5685532
Descrição
Quiz por Rachel Nall, atualizado more than 1 year ago
|
Criado por Rachel Nall
quase 8 anos atrás
|
|
Questão 1
Questão
What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?
Responda
-
Benzodiazepines
-
Opioids
-
Anticholinergics
-
Antisialogue
Questão 2
Questão
[blank_start]Midazolam[blank_end] is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is [blank_start]1[blank_end] to [blank_start]2[blank_end] milligrams IV.
Responda
-
Midazolam
-
1
-
2
Questão 3
Questão
Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?
Responda
-
Anxiety
-
Sedation
-
Amnesia
-
Analgesia
Questão 4
Questão
What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?
Responda
-
Benzodiazepines
-
Opioids
-
Antislalogues
-
Anticholinergics
Questão 5
Questão
Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?
Responda
-
Fentanyl
-
Morphine
-
Dilaudid
-
Demerol
Questão 6
Questão
What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?
Responda
-
25-100 mcg
-
25 to 50 mcg
-
5 to 15 mg
-
20 to 80 mcg
Questão 7
Questão
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?
Responda
-
Absence of direct myocardial depression
-
Less narcotic requirement postoperatively
-
Reduction of pain before placing lines pre-operatively
-
Depression of the medullary ventilatory center
Questão 8
Questão
Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:
Responda
-
Decreased responsiveness to CO2
-
Relaxation of the peripheral vascular smooth muscle
-
Nausea and vomiting
-
Risk of gastric aspiration
-
Direct myocardial depression
-
Greater post-op requirements for pain medications
Questão 9
Questão
What is the recommended dose for morphine?
Responda
-
5 to 15 mg
-
2 to 10 mg
-
10 to 20 mg
-
5 to 15 mcg
Questão 10
Questão
[blank_start]Robinol[blank_end] is the typical anticholinergic given.
Responda
-
Robinol
Questão 11
Questão
Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.
Responda
-
Antislalogue
-
Sedative and amnesic
-
Central nervous system toxicity
-
Relaxation of LES
-
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
Questão 12
Questão
Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.
Responda
-
Antislalogue
-
Sedative and amnesic effects
-
Central nervous system toxicity
-
Relaxation of LES
-
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
Questão 13
Questão
[blank_start]Mydriasis[blank_end] is dilation of the pupil. [blank_start]Scopolamine[blank_end] can cause this.
Responda
-
Mydriasis
-
Scopolamine
Questão 14
Questão
Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?
Responda
-
Intraoral procedures
-
Bronchoscopy
-
Fiberoptic intubations
-
Supine cases
-
Lateral cases
Questão 15
Questão
What are the effects of atropine?
Responda
-
Antisialagogue
-
Sedative and amnesic
-
Central nervous system toxicity
-
Relaxation of the LES
-
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
Questão 16
Questão
[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.
Responda
-
Anticholinergics
Questão 17
Questão
Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?
Responda
-
Atropine
-
Scopolamine
-
Robinol
Questão 18
Questão
What is the dose for atropine?
Responda
-
0.3 to 0.6 mg
-
1 to 6 mg
-
0.3 to 0.6 mcg
-
1 to 6 mcg
Questão 19
Questão
The therapeutic dose for Robinol is [blank_start]0.1[blank_end] mg IV.
Responda
-
0.1
Questão 20
Questão
Anticholinergics don't have selective action to receptors. They can cause a blockade of [blank_start]muscarinic[blank_end] receptors in the CNS. As a result, you need to administer an anticholinergic along with a medication like [blank_start]neostigmine[blank_end].
Responda
-
muscarinic
-
neostigmine
Questão 21
Questão
What conditions should NOT give you pause in administering an anticholinergic?
Responda
-
CAD
-
Mitral/Aortic stenosis
-
Atrial fibrillation
-
Bradycardia
Questão 22
Questão
[blank_start]Proton pump inhibitors[blank_end] suppress acid secretion in response to all primary stimulants: histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine.
Responda
-
Proton pump inhibitors
Questão 23
Questão
The three medications in the triple-threat aspiration prophylaxis are: [blank_start]Bicitra[blank_end], [blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end], and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end].
Responda
-
Bicitra
-
Pepcid
-
Raglan
Questão 24
Questão
What is the dose for Bicitra?
Responda
-
15 to 30 ml
-
10 to 20 ml
-
1 to 3 ml
-
5 to 15 ml
Questão 25
Questão
What is the dose for Tagamet?
Responda
-
200 to 300 mg
-
100 to 150 mg
-
25 to 100 mg
-
250 to 350 mg
Questão 26
Questão
What is the dose for Zantac IV?
Responda
-
25 mg
-
50 mg
-
75 mg
-
100 mg
Questão 27
Questão
What is the dose for Pepcid?
Responda
-
200 to 300 mg
-
150 mg
-
20 to 40 mg
Questão 28
Questão
An [blank_start]H2 antagonist[blank_end] counters the ability of histamine to induce secretion of gastric fluid with a high concentration of H* ions.
Responda
-
H2 antagonist
Questão 29
Questão
Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?
Responda
-
Prilosec
-
Protonix
-
Nexium
-
Prevacid
-
Pepcid
Questão 30
Questão
[blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end] is the most common H2 antagonist. The typical dose is [blank_start]20[blank_end] to [blank_start]40[blank_end] mg PO.
Responda
-
Pepcid
-
20
-
40
Questão 31
Questão
[blank_start]Prokinetics[blank_end] are responsible for a decrease in gastric fluid volume.
Responda
-
Prokinetics
Questão 32
Questão
What is the dose for Raglan?
Responda
-
5 mg IV
-
10 mg IV
-
15 mg IV
-
20 mg IV
Questão 33
Questão
[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end] can work against each other as one can relax the LES and the other can increase LES.
Responda
-
Anticholinergics
-
Raglan
Questão 34
Questão
Prokinetics like Reglan alter gastric pH.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 35
Questão
What is an example of an alpha 2 agonist?
Responda
-
Clonidine
-
Atropine
-
Decadron
-
Haldol
Questão 36
Questão
What is the dose for Clonidine?
Responda
-
0.1 to 0.3 mg
-
1 to 2 mg
-
20 to 40 mg
-
0.1 to 1 mg
Questão 37
Questão
Which of the following isn't an effect of clonidine?
Responda
-
Central-acting anti-hypertensive
-
Sedation
-
Reduces incidence of MI during surgery
-
Tachycardia
Questão 38
Questão
[blank_start]Antihistamines[blank_end] are recommended for pre-medication in patients undergoing high-risk procedures, like radiography dye studies.
Responda
-
Antihistamines
Questão 39
Questão
What is NOT an example of a case when you would administer a GI prophylaxis for N/V?
Responda
-
Patients with a history of PONV
-
Laparoscopic procedures
-
Women undergoing gynecologic procedures
-
Radiographic dye studies
Questão 40
Questão
Which of the following is not an induction agent?
Responda
-
Succinylcholine
-
Propofol
-
Etomidate
-
Brevital
Questão 41
Questão
The [blank_start]reticular activating system[blank_end] is a polysynaptic pathway that travels from the brainstem to the cerebral cortex that is intimately concerned with the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
Responda
-
reticular activating system
Questão 42
Questão
It's likely most of the anesthetic agents exert depressant effects on the RAS.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 43
Questão
What is the induction dose of thiopental?
Responda
-
1 to 5 mg/kg
-
3 to 6 mg/kg
-
5 to 10 mg/kg
-
10 to 15 mg/kg
Questão 44
Questão
What should you reconstitute thiopental with?
Responda
-
Isotonic sodium chloride
-
Lactated ringer's
-
Acidic solution
-
Vecuronium
Questão 45
Questão
Accidental intra-arterial injection is a serious concern for [blank_start]thiopental[blank_end].
Responda
-
thiopental
Questão 46
Questão
[blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] works through the facilitation of inhibitory neurotransmission mediated by GABA receptor.
Responda
-
Propofol
Questão 47
Questão
The induction dose for Propofol is:
Responda
-
1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
-
100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
-
25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
Questão 48
Questão
The maintenance infusion for general anesthesia for Propofol is:
Responda
-
1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
-
100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
-
25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
Questão 49
Questão
The maintenance infusion for sedation for Propofol is:
Responda
-
1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
-
100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
-
25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
Questão 50
Questão
A person with an egg allergy can't receive Propofol.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 51
Questão
[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] works by binding to a subunit of the GABA type A receptor. This increases its affinity for GABA, which causes depression of the RAS.
Responda
-
Etomidate
Questão 52
Questão
What is the induction dosage for Etomidate?
Responda
-
0.2 to 0.3 mg/kg
-
1 to 3 mg/kg
-
20 to 40 mg/kg
-
0.1 to 0.5 mg/kg
Questão 53
Questão
Etomidate has minimal effects on the CV system.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 54
Questão
Both [blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] and [blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] cause pain on injection. You can mix them with lidocaine.
Responda
-
Etomidate
-
Propofol
Questão 55
Questão
[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] can cause myoclonus.
Responda
-
Etomidate
Questão 56
Questão
The induction dose for Brevital is:
Responda
-
1 - 3 mg/kg
-
2 - 4 mg/kg
-
5 to 10 mg/kg
-
10 to 15 mg/kg
Questão 57
Questão
Brevital is cleared by the liver at a [blank_start]faster[blank_end] rate than thiopental.
Responda
-
faster
Questão 58
Questão
Sux increases the following:
1. [blank_start]Intraocular[blank_end] pressure
2. [blank_start]Intragastric[blank_end] pressure
3. [blank_start]Intracranial[blank_end] pressure
4. [blank_start]Serum potassium levels[blank_end]
Responda
-
Intraocular
-
Intragastric
-
Intracranial
-
Serum potassium levels
Questão 59
Questão
The dosage for succinylcholine is:
Responda
-
0.5 - 2 mg/kg
-
1 - 1.5 mg/kg
-
2 - 2.5 mg/kg
-
3 - 5 mg/kg
Questão 60
Questão
Succinylcholine is a [blank_start]depolarizing[blank_end] agent.
Responda
-
depolarizing
Questão 61
Questão
Name the four M's of succinylcholine:
1. [blank_start]Malignant hyperthermia[blank_end]
2. [blank_start]Myalgias[blank_end]
3. [blank_start]Myocardium[blank_end]
4. [blank_start]Myopathies[blank_end]
Responda
-
Malignant hyperthermia
-
Myalgias
-
Myocardium
-
Myopathies
Questão 62
Questão
Medications like vecuronium, rocuronium, pancuronium, and cistracurium are [blank_start]nondepolarizing[blank_end] blocking drugs.
Responda
-
nondepolarizing
Questão 63
Questão
What is the incubation dose for vecuronium?
Responda
-
0.08 to 0.1 mg/kg
-
1 to 8 mg/kg
-
5 to 15 mg/kg
Questão 64
Questão
How long does an intubating dose of vecuronium last?
Responda
-
5 minutes
-
10 minutes
-
20 minutes
-
one hour
Questão 65
Questão
What type of patient wouldn't be a good candidate for vecuronium?
Responda
-
Cardiac dysfunction
-
Liver/Kidney dysfunction
-
Diabetes
-
Lung disease
Questão 66
Questão
What is the intubation dose for Rocuronium?
Responda
-
0.1 mg/kg
-
1 mg/kg
-
2 mg/kg
-
5 mg/kg
Questão 67
Questão
Rocuronium has a longer duration of intubating dose than vecuronium.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 68
Questão
Intubating dose for Atracurium is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.5[blank_end] mg/kg.
Responda
-
0.4
-
0.5
Questão 69
Questão
The intubation dose for Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is:
Responda
-
0.2 mg/kg
-
1 mg/kg
-
5 mg/kg
-
10 mg/kg
Questão 70
Questão
Cisatracurium is less potent than atracurium.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 71
Questão
Which two neuromuscular agents are those that are eliminated via Hoffman elimination:
Responda
-
Atracurium and Cisatracurium
-
Vecuronium and Rocuronium
-
Atracurium and Rocuronium
-
Cisatracurium and Rocuronium
Questão 72
Questão
Which of the following is NOT an action of inhaled anesthetics?
Responda
-
Immobility
-
Amnesia
-
CNS Depression
-
Analgesia
-
Muscle relaxation
Questão 73
Questão
MAC stands for [blank_start]minimum alveolar concentration[blank_end].
Responda
-
minimum alveolar concentration
Questão 74
Questão
The MAC of nitrous oxide is [blank_start]105[blank_end] percent.
Responda
-
105
Questão 75
Questão
Nitrous oxide shouldn't be avoided in patients with the following:
Responda
-
At-risk for nausea and vomiting
-
In pregnancy
-
With suspected bowel blockage
-
At-risk for diffusion into air-containing cavities
Questão 76
Questão
Nitrous oxide is more soluble than nitrogen in the blood.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 77
Questão
The MAC of isoflurane (Forane) is [blank_start]1.2[blank_end] percent.
Responda
-
1.2
Questão 78
Questão
Non depolarizing NMBAs are potentiated by [blank_start]isoflurane[blank_end].
Responda
-
isoflurane
Questão 79
Questão
The MAC of desflurane is [blank_start]6[blank_end] percent.
Responda
-
6
Questão 80
Questão
The only difference between isoflurane and desflurane is the substitution of a [blank_start]fluorine[blank_end] atom for isoflurane's [blank_start]chlorine[blank_end] atom.
Responda
-
fluorine
-
chlorine
Questão 81
Questão
Which anesthetic gas requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer?
Responda
-
Desflurane
-
Isoflurane
-
Sevoflurane
-
Nitrous oxide
Questão 82
Questão
Wakeup times for [blank_start]desflurane[blank_end] are 50 percent less than those observed following isoflurane.
Responda
-
desflurane
Questão 83
Questão
The MAC of sevoflurane is [blank_start]2[blank_end] percent.
Responda
-
2
Questão 84
Questão
[blank_start]Sevoflurane[blank_end] is an excellent induction agent for pediatric patients because it is non-pungent.
Responda
-
Sevoflurane
Questão 85
Questão
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sevoflurane?
Responda
-
Production of compound A
-
Shouldn't be used in longer cases
-
Higher fresh gas flows of at least 2 liters
-
Is degraded by desiccated CO2 absorbent into potentially clinically significant levels of carbon monoxide
Questão 86
Questão
[blank_start]Non depolarizing[blank_end] muscle relaxants act by competing with ACh for nicotinic cholinergic receptors for binding sites, which results in a blockade of neuromuscular transmission.
Responda
-
Non depolarizing
-
Depolarizing
Questão 87
Questão
Neostigmine is an [blank_start]anticholinesterase[blank_end]. It works by inhibiting the amount of acetylcholine available to compete with nondepolarizing agents.
Responda
-
anticholinesterase
Questão 88
Questão
The dosage for neostigmine is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.8[blank_end] mg/kg.
Responda
-
0.8
-
0.4
Questão 89
Questão
Neostigmine's duration is [blank_start]one hour[blank_end], give or take.
Responda
-
one hour
Questão 90
Questão
Sugammadex (Bridion) is FDA-approved to reverse [blank_start]rocuronium[blank_end] and [blank_start]vecuronium[blank_end].
Responda
-
rocuronium
-
vecuronium
Quer criar seus próprios Quizzes gratuitos com a GoConqr? Saiba mais.