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Questions in this quiz (200)
1Two machines are to be compared. A sample of 100 pieces of manufactured product is taken from each machine and their measurements recorded each day of the week. Which control chart is the most appropriate to compare the results from the two machines over time?
- AI chart
- BXbar and r chart
- CMR chart
- DXbar and S chart
2You have been observing an operation for several days and have collected a long list of incidents regarding production stoppages and downtime due to equipment failures. Which of the following provides the best strategy going forward?
- ATPM
- B5S
- CContinuous flow manufacturing
- DPoka-yoke
3Which of the following losses are related to the performance efficiency measure in the OEE index?
- AIdling, stoppages, reduced speed
- BSetup, running, cleanup
- CIdling, stoppages, increased speed
- DWaiting, running, setup
4An engineering organization is frustrated with the length of time it takes to push through engineering changes. The quality of the changes has never been an issue. What approach would you recommend for improvement?
- AUse Pareto analysis to understand major barriers in the process; Perform an FMEA to identify and prioritize process failures; Experiment to sort out which process failures have the greatest impact; Redesign and implement a new engineering change process.
- BUse control charts to establish a baseline for the length of time it takes to push through engineering changes and characterize the problem; value stream map the process to identify bottlenecks and areas of waste; experiment with a new, streamline process; implement a control plan to ensure the new process is sustained.
- CAssess the knowledge and skill levels of everyone; provide remedial training to close any knowledge/skill gaps; reassess to make sure the procedure is being followed correctly.
- DClear the backlog of engineering changes with temporary engineers; use control charts to measure the process cycle times; provide incentives to expedite the process; identify bottlenecks and add incremental staff to sustain throughput.
5A company has undergone a series of process improvement projects. After re-analysis of the measurement system, the company found the part-to-part variation to be 60% and the gage R&R to be 35%. Which statement is true?
- AThe part-to-part variation is unacceptable.
- BBoth the measurement system and the part-to-part variation are unacceptable.
- CThe measurement system is not acceptable.
- DThe measurement system is acceptable.
6In the purification of pharmaceutical manufacturing, the conductivity of the chemicals used was found to have a big influence on the final yield. The chemicals are prepared manually by engineers using a mixed and heater. What does the technical team need to do for the yield to increase so that the process is under control?
- AHave a control plan that has a control chart for yield.
- BHave a control plan so that engineers are controlled to give a consistent mixing and heating temperature while preparing chemicals for the purification step.
- CHave a control plan for some of the inputs of the process and process conditions.
- DIdentify the inputs that impact the process yield and have control limits for all the inputs within a specification limit.
7During which DMAIC phase does knowledge management become most critical?
- AMeasure
- BControl
- CAnalyze
- DImprove
8When deciding the best format for documenting standard work, which of the following would be a main consideration?
- AStorage requirements and space considerations
- BEcological considerations for recycling efforts
- CDeadlines imposed by the internal review process
- DHow the documents will be used and at what skill level
9Six Sigma teams can face resistance to process changes. Which of the following is one way to mitigate such resistance?
- AProvide training to process owners and staff.
- BDocument changes in a new company policy.
- CPublish changes in the company newsletter.
- DGive briefings to the entire workforce.
10Which of these is a basic charting option to graphically represent a univariate data set collected over a specific period of time?
- AScatter diagram
- BPareto chart
- CRun chart
- DC chart
11A DMADV approach is appropriate in which of the following situations?
- AThe current process to produce the product creates too many defects.
- BA current product or process cost needs to be reduced by 5%.
- CA new product or process needs the design parameters refined and optimized.
- DA new or current produce or process needs to be developed to meet customer requirements.
12A quick service restaurant chain routinely asks customers their opinions of food products during the design process. This is an example of which of the following?
- ADesign for Six Sigma
- BFailure mode and effects analysis
- CDesign verification
- DRobust design
13Design for maintainability of a component or subsystem would most significantly affect which of the following metrics?
- AMTBF
- BMTTF
- COEE
- DMTTR
14Using snap-fit interlocks for connections in a product design is best described as an example of which of the following DFX approaches?
- ADesign for Six Sigma
- BDesign for manufacturability
- CDesign for maintainability
- DDesign for test
15How can a linear relationship between a quality characteristic and a control factor be used to improve the quality of the product?
- AIt can be used to attenuate the sensitivity of the quality characteristic to noise.
- BIt can be used to adjust the target value of the quality characteristic given the capability.
- CIt can be used to shift the mean to the target value of the quality characteristic.
- DIt can be used to reduce the variation in the quality characteristic.
16What is the purpose of tolerance design?
- ATo justify the increase in cost of product for increased quality
- BTo determine the contribution of noise factors to the quality loss
- CTo pursue quality improvement after signal-to-noise ratio has been minimized.
- DTo pursue quality improvement after signal-to-noise ratio has been maximized.
17According to the Taguchi quadratic loss function, what would happen if the quality characteristic of a product is equal to a finite non-zero target value?
- AThe slope of the loss function would be non-zero.
- BThe loss would not be visible to the customer.
- CThe quality loss coefficient would be zero.
- DThe average loss would be zero.
18Which one of the following is a useful methodology for problem solving?
- AHazard plotting
- BVisual inspection
- CPlan, do, check, act
- DAdvanced product quality planning (APQP)
19Which of these statements best describes the origins of Six Sigma?
- AThe Six Sigma approach was an outgrowth of the "Toyota Way", which, in turn, was developed based upon the teachings of Dr. W. Edwards Deming.
- BSix Sigma was started at General Electric under Jack Welch based upon the problem-solving principles espoused in the 1930s by Walter Shewhart.
- CDr. Joseph Juran formulated the Six Sigma methodology as an outgrowth of the application of statistical methods in World War II.
- DThe Six Sigma approach began at Motorola in the early 1980s and was an outgrowth of the application of statistical methods to problem solving.
20Which one of the following statements best describes why companies find implementing lean to be valuable?
- ALean systematically identifies and eliminates or reduces waste, which creates value for the organization.
- BLean translates customer requirements into technical specifications to assure outstanding products or services are produced.
- CLean is a way that prevents errors or mistakes from producing waste in the production cycle.
- DLean ensures that processes operate so that products or services meet or exceed customer requirements.
21Which one of the following statements best describes Six Sigma and lean tools product and process design application?
- ASix Sigma applies poka yoke and kanban in the new product and process design followed by the lean application of product and process FMEAs to assure the prevention of all possible failure modes.
- BSix Sigma operationally defines the product development gateways and measures the effectiveness of the product and process design while lean applies product and process FMEAs to achieve one-piece flow and pull.
- CSix Sigma applies QFD and FMEAs to assure capability to meet customer requirements with lean tools applied in the design of the production processes to assure a mistake-proofed, pull system with one-piece flow.
- DSix Sigma applies SPC and root cause analysis to solve product design and process issues and lean applies spaghetti diagrams and value stream analysis for the new process design.
22Which of the following statements best describes why optimizing all of the individual processes in an organization necessarily sub-optimizes the whole organization?
- AThe best way to optimize the whole organization is to optimize its parts either one-at-a-time or using some design of experiments approach.
- BFocus on satisfying the customer requirements will necessarily optimize the whole organization.
- CThe processes within the organization are interconnected; the inputs of some are the result of the outputs of others.
- DOptimizing the entire system requires sub-processes to sacrifice to work together to produce the best output (products/services) for their customers.
23Individuals or groups affected by work inputs and outputs are examples of which of the following?
- ACustomers
- BProcess owners
- CProcess stakeholders
- DEmployees
24When considering design for Six Sigma on new products, Porter's five forces take into account which of thefollowing?
- ABargaining power of suppliers, bargaining power of buyers, and bargaining power of labor.
- BThreat of substitute products or services, threats of new entrants to the industry, and threat of government intervention.
- CBargaining power of suppliers, threat of substitute products or services, and level of competitive rivalry between existing firms.
- DBargaining power of buyers, threat of substitute products or services, and threat of government intervention.
25Which of the following is a limitation of SWOT analysis?
- ASituation changing over time
- BLack of planned change
- CLack of objectivity in the analysis
- DLack of resources to do an analysis
26A Six Sigma black belt is trying to figure out why a project to reduce errors on invoices is not able to be implemented after the team had successfully tested it in the sales office. What tool should the team use?
- AProcess failure mode and effects analysis
- BForce field analysis
- CBrainstorming
- DActivity network diagram
27The responsibilities of a Six Sigma black belt include which of the following?
- AThe Six Sigma black belt trains and mentors green belts as well as leads improvement projects using specified methodologies such as DMAIC.
- BThe Six Sigma black belt ensures projects are aligned with the organization's strategic goals and priorities, provides the Six Sigma team with resources, and removes organizational barriers for the team.
- CThe Six Sigma black belt coordinates the various functions and work activities at all levels of a process and has the authority or ability to make changes in the process as required.
- DWhile retaining a regular position within the company, the Six Sigma black belt assists on the project by helping the team utilize Six Sigma tools and methods.
28To overcome organizational roadblocks and manage change successfully, which one of the following is the first step top management needs to do?
- ACreate a vision statement
- BPlan for and create short-term wins
- CEstablish a sense of purpose and urgency
- DForm a powerful guiding council
29Leaders of a traditional supply chain organization who want their organization to become a Six Sigma organization must do which of the following?
- AInsist that its existing suppliers also become Six Sigma organizations
- BCommunicate clearly and consistently to avoid resistance to change into a Six Sigma organization
- CAlign Six Sigma organizational goals of the company with those of key suppliers
- DIdentify Six Sigma black belt candidates to train to lead change efforts
30Which of the following have a vested interest in the process and/or its outcomes?
- AStakeholders
- BSuppliers
- CCustomers
- DSix Sigma black belts
31A Six Sigma project team is contemplating a potential change to a procedure on the shop floor that will eliminate and add several steps. To be successful, they must ensure to involve which of the following?
- AOperators
- BSecurity staff
- CHousekeeping staff
- DFinancial analysts
32Customers, whether internal or external, are responsible for communicating which of the following to their suppliers?
- APersonnel challenges
- BSpace constraints
- CRequirements
- DMargins
33Choose the best statement that explains the term "functional benchmarking" when applied from the perspective of a healthcare company.
- AFunctional benchmarking occurs when the healthcare company compares similar practices in another industry, ie IT or car manufacturer.
- BFunctional benchmarking occurs when the healthcare company compares similar practices only within its own company, ie across departments or divisions.
- CFunctional benchmarking occurs when the healthcare company compares similar practices only within the healthcare section, ie with direct competitors.
- DFunctional benchmarking occurs when the healthcare company compares similar practices only within the same department.
34Which of the following DMAIC phases are best suited to apply benchmarking?
- AMeasure and analyze
- BDefine and control
- CDefine and improve
- DMeasure and control
35Which of the following is the best performance measure applicable to a restaurant's efforts to increase the number of new customers?
- AIncrease the revenue from new customers
- BAverage number of new customers that visit each week
- CTotal number of parking spaces
- DAverage order delivery time
36An organization having operations in seven countries has taken up a process improvement project. The project team requires members from all the countries. Which of the following is the most appropriate type of team to be formed in this situation?
- ABlitz team
- BSelf-directed team
- CVirtual team
- DWorkgroup team
37Removal of organizational roadblocks and making sure that the team has proper resources is the duty of which of the following Six Sigma team roles?
- AChange agent
- BBlack belt
- CProcess owner
- DChampion
38On a Six Sigma team, whose primary function is it to promote effective team dynamics and use of project management principles?
- ANote-taker
- BLeader
- CFacilitator
- DTimekeeper
39Which Six Sigma role is associated with an individual who coordinates the various functions and work activities at all levels of a process and has the authority or ability to make changes in the process as required?
- AChampion
- BFacilitator
- CProcess owner
- DBlack belt
40What is typically done during your first team meeting, when it is expected that the team will be together for more than a few meetings?
- ADiscuss departmental constraints
- BBrainstorm ideas
- CDiscuss solutions
- DSet ground rules
41A team leader has several options to deal with a first-time, disruptive team member. Rank order the following options from most desirable to least desirable.
1. Expel the member from the team. Disruption should not be allowed.
2. Do nothing. The behavior may be uncharacteristic and may not repeat.
3. Have an offline conversation with the team member.
4. Have a confrontation with the team member during the meeting.- A1, 4, 3, 2
- B2, 3, 4, 1
- C2, 4, 1, 3
- D1, 3, 4, 2
42In which of the following team development stages do members cautiously explore boundaries of acceptable group behavior?
- AStorming
- BPerforming
- CForming
- DNorming
43As a team matures, its members go through a gradual process of learning to cope with emotional and group pressures. Which of the following is the correct sequence of this four-step process?
- AStorming, forming, norming, performing
- BStorming, norming, forming, performing
- CForming, storming, norming, performing
- DForming, norming, storming, performing
44Which of the following activities are performed in the adjourning stage of team growth?
- AThe team growth team activity is postponed to enable members to attend required training, collect data, etc.
- BThe work done by the team is recognized by management, rewards are distributed to the team members, and the team is disbanded.
- CThe team proves the sustainability of the solutions proposed and institutionalizes the solution.
- DThe last team meeting is held to discuss management's decisions regarding the project, residual work is completed, and the team is disbanded.
45If an improvement project taken up by a team is successful, there is a possibility that some of the jobs would become unnecessary. Why should this be communicated to the team members?
- AIt is important to promote an atmosphere of trust and credibility.
- BBecause they will find out later through informal communication channels.
- CEmployees don't need to know and they may not realize this.
- DThey might resist the successful completion of the project.
46When a person or group is reluctant to participate, which of these would be the best approach to make sure they are included?
- AMake action assignments for each person, with brief reports at the beginning of the next team meeting.
- BEmphasize the importance of basing decisions on facts from the first meeting onward.
- CProviding full opportunity for the expression of all views.
- DMake sure goals and objectives are clear and well understood at the first team meeting.
47Barbara is a team member who keeps asking questions to the other team members after they have spoken. The team leader can feel that some of the team members are unhappy with Barbara's questioning. What team dynamic is Barbara exhibiting?
- AReluctant
- BOverbearing
- CDominating
- DChallenging
48Managing team meetings requires step-by-step planning and execution. Rank order the following meeting steps from first to last:
1. Prepare an agenda and stick to it.
2. Schedule the meeting well in advance.
3. Start on time.
4. Be sure that key people are invited and that they plan to attend.- A1, 4, 2, 3
- B2, 1, 4, 3
- C1, 2, 4, 3
- D2, 4, 1, 3
49Why are meeting minutes prepared?
- ATo capture negative dynamics of the team
- BTo limit time spent on topics
- CTo keep meetings on track
- DTo provide a record of what was discussed
50While conducting a training needs analysis on a particular subject, the best option would be to do which of the following?
- AAssess the employees' current level of knowledge of that subject.
- BExclude employees who have already been trained on the subject.
- CTrain everyone - it refreshes their knowledge of the subject.
- DAllow employees who feel comfortable with the subject to exempt themselves.
51Which of the following modes of learning would be most effective for developing facilitation and conflict resolution skills?
- AObserving expert peers
- BSelf-study
- CRole playing
- DInstructor-led training
52Which one of the following techniques would be appropriate to evaluate the learning achieved by the trainees in a training program?
- AInterviews and collection of data at workplace
- BTrainee feedback after the training
- CPre-training and post-training tests
- DSurveys at the organizational level to assess improvement
53You have been assigned to conduct a training session on a newly improved process. You wish to assess the effectiveness of the training that can be attributed to this program. Which of these metrics would be most effective in achieving this goal?
- AProcess improvement metrics
- BA customer satisfaction assessment
- CA participant exam
- DEnd-of-unit assessments
54A customer ignores the service schedule for a vehicle and the engine sustains significant damage. The dealer processes a warranty claim. The vehicle manufacturer rejects the claim. Who is at fault for the product failure in this case?
- AThis is not a warranty issue.
- BThe external customer
- CThe internal customer
- DBoth internal and external customers are at fault for the failure.
55Which of the following customer feedback methods creates difficulty in clarifying customer feedback?
- AIn-person interview
- BWritten/mail survey
- CTelephone survey
- DFocus group
56There are four primary strategies commonly used to obtain information from or about customers and employees. An analytic description of the properties, processes, or conditions of a unit under study best describes which of the following?
- ASample survey
- BAvailable data
- CCase study
- DCensus
57Which of the following is the primary benefit of quality function deployment?
- ATo ensure designs are selected from validated concepts
- BTo ensure meaningful tolerances are utilized in manufacturing
- CTo ensure product objectives are based on customer requirements
- DTo eliminate control points
58Which of the following tools is most appropriate for translating customer requirements to technical requirements for each stage of product development and production?
- AKano model
- BQuality function deployment
- CSurveys
- DCustomer interviews
59Which of the following best describes quality function deployment?
- AA structured method for process flow and key measurement points
- BA structured method for relating actions to failure modes
- CA structured method for product planning and development in which customer's requirements are communicated throughout an organization
- DA structured method for measuring customer requirements and associating the measurement error
60Which of the following best describes critical to quality?
- AKey process steps in moving from one process to the next
- BImplementing layered audits of key process characteristics
- CManaging and measuring process variables that directly impact performance of the product in the hands of the customer
- DUtilizing quality management systems to achieve customer satisfaction
61What do the business benefits within the project charter define?
- ARisks to the project that must be mitigated
- BGoals and objectives of the project
- CIssues to be addressed through execution of the project
- DResults to the organization when the project achieves its goals
62Which of the following is the most significant factor to be considered in establishing Six Sigma project metrics?
- AAccuracy of measurement
- BProject timeline
- CCustomer needs
- DEase of measurement
63What is the function of the project scope statement as part of the overall project charter?
- ADefine the specific goals and objectives of the project.
- BDefine the business benefits of successful project completion.
- CDefine which processes the team will and will not address as part of the project.
- DDefine the current state of one or more processes adversely impacting the organization
64A critical success factor (CSF) for a project is to improve the financial performance of a particular process. Which measure below might be used to measure success of the project in meeting this CSF?
- AReturn on investment
- BKey performance indicators
- CNet present value
- DRolled throughput yield
65A Six Sigma project team has very limited time with an executive champion in an analyze phase review. Which of the following tools represents the best combination of quantifiable data and visual display to justify the team's selection of critical Xs from potential Xs?
- AANOVA table
- BPareto chart
- CQuality functional deployment matrix
- DCause and effect diagram
66Project scheduling and coordination requires tracking the time of multiple tasks. Which of these times is typically recorded within a Gantt chart?
- APessimistic completion time
- BOptimistic completion time
- CRealistic completion time
- DEnd-to-end completion time
67Which of the following represents the primary disadvantage of focusing exclusively on hard-dollar savings when assessing Six Sigma project benefits?
- AHard-dollar benefits are not considered to be tangible benefits.
- BHard-dollar benefit reduction does little to reduce hidden factory costs.
- CHard-dollar benefits are not a business priority.
- DHard-dollar benefits take more effort to calculate than other benefits.
68Which of the following is the best application of a work breakdown structure?
- AThere is a project requiring objectives aligned with the goals of the organization.
- BThere is a project requiring the decomposition of deliverables into individual tasks.
- CThere is a medium-sized project in need of a task execution sequence.
- DThe managerial philosophy does not impact the structure.
69What tool is best suited for condensing many inputs into a manageable number?
- AInterrelationship diagraph
- BAffinity diagram
- CTree diagram
- DMatrix diagram
70Which of the following is the best tool for discovering relationships between two groups of ideas?
- AProcess decision program chart (PDPC)
- BPrioritization matrix
- CForce field analysis
- DMatrix diagram
71When are prioritization matrices especially useful?
- ATo discover relationships between items
- BWhen teams need help producing numerous answers
- CWhen deciding among several choices with unequal benefits
- DTo facilitate multivoting
72Activity network diagrams are best used to do which of the following?
- ASimplify a PERT chart
- BDefine project scope
- CPlan and manage a project
- DUnderstand the relationship between two activities
73Which tool helps with definition, organization, and management of activities with respect to time?
- AScatter diagram
- BNominal group technique
- CTree diagram
- DActivity network diagram
74Which of the following describes a valid correlation coefficient (r) for a strong positive linear correlation between the number of parts defective and number of absent line operators?
- A-0.9
- B1.9
- C0.9
- D0
75Calculate the takt time from the following data: average demand for the product is 80 assembled units per day. The assembly area works two 8-hour shifts per day on a 5-day work week schedule.
- A60 minutes
- B18 minutes
- C6 minutes
- D12 minutes
76Value stream mapping is an effective tool directed at accomplishing which of the following?
- AIdentify material and information flows
- BEvaluate specific process steps needed to increase cycle time
- CEliminate all inspections in the process
- DDetermine the number of employees needed to meet takt time
77Which of the following tools are initiated in the measure phase of the DMAIC process?
- AQuality function deployment
- BCause and effect diagram
- CProcess map
- DFMEA
78Who should validate the effectiveness of a written procedure?
- AReviewer
- BWriter
- CUser
- DApprover
79Which of the following is a type of variable data?
- ARatio of defects per unit
- BProportion
- CGo/no-go information
- DMeasurement information
80Which of the following is an example of discrete data?
- ALength of a drill hole from a drilling operation
- BAmount of offset in millimeters used in a stamping operation
- CCycle time for a lathe operation
- DNumber of defects found in a final goods assembly dock audit
81Why is variable data preferred to attribute data?
- AIt is cheaper to get than attribute data
- BMore useful for designed experiments
- CAttribute data can be transformed
- DThe control charts are easier to construct
82A survey asks for the area code that is used for demographic analysis. This is an example of what type of measurement scale?
- ANominal
- BOrdinal
- CRatio
- DInterval
83Which of the following is the degree of agreement among measurements obtained from the measurement process being evaluated under prescribed conditions?
- ARepeatability
- BReproducibility
- CAccuracy
- DPrecision
84The accuracy error in measurement is also referred to as which of the following?
- ABias
- BReplication
- CPrecision
- DCorrection
85What is the measure of bias in a measurement system called?
- AReproducibility
- BRepeatability
- CAccuracy
- DPrecision
86An inspector improperly locates a component on the datums of an inspection device prior to taking a measurement. This is an example of what type of measurement error?
- ABias error
- BObservational error
- CGage error
- DManipulative error
87Which of the following is calculated by adding all the observations in a data set and then dividing by the number of observations?
- AMean
- BVariance
- CStandard deviation
- DMedian
88What is the mode for the following data set?
3, 5, 6, 9, 11, 13, 45- A42
- B13.14
- C9
- DThere is no mode.
89What is the mean for the following data set?
1, 1.5, 2.5, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 11.5, 11.5- A5.6
- B3.94
- C11.5
- D4.5
90Which one of the following is a measure of dispersion?
- AMedian
- BRange
- CMode
- DMean
91The cycle time of a machining operation is said to be normally distributed with a mean of 46.23 seconds and a standard deviation of 3 seconds. What is the probability that this operation will take less than 52.81 seconds?
- A0.0143
- B0.4857
- C1
- D0.9857
92Which distribution describes the probability of r occurrences in n trials of an event?
- AWeibull
- BNormal
- CBinomial
- DExponential
93Which of the following describes the distribution when the mean < median < mode?
- ASymmetric data about the median
- BSkewed left (negative)
- CRanked from lowest to highest
- DSkewed right (positive)
94When using statistical methods for data analysis, the most important step is to first do which of the following?
- ADetermine the average for the distribution
- BDetermine the shape of the distribution
- CDetermine the standard deviation for the distribution
- DDetermine if the process is in statistical control
95Calculate the Cp of the following:
USL = 6.32
LSL = 2.42
St dev = 1.45- A4.36
- B2.69
- C0.45
- D0.9
96If the upper and lower specification limits are set at 6sigma, the process capability ratio (Cp) is 2.0, and the process capability index (Cpk) is 1.5, which of the following is true about the process?
- AIt will produce no defects because process variation is so much less than the specification limits.
- BIt will be stable because the process specification limits are well beyond the process distribution.
- CIt will produce zero defects per million regardless of changes in the process average.
- DIt will produce less than 3.4 defects per million even with normal shifts in the process average.
97Find Cpk given a process average of 1.22, a value of 3sigma equal to 0.09 and an overall tolerance of 1.15 to 1.30.
- A0.89
- B0.39
- C0.26
- D0.78
98Given a runout tolerance of 0.003 in. max, a process average of 0.0025 in., and a calculated standard deviation (sigma) of 0.002 in., what can be said about this process?
- AThe process is not in control.
- BThe process is not capable.
- CThe process is not stable.
- DThe process is capable.
99Which of the following is a significant difference between the process capability indices (Cp, Cpk) and process performance indices (Pp, Ppk)?
- APp and Ppk can be used even if the process is out of control.
- BCp and Cpk can be used even if the process is out of control.
- CCp and Cpk can be used when the distribution is not a normal distribution.
- DPp and Ppk can be used when the distribution is not a normal distribution.
100Production and cost data for a new serum are listed below. Develop an equation that will allow the lab to estimate the cost of producing a given quantity of serum. Use the least-squares linear regression method to develop this model.
- Ay = 0.850202X + 13.68524
- By = 1.046996X - 9.70131
- Cy = 1.046996X + 9.70131
- Dy = -0.850202X + 13.68524
101For the linear regression data shown above to support least squares methods, the Sxy is equal to
- A440
- B896
- C0.48
- D1868.8
102For the linear regression data shown above to support least squares methods, the b0 is equal to
- A-4.808
- B0.48
- C4.808
- DThe inverse of b1
103Devise a sampling plan for obtaining a representative BTU sample from an open top railcar of carol, where the contents are known to have changed and also stratified due to vibration and exposure during the 10 days of shipment.
- ADraw a convenience sample from multiple points that can be easily accessed.
- BReceive a certificate of analysis from the supplier of a sample properly collected from the entire load at the time of loading, known that the coal got wet and dust blew off the open railcar.
- CDraw a slipstream sample by taking a representative slice of the bulk material as the car is being unloaded, being certain to capture all of the generated dust.
- DDraw a quota sample with one sample off the top and from five more standardized depths in the railcar.
104A total of 5,000 plastic bottles that require raw material traceability have been placed on hold. All the bottles were manufactured on the same molding machine and from the same raw material lot. When reworking these items, the rework department used the same bottles from another production date and raw material lot to fill in boxes where defective bottles were removed. These boxes were identified with both raw material lot numbers. What can be said about the use of these replacement bottles?
- AIt does not prevent lot traceability as long as all items were manufactured on the same machine.
- BIt does not prevent lot traceability as long as both raw material lots are listed on the finished product labels.
- CIt prevents lot traceability because two lots are now mixed together in some boxes.
- DIt prevents lot traceability because the product was reworked and some bottles were removed.
105The chief quality measure for your hospital is the customer satisfaction survey measured by a proper method. The data for all 16 quarters since the measure was started are given. What is the population standard deviation of the survey results?
- AThe standard deviation cannot be determined. The data are too skewed to be normally distributed.
- B0.79
- C3.17
- D3.07
106For a given sample mean and confidence level, when the sample size increases, the confidence interval
- Aremains the same
- Bincreases
- Cbehaves unpredictably
- Ddecreases
107One unbiased point estimator is considered more efficient than another if which of the following true?
- AIt has a larger prediction interval
- BIt has a larger variance
- CIt has a smaller variance
- DIt has a small confidence interval
108In the hypothesis test for means, if the test statistic is in the critical region, then you should do what?
- AReject the null hypothesis
- BDo not reject the null hypothesis
- CAccept the null hypothesis
- DReject the mean
109The chief operating officer wants to know if the 17th quarter's customer satisfaction survey result, 88, is a statistically significant improvement of the mean at the 95% confidence level and why? The following facts apply: the data are collected by a proper survey method and are normally distributed and two-tailed. The mean satisfaction result for the last 16 quarters is 85.8. The standard deviation of the population is 3.06. The standard error calculated by the data analysis software is 0.79 (n=15) (two-tailed t-statistic is 2.13).
- AYes. The upper limit of the 95% CI for the mean is less than 88 when corrected for the use of a population instead of a sample.
- BNo. The lower limit of the 95% CI for the mean is greater than 88.
- CNo, the mean is within the 95% CI.
- DUnable to form a conclusion. To determine a statistically valid answer, at least 30 quarters of data are required.
110Which of the following is required to determine the critical value from the F-table?
- AObserved frequency
- BTolerance interval
- CDegrees of freedom
- DTest statistic
111Which of the following is correct, assuming a critical value of 1.645 from a normal table, if the calculated z-statistic is derived from:
- AZ-statistic of 1.85 is greater than the critical value, so reject the H0
- BZ-statistic of 1.85 is greater than the critical value, so accept the H0.
- CZ-statistic of 1.85 is the critical value, so reject the H0.
- DZ-statistic of 1.85 is greater than the critical value, so do not reject the H0.
112The insurance quality analyst has seen a trend in emergency room errors. They seem to happen more frequently at the start of a shift. The insurance quality analyst finds that for a period of 30 consecutive days, the error rate collected by hour of occurrence has X2 of 12. What conclusions can be drawn?
- AProceed with a Kolmogorov-Smirnov analysis to assess the data because the data are ordinal and the expected theoretical distribution is a uniform distribution.
- BProceed to a McNemar test of nominal data where there is a correction for continuity of the X2 distribution.
- CSince the minimum X2 for alpha = 0.05 and seven degrees of freedom is 14.1, the test shows that there is more uniformity of errors across the shift than would be predicted by a normal distribution.
- DProceed to a runs test for ordinal data.
113One hundred people were surveyed to determine if green tea helps individuals lose weight. They were asked if they were on a diet and did they drink green tea. The responses are given. Assuming drinking tea is not related to losing weight, complete the chi-square table and calculated the expected values E1, E2, E3, and E4.
- AE1 = 21; E2 = 14; E3 = 9; E4 = 6
- BInsufficient data to determine expected values
- CE1 = 24; E2 = 12; E3 = 12; E4 = 4
- DE1 = 42; E2 = 28; E3 = 18; E4 = 12
114When do you reject the null hypothesis for a Mood's median test if populations being compared have different sample sizes?
- AIf calculated test statistic > critical value
- BMood's median test requires comparison of populations with equal sample sizes, so this is an inappropriate test.
- CIf calculated test statistic < critical value
- DIf probability of detection is medium
115A project team is creating a service delivery process. To test process design for potential customer dissatisfaction the team should use which of the following?
- AEmployee surveys
- BRegression analysis
- CFMEA
- DDeployment flowchart
116An FMEA is being constructed for the manufacture of a syringe cartridge. The team has developed risk ranking scale criteria for calculating the risk priority number (RPN). The team has assigned five values for ranking likelihood of occurrence (O), 10 values for ranking the risk associated with severity (S), and five values for ranking the risk associated with detection (D). Using this method will most likely do what?
- AGive occurrence and severity an equal representation in RPN.
- BGive severity a disproportionate representation in RPN.
- CEnsure all values for O, S, and D are equally represented in RPN.
- DEnsure RPN reflects the priority for addressing failure modes.
117The cycle time and lead time associated with a production process has been measured in this process map. As the quality manager, how can you best explain to senior executives your plan to improve the lead time in the system?
- AReview the current state value stream map with the senior executives
- BDeveloping documentation of the current state using a "swim lane" flow chart.
- CA gap analysis comparing the current state with the future state
- DA stated goal of "reducing the production lead time"
118A team was assembled and is using an 8D approach for its corrective action methodology. What tool could be used to help the team seek the root cause?
- APareto chart
- BFactor analysis
- CActivity network diagram
- DFMEA
119Which of the following is an example of blocking?
- ATwo factor effects that are represented by the same comparison are aliases of one another (ie, different names for the same computed effect).
- BPartitioning the total variation into components corresponding to several sources of variation in an experiment.
- CTo divide the experimental units into smaller, more homogeneous groups.
- DTrials are not fully randomized sets. This is in lieu of full randomization.
120The current Cpk of a wet impregnation process of platinum has been determined to be 1.5. The customer requires only 1.33 and has set minimum product specification at that point and knows that it is fit for use. What continuous improvement strategy can you recommend to the vice president of manufacturing?
- ALower the target for wet impregnation in small increments until the process achieves a Cpk of 1.4. Continue providing certificates of analysis to the customer.
- BLower the target for wet impregnation until the process achieves a Cpk of 1.2, because the internal quality cost for re-impregnating the "tail" product is less than the cost of the saved ingredient.
- CAllow the variability of the process to increase so that more of the product comes close to the minimum product specification, thereby saving expensive material.
- DNotify the customer of a possible process improvement to lower the target for wet impregnation until the process achieves a Cpk of 1.33.
121During an experimental run, setting a single level to a single factor is called what?
- ABalanced design
- BBlock
- CLevel
- DTreatment
122Which of the following best describes a controlled or uncontrolled variable whose influence on a response can be studied?
- AUnit
- BTreatment
- CFactor
- DLevel
123In DOE, which of the following best describes a treatment?
- AThe response for all factors in an experimental run
- BThe value of each level applied to a factor
- CThe value of each factor applied to a level
- DA level of a factor applied in an experiment
124The difference between the observed result and the predicted value for that result based on the empirically determined assumed model is called what?
- AResidual error
- BRelative error
- CRemainder error
- DPrecision error
125The inclusion of replication in an experimental design achieves which of the following?
- AReduces average cost per run
- BAssures clearer indication of interactions
- CPermits estimation of experimental error
- DReduces the need to run additional experiments
126Which of the following best describes an experimental model with both fixed and random effects?
- AMixed model
- BModel with replicates
- CLatin square design
- DCompletely randomized design
127Which of the following is the most common method of randomizing the sequence of experimental runs in a DOE?
- APull run numbers from a hat to determine sequence
- BAssign run number sequence based on their order of appearance in a random number table
- CAssign run number sequence based on their order in the alphabet
- DAssign run number sequence using DOE software
128In an experimental design, there are 8 machines that are run by 4 operators where the switching mechanism with 2 positions will be observed. What is the maximum number of factors in this experiment?
- A3
- B1
- C14
- D2
129When interactions are suspected with the factors being measured, what DOE experiment would be best to use?
- ARandomized block design
- BYouden square
- CLatin square
- DFactorial
130A DOE to study the effect of temperature (two levels) and pressure (two levels) on seal thickness gave the following results. Assuming no experimental error, which treatment indicates the best potential for optimum performance and why?
- AT+1P+1: this is the closest to the nominal thickness target and is an acceptable standard deviation.
- BT-1P+1: This is the lowest standard deviation and the delta likely can be shifted closer to the target.
- CNone. Insufficient information to make any judgment.
- DT-1P-1: This is the lowest combination of delta thickness and standard deviation.
131Which of the following DOE designs is most appropriate given the factor of temperature at three levels being run on three identical machines?
- AFractional factorial
- BPlackett Burman
- CRandomized block
- DCompletely randomized full factorial
132An experiment was planned to determine the effect of storage method on the roundness of tires. Thirty tires were randomly selected from one lot and 10 were assigned to each of three storage methods (hanging, edge sit and wall sit). Which of the following is the most appropriate experimental design?
- ACompletely randomized
- BYouden square
- CLatin square
- DFull factorial with blocking
133The data set below is from a completely randomized design (one factor experiment). What is the estimate of variance for Operator 1?
- A100
- B104.6
- C101.8
- D103
134The data set is from a completely randomized design (one factor experiment). What is the correction factor for this set of data?
- A218250
- B254625
- C203700
- D3055504
135The data set below is from a completely randomized design (one factor experiment). What is the correction factor for this set of data?
- A123704
- B69274
- C1731856
- D86593
136The concept behind the theory of constraints (TOC) is best described as
- Athe management of unforeseen problems
- Breducing failure costs due to equipment malfunctioning
- Cmanaging to optimize the entire system
- Dgetting the most out of the workforce
137A wire manufacturing company set up a system to replenish raw material from a supermarket. A red card signals to the purchasing department that an order from raw materials should be placed to restore inventory to the supermarket. What type of waste elimination system is the wire company using?
- AStandard work
- BBatch system
- CPull system
- DPush system
138During the final phase of DMAIC, specific requirement for product/service characteristics, specifications, methods for evaluation, control methods, and reaction methods should be issued as which of the following?
- AControl plan
- BDesign plan
- CSIPOC summary
- DValue stream summary
139Kaizen is a Japanese term that refers to which of the following?
- AStages of group development
- BSelf-managed one department work teams
- CContinuous, incremental improvement
- DRadical change
140Which of the following functions are responsible to use the concept of kaizen in functional roles and capabilities?
- ATop management only
- BExternal consultants only
- CSupervisors and workers
- DMiddle management and supervisors
141An architect would like his manager to approve revisions that he has made to his latest project. He created a smaller exact 3-D replica of the building for his boss to approve. What did the architect create?
- ASimulation
- BModel
- CPrototype
- DPilot
142A team has decided on an improvement solution using a ranking matrix. Next they develop a diagram that uses arrows pushing upward that illustrate all the driving forces to the improvement and arrows pushing downward showing all the restraining forces to the improvement solution. What is this diagram called?
- AFlowchart
- BForce-field analysis
- CFishbone diagram
- DFault tree analysis
143For a time-ordered variables control chart, which of the following is the correct reason why subgroups for variables control charts should be kept as small as possible?
- ASo ranges could be used instead of standard deviations
- BTo minimize sampling time
- CSo variation between subgroups is maximized
- DSo control limits may be narrower
144Which of the following is a key consideration for using the short run control charts?
- ADiscounting the discrimination of the measurement system since the data is coded
- BUsing a minimum of 20 subgroups
- CThe focus is strictly on the parts and not on the process
- DEase of using the median as the centerline
145For a range control chart, the 3s upper control limit is calculated by
- AA2 Rbar
- BRbar + D4Rbar
- C3.27Rbar
- DD4Rbar
146The number of blemishes in the pain finish on the hood of a car is being monitored. Each day a sample of 20-25 hoods is inspected. To monitor the number of blemishes per hood in the daily sample, which control chart is most appropriate to use?
- AP chart
- BNp chart
- CU chart
- DC chart
147A firm that manufactures stereo units has specifications set for the clarity of sound produced by the finished unit. Each day 100-200 units are inspected. The sample size is recorded along with the number of rejected items. The proportion of rejected items is calculated each day. Which control chart is most appropriate to use?
- ANp chart
- BC chart
- CU chart
- DP chart
148A control chart is to be kept on the temperature of a process recorded each day at noon. Which of the following is the most appropriate control chart to use?
- AC chart
- BI chart
- CU chart
- DP chart
149Which of the following is the primary goal of a total productive maintenance program?
- ATo ensure high machine utilization
- BTo minimize equipment downtime while maximizing throughput
- CTo efficiently utilize maintenance personnel
- DTo achieve takt time
150Which of the following methods provides the status and attention on the process in a simple way and allows anyone to know and interpret whether the process is operating properly?
- AMistake proofing
- B5S
- CVisual factory
- DKanban
151Which of the following sentences is correct about visual control?
- AIn the TPM, visual control is also known as misayoke.
- BThere are two application groups in visual control: display group and metric group.
- CVisual controls are designed to make the control and management of a company as simple as possible.
- DVisual control is defined as a visual scheduling method for achieving a smoother production flow.
152During a customer visit you are asked by the customer's plant manager about the process steps for part XYZ. You are unfamiliar with the part and process so what should you do?
- AInvite the customer to your organization so he/she can observe the process in person.
- BShow the customer the bill of materials for part XYZ.
- CShow the customer the plant layout which has all the equipment in the process.
- DAsk the customer to wait while you call your organization to get a copy of the control plan.
153During the final phase of DMAIC, specific requirements for product/service characteristics, specifications, method for evaluation, control methods, and reaction methods should be issues as which of the following?
- AControl plan
- BSIPOC summary
- CControl chart
- DCommissioning meeting
154Which of the following is the primary benefit of a lessons learned process?
- AOngoing evaluation
- BTraining plan deployment
- CDocumentation
- DProviding a mechanism for organizational memory
155Which of the following is a disciplined process used to ensure product information documentation is maintained to the most current revision?
- AConfiguration management
- BDocument check out and return
- CBlueprint control
- DRecord retention
156What is the first step in the training development process?
- ADetermine the measurement criteria
- BSet the training schedule
- CIdentify the instructors
- DComplete a training needs analysis
157What is the primary purpose of a control plan?
- ATransfer responsibility from the project team to the process owner.
- BExplain reaction plans.
- CControl the outputs of the SIPOC.
- DDetermine if the process is in control.
158When using the DMADV methodology, in the final phase, you should do which of the following?
- AVerify design performance and its ability to meet customer needs
- BVoice all concerns still remaining after the product has been designed
- CVisit customers to ensure designs are performing as intended
- DValidate the assumptions used to design the product
159Which of the following tools can be best used to prioritize customer needs and translate them into technical requirements?
- ASurvey
- BTRIZ
- CPugh analysis
- DQuality function deployment
160Evolutionary operations (EVPO) is a tool used to achieve which of the following?
- ACreate a multi-generational product or process plan.
- BUnderstand customer requirements.
- COptimize the design parameters.
- DCreate a roadmap for operations.
161Ensuring that a product may be easily disassembled is best described as an example of which of the following DFX approaches?
- ADesign for manufacturability
- BDesign for robustness
- CDesign for test
- DDesign for maintainability
162Value engineering and value analysis disciplines are pillars for organizations focusing on which of the following?
- ADesign for reliability
- BDesign for repairability
- CDesign for manufacturability
- DDesign for cost (also, design to cost)
163Assuming the variation of the width of each disk in a stack of three disks is normally distributed with a standard deviation of 1 inch, and the specified tolerance for the width of each disk is set at three standard deviations, the statistical tolerance for the width of the stack of three disks would be most nearly which of the following?
- A3 inches
- B4.24 inches
- C5.20 inches
- D1.73 inches
164What is an alternative to robust design in improving the quality of a product?
- AScreening out the bad products
- BOptimizing the control factors of the product to make it insensitive to noise factors
- CExploiting the non-linearity or relationship between the product parameters, quality characteristics, and noise factors
- DObserving the many design parameters simultaneously using an orthogonal way
165Which continuous improvement/problem solving methodology is best suited for assessing, changing and controlling process/products?
- AIshikawa's fishbone diagram
- BDeming's 14 points
- CShewhart cycle
- DGoldratt's Theory of Constraints
166Which strategic planning tool is used to align strategy, goals, and improvement efforts across an organization?
- ASWOT analysis
- BBusiness continuity planning
- CHoshin Kanri
- DPEST analysis
167The relationship between lean and Six Sigma is best described in which of the following statements?
- AThere is no relationship; lean is used for streamlining flow and eliminating waste. Six Sigma is used for data-driven problem solving.
- BBoth improve processes; lean optimizes flow while Six Sigma uses statistical methods to reduce costs while dramatically improving quality.
- CBoth improve processes; lean optimizes flow while Six Sigma uses statistical methods to reduce costs while gradually improving quality.
- DBoth improve processes; Six Sigma optimizes flow while lean uses statistical methods to reduce costs while dramatically improving quality.
168A spaghetti or workflow diagram is used to identify which one of the following types of wastes?
- ADefects
- BOverproduction
- CWaiting
- DMotion
169Many organizations attempting to implement Six Sigma philosophies do not generate success similar to the early creators, GE and Allied Signal. Which of the following is the most important root cause for companies such as this?
- AManagement did not create the balance between the technical elements of Six Sigma and the cultural elements that will make the technical elements more effective.
- BThere was not effective measurement for the improvement; thus, no recognized accomplishment will be recorded or remembered.
- CThe companies did not know how to find good green belt, black belt, and master black belt team members or train the right people to become green belts, black belts, and master black belts.
- DThere was not enough technical support from management since most of top management did not understand the statistics tools for Six Sigma.
170A team plans improvements at a system level. The process map is created. What is the lowest level of process map called?
- ASub-processes
- BSystems
- CSteps
- DProcesses
171In a hierarchy of design needs, which priority comes first?
- ARegulatory requirements
- BCustomer requirements
- CStakeholder requirements
- DProfit
172Which of the following statements describes a step in Hoshin planning?
- AHire persons or groups accountable for strategies.
- BDevelop a statement of the organization's goals.
- CComplete PERT charts to track progress.
- DState the organization's mission and purpose.
173A Six Sigma black belt is working on a charter for a new design for Six Sigma project. Which of the following tools should be used to identify the various stakeholders and assure successful implementation?
- ASIPOC
- BFlowchart
- CForce field diagram
- DOrganization chart
174To manage change, how should managers communicate the change?
- ABy explaining the change and identifying barriers for the change
- BWith a formal communication plan
- COnce in writing to avoid confusion over redundant messages
- DSeveral ways, several times over a span of time
175Which of the following is an effective way to make everyone in an organization understand that making improvements is an important part of their job?
- AProvide incentives for the contribution of ideas
- BAsk all managers to incorporate improvement goals for their teams
- CProvide incentives for the improvements made
- DAllocate down-time for employees to think and brainstorm
176What could be the most likely reason for a failed Six Sigma deployment in an organization?
- AResistance to change by the employees
- BFailure to restructure the organization and remove the barriers
- CIneffective endorsement by the top leadership
- DInability to retain key resources resulting in loss of sustained control
177The most effective Six Sigma projects involve which of the following?
- ASuppliers
- BCustomers
- CStakeholders
- DDesign engineers
178A Six Sigma team is redesigning a product to fit a different purpose, which will likely change some of the requirements. For its project to be successful, it has to make sure to include which of the following?
- AThe suppliers
- BThe marketing department
- CThe owners
- DThe human resources department
179Which of the following best describes the practice of seeking out the best practices in a given process performance area for the purposes of achieving best-in-class performance in another organization or process>
- ABrainstorming
- BBootstrapping
- CBenchmarking
- DBaselining
180What is the most appropriate application of the benchmarking process in a lean and Six Sigma environment?
- ACalculation of specification limits
- BValidation of control limits
- CIdentification of targets and requirements
- DCost-benefit analysis as part of project close-out
181As part of the quality function deployment process, benchmarking is best used to do which of the following?
- AIdentify the customer attributes
- BComplete the Pugh matrix part of the QFD
- CDefine competitive performance to help set targets and limits
- DComplete the correlation section of the QFD
182When designing a measurement system, what factors influence how frequently measurements should be taken?
- AConsequences, costs, and degree of control
- BPersonnel measurement skills, measurement tool accuracy, and costs
- CData review process, QE availability, and management's interest
- DMeasurement tool repeatability, measurement tool reproducibility, and rate of change
183For the past three months a local bakery has seen a downward trend in profits. The owner decided to construct a CTQ diagram. The owner is hoping to increase revenue by improving customer retention. What can the owner increase to improve the customer retention and revenue?
- AThroughput rates
- BCustomer loyalty
- CPrice
- DInventory
184Which of the following is an appraisal cost?
- AThird-party audit
- BContinuous improvement and problem-solving training
- CCost of customer visits to address defective product
- DQuality planning
185At the monthly management meeting, the quality director presents the following financial data for review:
$20,000 for the raw material used to produce part ABC (for normal production needs)
$5,000 for the labor in producing part ABC (for normal production needs)
$2,000 for sorting part ABC internally (for defects unexpectedly found)
$10,000 for sorting part ABC at the customer's location (for defects unexpectedly found)
$3,000 for expediting costs to replace part ABC at the customer's location (because of defects unexpectedly found)
$6,000 for pre-planned training of quality inspectors on problem-solving techniques (to improve skills)
$1,200 for tuition reimbursement for the quality supervisor's college class involving GD&T training (to improve skills)
Of all this data, how much can be rolled into failure costs?- A$15,000
- B$7,200
- C$25,000
- D$47,200
186Which of the following items is considered a direct failure cost (whether internal or external)?
- ASorting
- BExcess inventory
- COverpayments
- DEquipment downtime
187Why are teams typically formed?
- ATo achieve an objective
- BIn case of failure, a team can be collectively held accountable, and not individuals
- CTo bring team members of the same level together
- DTo resolve conflicts among individuals
188Which of the following is responsible and accountable for the execution and the results of a process and has the authority or ability to make changes in the process as required?
- AProcess owner
- BProgram manager
- CChief executive
- DMaster black belt
189In a non-cross-functional team environment, which of the following members would normally coordinate with groups outside the team?
- ATimekeeper
- BTeam member
- CTeam leader
- DFacilitator
190Which of the following roles is primarily responsible for setting the direction and priorities of enterprise-wide Six Sigma deployment?
- AExecutive sponsor
- BProcess owner
- CMaster black belt
- DChampion
191At the implementation stage of a Six Sigma project, the team leader realizes that one of the departments where the solution is to be implemented has not been represented in the team. That department is now insisting that the solution is not practically implementable. What does this indicate?
- AThe team should request the champion to help in overcoming this roadblock since the solution is acceptable to all the team members and is hence valid.
- BThe department is objecting to the better solution because it is afraid of the consequences to the department if the solution is implemented.
- CThe team leader should use his/her good relationship with that department's personnel to get the solution implemented.
- DThe department should have been identified as a key stakeholder and a member included in the team.
192A team is having its fourth meeting and some of the members are questioning the team leader regarding the ground rules established by him. What is the best way to handle this situation?
- AHelp the team to establish its own ground rules suitable to its situation.
- BHave an offline meeting with the dissenting members and request them not to spoil the team atmosphere by questioning the ground rules
- CThe leader should refer the matter to the champion since his/her concurrence is required to change the ground rules
- DThe team leader should stress that he knows what is best for the team and insist that the rules established be followed
193The performing stage of team development is characterized by which behaviors?
- AFactions and choosing sides
- BAttempt to achieve harmony
- CComplaints about the organization and barriers to task
- DConfidence in ability to achieve goals, and synergy with team members
194Recently two additional team development stages have been proposed after the four classic stages of forming, storming, norming, and performing. What are these two additional stages?
- ARecognition and celebration
- BRecognizing and disbanding
- CCelebrating and disbanding
- DAdjourning and recognition
195Which of the following activities would help accelerate the forming phase of team development?
- AConducting a team-building exercise
- BReviewing the team's goals and course correction
- CDefining action items, responsibilities, and timing
- DDefining the technical process
196You have been assigned to lead a large Six Sigma improvement project involving a geographically dispersed team. What tool might you use early in the team start-up process to ensure team success later on?
- AProject charter
- BRisk analysis
- CWork breakdown structure
- DSWOT analysis
197The team is solving an urgent and complex problem. After only a few meetings, team members agree on a solution and recommend it to the champion. On probing, the champion finds that the data collection and analysis is incomplete and the solution is not proven. What negative team dynamic is at play here?
- AFloundering
- BGroupthink
- CRush to accomplishment
- DAttribution
198Senior management personnel are part of a team. The junior members on the team are intimidated and are not voicing their opinions. Which of the following team tools would be most helpful in this situation?
- AAffinity diagram
- BNominal group technique
- CForce field analysis
- DMultivoting
199Which is the last option for dealing with a team member's disruptive behavior?
- AIn-group confrontation
- BOffline conversation
- CExpulsion
- DOffline confrontation
200In which of the following situations would a force field analysis be the best tool to use?
- AWhen data is to be collected for analysis
- BWhen major driving forces and roadblocks need to identified
- CWhen alternative options need to be narrowed down
- DWhen deciding on the best problem solution methodology
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- Quiz on LSSBB5, created by Brandis Thornton on 08/09/2017.
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- Brandis Thornton
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