSAs) have hotlines for reporting industrial security issues.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
112XYZ Industries is a cleared facility that is moving its headquarters to a less expensive office space. This need to be reported to the company’s IS Rep?
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
113Which of the following includes all the steps necessary for processing a facility clearance and a list of the documents and information that the Facility Security Officer (FSO) must gather to prepare for the Facility Clearance Branch (FCB) telephonic survey?
- AFacility Clearance Checklist
- BIndustrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
- CDD Form 254 Handbook
- DNational Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
114In the NISPOM, what location does “1-302” represent?
- AChapter 1, Section 3, Paragraph 2
- BChapter 1, Section 30, Paragraph 2
- CChapter 1, Page 302
- DSection 1, Paragraph 30, Page 2
115The domestic delivery services approved for overnight domestic delivery of Secret and Confidential information are listed in the ______________________.
- ADD Form 254, DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
- BTransportation, Delivery, and Relocation Solutions (TDRS), Schedule 48
- CNational Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
116When is an SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, executed?
- AWithin the first six months after eligibility is granted
- BAs soon as the completed SF 86 is reviewed by the FSO.
- CBefore an employee is granted access to classified information
- DAfter an employee has access to classified information
117Which of the following would not be reported to the Personnel Security Management Office for Industry (PSMO-I)?
- AEmployees desiring not to perform on classified work
- BAdverse information
- CChanges in cleared employee status
- DChange conditions affecting the facility clearance
118What DSS organization provides security education and training to DoD and other U.S. government personnel and contractors?
- AFacility Clearance Branch (FCB)
- BForeign Ownership, Control, or Influence (FOCI) Operations Division
- CPersonnel Security Management Office for Industry (PSMO-I)
- DCenter for Development of Security Excellence (CDSE)
119What legally binding document must be executed between the Department of Defense and a contractor to obtain a facility clearance?
- ASF 328, Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
- BDD Form 441, DoD Security Agreement
- CSF 86, Questionnaire for National Security Positions
- DSF 312, Non-Disclosure Form
120One purpose of the National Industrial Security Program (NISP) is to preserve our nation’s economic and technological interests.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
121Which resource guides Facility Security Officers (FSOs) through the self-inspection process and provides techniques to improve the quality of self-inspections?
- ASelf-Inspection Handbook for NISP Contractors
- BNational Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
- CSuggested Contract File Folder Headings job aid
122Company ABC was recently issued a facility clearance and has been awarded its first classified contract. Which form should the company receive with the contract that provides specific guidance about what information is classified and at what classification level?
- ASF 328, Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
- BSF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement
- CSF 86, Questionnaire for National Security Positions
- DDD Form 254, Department of Defense Contract Security Classification Specification
123As defined in the NISPOM, ______ is the administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified information.
- Aaccess level
- Bneed-to-know
- Ca Personnel Security Clearance (PCL)
- Deligibility level
124What security control measure outlines the specific export-controlled information that has been authorized for release during a foreign visit and delineates how a company will control access?
- AExport Authorization
- BTechnology Control Plan (TCP)
- CSecurity Assurance
- DDisclosure Agreement
125If the visitor organization and host organization both use the DoD System of Record, visit notifications are sent electronically, which speeds the approval process.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
126When the host organization approves a visit request, this approval constitutes _____.
- Aauthority to establish security controls
- Bauthority to obtain a Facility Verification Request
- Cauthority to request additional special access authorizations
- Dauthority for disclosure
127If there is not a contractual relationship between the visitor’s organization and the host organization, where must the host organization obtain authorization for disclosure of classified information?
- ADSS Industrial Security Representative
- BIndustrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
- CGovernment Contracting Activity (GCA)
128What security control measures must the host organization implement for a classified meeting?
- APhysical security controls for the control of, access to, and dissemination of the classified information to be presented
- BSecurity control measures must provide for security briefings and signed certificates.
- CNone. Security control measures are the responsibility of the Cognizant Security Agency.
- DNone. Security control measures are the responsibility of the Government Contracting Activity.
129An individual’s access level is directly related to the employer organization’s Facility Clearance level and the level of access needed for the individual to do his or her job.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
130When is it appropriate for the visitor’s organization to submit a visit authorization letter (VAL)?
- AWhen the visit is a contract-related classified visit
- BWhen the request needs to be submitted and approved quickly
- CWhen one or both organizations do not utilize the web-based DoD System of Record
- DWhen either the visitor’s or host organization does not utilize the Industrial Security Facilities Database
131Where are actions, such as Personnel Security Clearance terminations, upgrades, downgrades, and reinstatements, on contractor employees entered?
- AIndustrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
- BInternational Visits Program (IVP)
- CDoD System of Record
132Which of the following is a good security practice in areas where classified information may be subject to unauthorized disclosure?
- AInform the DSS IS Representative that all visitors to the area must wear a badge
- BInform the project manager of the heightened risk and ensure the visitor has an escort
- CProvide visitors with a badge and an escort who has been informed of the access limitations or restrictions on the visitor's movements.
133Select ALL of the correct responses. Which of the following are security briefing topics for visitors?
- AHow to verify need-to-know in the DoD System of Record before a classified discussion
- BPhysical security procedures and access areas
- CUse of Portable Electronic Devices
- DPolicy and procedures for transmitting and/or transporting classified material
134_____ describes the level of information to which a person is authorized access based on a background investigation.
- ANeed-to-know
- BAccess level
- CEligibility
- DPersonnel Security Clearance
135Who must submit the RFV when a foreign national needs to visit a U.S. contractor facility to discuss classified information?
- ASponsoring foreign government
- BBoth the foreign contracting company and the sponsoring foreign government
- CU.S. contractor
- DForeign contracting company
136What system may be used to verify a company’s Facility Clearance status?
- AJoint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)
- BIndustrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
- CDoD System of Records
137Who sponsors classified meetings in the NISP?
- AUniversities and industry associations
- BDSS Headquarters, Industrial Security Integration and Application (IP) Programs
- CCognizant Security Agency (CSA)
- DU.S. contractor
- EGovernment Contracting Activity (GCA)
138What is a final security control in the NISP when the purpose of a visit has been accomplished?
- ARecovery of all classified information
- BTo ensure any classified material that may be of use in a follow-on contract is transported securely to the visitor’s organization
- CTo ensure that all classified material has been properly stored and inventoried
139Government employees temporarily stationed at a contractor facility ______ control of their work products to the contractor.
- Amust reach an agreement for
- Bmust relinquish
- Cdo not have to relinquish
140Who sends the NATO Request for Visit (RFV) approval to the NATO site?
- AVisitor’s Facility Security Officer (FSO)
- BDSS Headquarters Industrial Security Integration and Application (IP) Programs
- CCognizant Security Agency (CSA)
- DGovernment Contracting Activity (GCA)
141When does a host need to coordinate with the visitor’s organization regarding the Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement (SF-312)?
- AWhen the visit is a first-time visit and the DoD System of Records does not indicate that the visitor has signed an SF-312
- BThe visitor must always sign it at every visit to any classified facility
- CWhen the visitor presents a visit authorization letter (VAL)
- DWhen it is the visitor’s first visit to the cleared facility
142International visit requirements apply when information to be disclosed is classified or unclassified but related to classified contracts or otherwise subject to export controls under the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) or Export Administration Regulations (EAR).
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
143NATO briefings require a signed certificate.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
144Which of the following is used in the PCL process to determine a candidate’s eligibility?
- AAdjudicative Guidelines
- BE.O. 12968
- CE.O. 13467
- DNIPSOM
145Who makes the interim eligibility determination?
- AOPM/ISP
- BDSS Field Office
- CDOHA
- DPSMO-I
146To whom does the FSO submit the applicant’s completed SF-86 and both signed release forms?
- AOPM
- BDOHA
- CPSMO-I
147How is the FSO notified that a cleared employee may be due for a periodic reinvestigation?
- AThe facility’s IS Rep notifies the FSO
- BThe FSO is not notified but must look for eligible employees in the DoD system of record
- CPSMO-I notifies the FSO
148The only requirement for employees to access classified information is to have a favorable eligibility determination.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
149A contractor facility has been awarded classified contracts that require access to information classified at the Confidential and Secret levels. What is the level of FCL required by the contractor?
- AConfidential
- BSecret
- CTop Secret
150What is the purpose of an annual clearance justification review?
- ATo ensure there are enough cleared employees to meet the needs of a contractor company’s classified contract workload
- BTo provide the CEO with justification for hiring more cleared employees
- CTo assess whether a cleared employee still requires access to classified information
151One of the conditions required for a pre-existing eligibility determination issued by one federal agency to be accepted by another federal agency is for the determination to be based on an investigation of sufficient scope that is current to within _________.
- A5 years
- B7 years
- C10 years
152The thirteen adjudicative guidelines involve assessing a candidate using criteria that addresses a specific concern that can impact the candidate’s ability to protect national security.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
153If a candidate has a record in the DoD system of record (JPAS/DISS) and a pre-existing eligibility determination, the FSO assesses whether that determination may be accepted in lieu of initiating a new investigation to determine eligibility.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
154The __________________ develops and implements a facility’s security program.
- ACognizant Security Officer (CSO)
- BFacility Security Officer (FSO)
- CPersonnel Security Officer (PSO)
155A company cleared at the Secret level hires a new employee. The new employee has a current Top Secret eligibility, which was granted by her previous employer. What is the highest level of classified access she may have for work performed for her new employer?
- ASecret
- BTop Secret
- CConfidential
156Which investigation type is required for an initial Secret clearance?
- ATier 3R
- BTier 5R
- CTier 5
- DTier 3
157The FSO submits the applicant’s completed SF-86 using which of the following?
- AJCAVS/DISS
- BJPASS/DISS Portal
- CeQIP
158How is the applicant’s FSO notified if the applicant receive an unfavorable eligibility determination?
- ADoD System of Record
- BDOHA communication
- CeQIP notification
159Which of the following provides policy about PCLs and defines access criteria?
- AE.O. 13467
- BE.O. 12968
- CUSD(I) Memo 25 Dec 2005
- DNISPOM
160Which investigation is used for a periodic reinvestigation of an individual possessing a Secret or Confidential clearance eligibility?
- ATier 5R
- BTier 5
- CTier 3
- DTier 3R
161Facility employees may be processed for personnel security clearances concurrently with the processing of, or after the award of, a facility’s FCL.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
162During which stage of the personnel security clearance process are the thirteen guidelines used?
- AAdjudication stage
- BInterim review stage
- CPersonnel security clearance investigation stage
- DInitiate personnel security clearance process stage
163Who has primary responsibility for the adjudication of personnel security background investigations?
- APSMO-I
- BDOHA
- CDoD CAF
164An interim eligibility determination grants the applicant permanent access to classified information by bypassing the remainder of the PCL process.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
165Which investigation type is required for an initial Top Secret Clearance?
- ATier 3
- BTier 5R
- CTier 3R
- DTier 5
166Which of the following items must the FSO report to the PSMO-I?
- AA cleared employee has received an industry award
- BA cleared employee’s citizenship has changed
- CAn uncleared employee’s citizenship has changed
167To whom may eligibility decisions be appealed if the DoD CAF denies eligibility?
- APSMO-I
- BDSS Field Office
- CDOHA
168Which of the following government entities typically determines personnel security clearance eligibility?
- ADoD CAF
- BDSS Field Office
- CDOHA
169Which type of security training typically informs cleared employees of changes or updates to security regulations?
- AInitial Security Training
- BSpecial Security Briefing
- CRefresher Security Training
170Which activities are recommended as part of continuous evaluation program at a cleared facility?
a. periodic reinvestigations
b. annual clearance justification reviews
c. reporting required information- Ab and c only
- Ba only
- Ca and b only
- Da, b, and c
171Which of the following government entities adjudicates unfavorable eligibility determinations that are appealed?
- APSMO-I
- BDSS Field Office
- CDOHA
172When is an applicant required to submit fingerprints in addition to his/her security application?
- ADuring a periodic reinvestigation of a cleared individual
- BDuring the applicants initial PCL investigation
- COnly when the applicant is seeking Top Secret clearance eligibility
- DThe applicant is never required to submit a fingerprint card, but it is a best practice.
Informações
- Descrição
- Security
- Autor
- Arthur Casto
- Idioma
- English
- Visualizações
- 22.120
- Etiquetas
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