Quiz
Final Exam (Objective): CH 1-9
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Perguntas do quiz (90)
1Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?
- Aspanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
- Bspanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
- Cspanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
- Dspanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096
2Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?
- Aport ID
- BIP address
- Cextended system ID
- DMAC address
- Ebridge priority
- Fcost
3Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)
- Afailover capabilities
- Bcollapsed core
- Credundant power supplies
- Dfailure domains
- Eservices module
4Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?
- Athe use of a collapsed core design
- Bthe use of the building switch block approach
- Cthe installation of redundant power supplies
- Dthe purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume
5A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?
- AMultiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
- BRedundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.
- CNetwork access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
- DFaster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.
6What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)
- Aincreased flexibility
- Bdecreased number of critical points of failure
- Creduced costs
- Dincreased bandwidth availability
- Eincreased network management options
7In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?
- Ato enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
- Bon a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management
- Con a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
- Don a campus LAN network as access layer switches
8Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?
- AThey do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.
- BThey are best used as distribution layer switches.
- CThey are modular switches
- DNew Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through
9What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
- AIt connects multiple IP networks.
- BIt controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
- CIt determines the best path to send packets.
- DIt manages the VLAN database
- EIt increases the size of the broadcast domain.
10Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?
- Ato display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
- Bto display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
- Cto display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
- Dto display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
11What is a characteristic of in-band device management?
- AIt uses a terminal emulation client.
- BIt is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable
- CIt uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
- DIt is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.
12Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)
- Astatic default routes
- Bimplementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
- Credundant links between Layer 2 switches
- Dlink-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
- Eremoving single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches
13Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?
- AFHRP
- BGLBP
- CHSRP
- DVRRP
14What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
- ABroadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
- BThe Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
- CRouters continually forward packets to other routers.
- DA switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
15What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?
- ARouters will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
- BNew traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
- CCSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
- DARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host
16What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?
- AMAC address
- BVLAN ID
- CIP address
- Dport ID
17Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)
- ASTP
- BRapid PVST+
- CPVST+
- DMSTP
- ERSTP
18What is an advantage of PVST+?
- APVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network
- BPVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
- CPVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
- DPVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
19Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?
- Alistening
- Blearning
- Cforwarding
- Dblocking
20To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)
- AThe root bridge BID
- BThe role of the ports in all VLANs
- CThe status of native VLAN ports
- DThe number of broadcasts received on each root port
- EThe IP address of the management VLAN interface
21What is the purpose of HSRP?
- AIt provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
- BIt prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
- CIt enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
- DIt prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
22When an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes from other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?
- Abounded updates
- Bpartial updates
- CEIGRP authentication
- DDiffusing Update Algorithm
- EReliable Transport Protocol
23What is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?
- Ato describe different routing processes
- Bto identify different application layer protocols
- Cto use different transport protocols for different packets
- Dto accommodate routing of different network layer protocols
24Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?
- AEIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.
- BEIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.
- CEIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
- DEIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.
25Which destination MAC address is used when a multicast EIGRP packet is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame?
- A01-00-5E-00-00-09
- B01-00-5E-00-00-10
- C01-00-5E-00-00-0A
- D01-00-5E-00-00-0B
26Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?
- Anetwork 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63
- Bnetwork 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192
- Cnetwork 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127
- Dnetwork 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128
27Which EIGRP route would have the preferred administrative distance?
- Aa summary route
- Ban internal route
- Can external route that is redistributed from RIP
- Dan external route that is redistributed from OSPF
28Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?
- Aonly in the routing table
- Bonly in the neighbor table
- Cin the routing table and the topology table
- Din the routing table and the neighbor table
29Which table is used by EIGRP to store all routes that are learned from EIGRP neighbors?
- Athe routing table
- Bthe neighbor table
- Cthe topology table
- Dthe adjacency table
30How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
- Aby exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
- Bby comparing known routes to information received in updates
- Cby exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers
- Dby dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
- Eby exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers
31Which command or commands must be entered on a serial interface of a Cisco router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router interface?
- Abandwidth 1500
- Bshutdown
no shutdown - Ccopy running-config startup-config
reload - Dno bandwidth
32Which three metric weights are set to zero by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose three.)
- Ak1
- Bk2
- Ck3
- Dk4
- Ek5
- Fk6
33Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two possible paths to the 192.168.10.4 network. What would make the alternate route meet the feasibility condition?
- Aa reported distance less than 3523840
- Ba reported distance greater than 41024000
- Ca feasible distance greater than 41024000
- Dan administrative distance less than 170
34What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
- AThe route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
- BThe route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
- CThe route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
- DThere is no activity on the route to that network.
- EThe route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.
35Refer to the exhibit. Which two networks contain feasible successors? (Choose two.)
- A192.168.71.0
- B192.168.51.0
- C10.44.100.252
- D10.44.104.253
- E10.44.101.252
36What is the most cost-effective method of solving interface congestion that is caused by a high level of traffic between two switches?
- Aincrease uplink speed
- Badd more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains
- Caggregate ports by using EtherChannel
- Dinsert a router between the switches
37Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?
- AEtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
- BPAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
- CA trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
- DEtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
38Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)
- A802.3ad
- BPAgP
- CSTP
- DEtherChannel
- ERSTP
39Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?
- Aswitch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
- Bswitch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable
- Cswitch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
- Dswitch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on
40Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the problem?
- ATraffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
- BTraffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer 3 switches.
- CTraffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.
- DTraffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.
41Which organization certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11 standards to improve interoperability of 802.11 products?
- AFCC
- BIEEE
- CITU-R
- DWi-Fi Alliance
42When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?
- Aactive
- Bauto
- Cdesirable
- Dpassive
43When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?
- Aactive
- Bauto
- Cdesirable
- Dpassive
44As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
- Aproviding redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
- Bgrouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
- Cgrouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
- Dproviding redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
45Which command will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration mode?
- Achannel-group group-identifier
- Binterface port-channel interface-identifier
- Cinterface interface-identifier
- Dinterface range interface-identifier
46A administrator wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE 802.11n network without changing the AP. What can the administrator do to accomplish this?
- AUpgrade the firmware on the AP
- BSplit the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band
- CDeploy a Wi-Fi Range Extender
- DChange to WPA2 authentication
47What is an advantage of using LACP?
- Aincreases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
- Bdecreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
- Callows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
- Dprovides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
- Edecreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel
48An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?
- AS1-on and S2-passive
- BS1-passive and S2-passive
- CS1-on and S2-active
- DS1-passive and S2-active
49Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business? (Choose two.)
- Arepeater
- Baccess point
- CWLAN controller
- DEthernet switch
- ERADIUS authentication server
50Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?
- Abeacon
- Bprobe request
- Cauthentication
- Dprobe response
51A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless frame type did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access point?
- Abeacon frame
- Bcontrol frame
- Cdata frame
- Dmanagement frame
52During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?
- Adiscovery
- Bprobing
- Cassociation
- Dencryption
- Eauthentication
53What is the purpose of the Distributed Coordination Function in an IEEE 802.11 WLAN environment?
- AIt allows a client to detect whether or not a channel is clear prior to transmission
- BIt is used in a full-duplex environment to detect collisions
- CIt is used to send data over a half-duplex connection
- DIt allows the client to change transmission channels
54What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?
- AIt provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no concern.
- BClients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.
- CSSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them
- DIt is the best way to secure a wireless network
55If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three frequency channels should be used? (Choose three.)
- A1
- B3
- C5
- D6
- E8
- F11
56Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured?
- AWPA
- BWPA2
- CWEP
- DWPA2-Personal
57An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?
- Acracking
- Bdenial of service
- Crogue access point
- Dspoofing
58Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the same EIGRP routing domain. When the auto-summary command is issued on R3, which two summary networks will be advertised to the neighbors? (Choose two.)
- A192.168.1.0/30
- B192.168.10.0/30
- C192.168.10.0/24
- D172.16.3.0/24
- E172.16.0.0/16
59Refer to the exhibit. Router R3 is receiving multiple routes through the EIGRP routing protocol. Which statement is true about the implementation of summarization in this network?
- AAutomatic summarization has been enabled only for the 172.21.100.0/24 network.
- BAutomatic summarization is disabled on R3.
- CAutomatic summarization is enabled on neighboring routers.
- DAutomatic summarization is disabled on a per-interface basis
60Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is supported by the output?
- AA static default route has been manually configured on this router
- BSummarization of routes has been manually configured
- CA default route is being learned through an external process
- DThe route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface
61Which three statements are advantages of using automatic summarization? (Choose three.)
- AIt maximizes the number of routes in the routing table
- BIt increases the size of routing updates
- CIt reduces the frequency of routing updates
- DIt ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the internetwork
- EIt improves reachability in discontiguous networks
- FIt decreases the number of entries in the routing table
62Which address best summarizes the IPv6 addresses 2001:DB8:ACAD::/48, 2001:DB8:9001::/48, and 2001:DB8:8752::/49?
- A2001:DB8:8000::/34
- B2001:DB8:8000::/36
- C2001:DB8:8000::/47
- D2001:DB8:8000::/48
63What is a characteristic of manual route summarization?
- Arequires high bandwidth utilization for the routing updates
- Breduces total number of routes in routing tables
- Ccannot include supernet routes
- Dhas to be configured globally on the router
64Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the HQ router?
- AA static default route was configured on this router
- BA static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates
- CThe static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate command
- DThe IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0
65In which IOS CLI mode must a network administrator issue the maximum-paths command to configure load balancing in EIGRP?
- Aglobal configuration mode
- Binterface configuration mode
- Cprivileged mode
- Drouter configuration mode
66Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the shown commands. The EIGRP routing domain has completely converged and a network administrator is planning on configuring EIGRP authentication throughout the complete network. On which two interfaces should EIGRP authentication be configured between R2 and R3? (Choose two.)
- Aserial 0/0/1 of R2
- Bserial 0/1/0 of R2
- Cgig 0/0 of R3
- Dserial 0/0/1 of R3
- Eserial 0/1/0 of R4
67Two routers, R1 and R2, have established an EIGRP neighbor relationship, but there is still a connectivity problem. Which issue could be causing this problem?
- Aan authentication mismatch
- Ban access list that is blocking advertisements from other networks
- Cautomatic summarization that is disabled on both routers
- Da process ID mismatch
68Refer to the exhibit. Remote users are experiencing connectivity problems when attempting to reach hosts in the 172.21.100.0 /24 network. Using the output in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the connectivity problem?
- AThe passive-interface command is preventing neighbor relationships on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
- BThe hello timer has been modified on interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 of R3 and not on the neighbor, causing a neighbor adjacency not to form.
- CThe GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface is not participating in the EIGRP process
- DThe GigabitEthernet interfaces are not limiting the flow of EIGRP message information and are being flooded with EIGRP traffic.
69Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration shown is applied on router R1, the exhibited status message is displayed. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with R2 on the serial 0/1/0 interface. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
- AThe passive-interface command should have been issued on serial 0/1/0.
- BThe hello interval has been altered on serial 0/1/0 and is preventing a neighbor relationship from forming.
- CThe network statement used for EIGRP 55 does not enable EIGRP on interface serial 0/1/0.
- DThe IPv4 address configured on the neighbor that is connected to R1 serial 0/1/0 is incorrect.
- EThe networks that are configured on serial 0/0/0 and serial 0/1/0 of router R1 are overlapping.
70Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
What action should be taken to solve this problem?
- AEnable the serial interfaces of both routers
- BConfigure EIGRP to send periodic updates
- CConfigure the same hello interval between the routers
- DConfigure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID
71Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly configured, why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?
- Abecause the automatic summarization is enabled on R1
- Bbecause the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP
- Cbecause the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect
- Dbecause there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1
72In which scenario will the use of EIGRP automatic summarization cause inconsistent routing in a network?
- Awhen there is no adjacency that is established between neighboring routers
- Bwhen there is no common subnet that exists between neighboring routers
- Cwhen the routers in an IPv4 network have mismatching EIGRP AS numbers
- Dwhen the routers in an IPv4 network are connected to discontiguous networks with automatic summarization enabled
73Which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic summarization is enabled?
- Ashow ip eigrp interfaces
- Bshow ip protocols
- Cshow ip interface brief
- Dshow ip eigrp neighbors
74Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?
- Ashow ip ospf neighbor
- Bshow ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0
- Cshow ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0
- Dshow ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1
75A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?
- AConfigure the network statements.
- BChange the interface priority
- CIssue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command
- DChange the OSPFv2 process ID
76Why is MD5 authentication more secure than simple authentication for OSPF updates?
- AMD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router
- BMD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long
- CMD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor
- DMD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted
77A network engineer suspects that OSPFv3 routers are not forming neighbor adjacencies because there are interface timer mismatches. Which two commands can be issued on the interface of each OSFPv3 router to resolve all timer mismatches? (Choose two.)
- Ano ipv6 ospf hello-interval
- Bno ipv6 ospf dead-interval
- Cip ospf hello-interval 10
- Dip ospf dead-interval 40
- Eno ipv6 ospf cost 10
- Fno ipv6 router ospf 10
78Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration?
- AOSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table
- BEach side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value
- CAll serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s
- DBandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link
79Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to generate a signature? (Choose two.)
- Asecret key
- BOSPF message
- COSPF router ID
- Drouter hostname
- Einterface IP address
80A network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?
- AC
- BO
- CO E2
- DO IA
81A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPFv2 routing issues on two connected routers. Which two requirements to form an adjacency need to be verified? (Choose two.)
- AVerify that one of the interfaces that connects the two routers is active and the other passive
- BVerify that one of the routers is the DR or BDR and the other router a DRother
- CVerify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same subnet
- DVerify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same area.
- EVerify that both routers are using the same OSPFv2 process ID
82Which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?
- Ashow ip protocols
- Bshow ip ospf interface
- Cshow ip interface brief
- Dshow ip route ospf
83Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
- AThe entry for 172.16.200.1 represents a loopback interface
- BThe routing table contains routes from multiple areas.
- CTo reach network 172.16.2.0, traffic will travel through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
- DThe routing table contains two intra-area routes
- ETo reach network 192.168.1.0, traffic will exit via the Serial0/0/0 interface
84Refer to the exhibit. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?
- AThe routers have the same priority
- BThe routers have both been elected as the DR
- CThe routers are configured with the same router ID.
- DThe routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.
85Which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose two.)
- AType 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries
- BType 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation
- CType 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous system
- DType 3 LSAs are known as router link entries
- EType 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas
86Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.4.0 in the R2 routing table?
- AThe network was learned from a router within the same area as R2
- BThe network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR
- CThe network can be reached through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface
- DThis network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks
87Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered planning steps? (Choose three.)
- AVerify OSPF
- BConfigure OSPF
- CDefine the OSPF parameters.
- DGather the required parameters
- ETroubleshoot the configurations
- FDefine the network requirements
88The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0?
- Aarea 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248
- Barea 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0
- Carea 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0
- Darea 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248
89Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the O IA in the router output?
- AThe route was manually configured
- BThe route was learned from within the area
- CThe route was learned from outside the internetwork
- DThe route was learned from another area
90Which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF area?
- Ashow ip ospf database
- Bshow ip ospf interface
- Cshow ip ospf neighbor
- Dshow ip route ospf
Informações
- Descrição
- CCNA 3 Final Exam (Objective): CH 1-9
- Autor
- Anthony Schulmeister
- Idioma
- English
- Visualizações
- 60
- Etiquetas
- Avaliação
- Ainda sem avaliações Avalie este quiz