40 Question quiz 18 (681-720)

Daniel Neag
Quiz by Daniel Neag, updated more than 1 year ago


Quiz on 40 Question quiz 18 (681-720), created by Daniel Neag on 12/09/2017.
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Question 1

When choosing which technique to use in a given situation, which factors should be taken into account? V. previous experience of types of defects found in this or similar systems W. the existing knowledge of the testers X. regulatory standards that apply Y. the type of test execution tool that will be used Z. the documentation available
  • A. V, W, Y and Z
  • B. V, W and Y
  • C. X and Y
  • D. V, W and X

Question 2

Given the state diagram in following Figure, which test case is the minimum series of valid transitions to cover every state?
  • A. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - ES
  • B. SS - S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S3 - S4 - ES
  • C. SS - S1 - S2 - S4 - S1 - S3 - S4 - S1 - S3 - ES
  • D. SS - S1 - S4 - S2 - S1 - S3 - ES

Question 3

Why is independent testing important?
  • A. Independent testing is usually cheaper than testing your own work.
  • B. Independent testing is more effective at finding defects.
  • C. Independent testers should determine the processes and methodologies used.
  • D. Independent testers are dispassionate about whether the project succeeds or fails.

Question 4

Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a test leader?
  • A. Develop system requirements, design specifications and usage models.
  • B. Handle all test automation duties.
  • C. Keep tests and test coverage hidden from programmers.
  • D. Gather and report test progress metrics.

Question 5

ccording to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we mean when we call someone a test manager?
  • A. A test manager manages a collection of test leaders.
  • B. A test manager is the leader of a test team or teams.
  • C. A test manager gets paid more than a test leader.
  • D. A test manager reports to a test leader.

Question 6

What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification?
  • A. The test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test.
  • B. The test plan is for managers, the test design specification is for programmers and the test procedure specification is for testers who are automating tests.
  • C. The test plan is the least thorough, the test procedure specification is the most thorough and the test design specification is midway between the two.
  • D. The test plan is finished in the first third of the project, the test design specification is finished in the middle third of the project and the test procedure specification is finished in the last third of the project.

Question 7

Which of the following factors is an influence on the test effort involved in most projects?
  • A. Geographical separation of tester and programmers.
  • B. The departure of the test manager during the project.
  • C. The quality of the information used to develop the tests.
  • D. Unexpected long-term illness by a member of the project team.

Question 8

The ISTQB Foundation Syllabus establishes a fundamental test process where test planning occurs early in the project, while test execution occurs at the end. Which of the following elements of the test plan, while specified during test planning, is assessed during test execution?
  • A. Test tasks
  • B. Environmental needs
  • C. Exit criteria
  • D. Test team training

Question 9

Consider the following exit criteria which might be found in a test plan: I. No known customer-critical defects. II. All interfaces between components tested. III. 100% code coverage of all units. IV. All specified requirements satisfied. V. System functionality matches legacy system for all business rules. Which of the following statements is true about whether these exit criteria belong in an acceptance test plan?
  • A. All statements belong in an acceptance test plan.
  • B. Only statement I belongs in an acceptance test plan.
  • C. Only statements I, II, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
  • D. Only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.

Question 10

According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level?
  • A. A group of test activities that are organized together.
  • B. One or more test design specification documents.
  • C. A test type.
  • D. An ISTQB certification.

Question 11

Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution?
  • A. Percentage of test cases written.
  • B. Number of test environments remainin to be configured.
  • C. Number of defects found and fixed.
  • D. Percentage of requirements for which a test has been written.

Question 12

During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: '90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.' Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?
  • A. The remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release.
  • B. The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release.
  • C. The system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort.
  • D. The programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to release.

Question 13

In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement, The payment processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections?
  • A. Evaluation
  • B. Summary of activities
  • C. Variances
  • D. Incident description

Question 14

During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the following is a testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down?
  • A. Traceability
  • B. Confirmation testing
  • C. Configuration control
  • D. Test documentation management

Question 15

You are working as a tester on a project to develop a point-of-sales system for grocery stores and other similar retail outlets. Which of the following is a product risk for such a project?
  • A. The arrival of a more-reliable competing product on the market.
  • B. Delivery of an incomplete test release to the first cycle of system test.
  • C. An excessively high number of defect fixes fail during re-testing.
  • D. Failure to accept allowed credit cards.

Question 16

A product risk analysis meeting is held during the project planning period. Which of the following determines the level of risk?
  • A. Difficulty of fixing related problems in code
  • B. The harm that might result to the user
  • C. The price for which the software is sold
  • D. The technical staff in the meeting

Question 17

You are writing a test plan using the IEEE 829 template and are currently completing the Risks and Contingencies section. Which of the following is most likely to be listed as a project risk?
  • A. Unexpected illness of a key team member
  • B. Excessively slow transaction-processing time
  • C. Data corruption under network congestion
  • D. Failure to handle a key use case

Question 18

You and the project stakeholders develop a list of product risks and project risks during the planning stage of a project. What else should you do with those lists of risks during test planning?
  • A. Determine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks.
  • B. Obtain the resources needed to completely cover each product risk with tests and transfer responsibility for the project risks to the project manager.
  • C. Execute sufficient tests for the product risks, based on the likelihood and impact of each product risk and execute mitigation actions for all project risks.
  • D. No further risk management action is required at the test planning stage.

Question 19

According to the ISTQB Glossary, a product risk is related to which of the following?
  • A. Control of the test project
  • B. The test object
  • C. A single test item
  • D. A potential negative outcome

Question 20

In an incident report, the tester makes the following statement, 'At this point, I expect to receive an error message explaining the rejection of this invalid input and asking me to enter a valid input. Instead the system accepts the input, displays an hourglass for between one and five seconds and finally terminates abnormally, giving the message, "Unexpected data type: 15. Click to continue." ' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections of an IEEE 829 standard incident report?
  • A. Summary
  • B. Impact
  • C. Item pass/fail criteria
  • D. Incident description

Question 21

According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation?
  • A. A bug report
  • B. A defect report
  • C. An incident report
  • D. A test summary report

Question 22

A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process. During the execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to classify each defect report by the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a week, the test manager runs a report that shows the percentage of defects related to each known product risk and to unknown risks. What is one possible use of such a report?
  • A. To identify new risks to system quality.
  • B. To locate defect clusters in product subsystems.
  • C. To check risk coverage by tests.
  • D. To measure exploratory testing.

Question 23

Which tools help to support static testing?
  • A. Static analysis tools and test execution tools.
  • B. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools.
  • C. Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools.
  • D. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools.

Question 24

Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?
  • A. Test management and control.
  • B. Test specification and design.
  • C. Test execution and logging.
  • D. Performance and monitoring.

Question 25

What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support testing?
  • A. Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives for testing.
  • B. Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment.
  • C. Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary.
  • D. Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests.

Question 26

What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?
  • A. Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much.
  • B. Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been purchased.
  • C. The tool may find defects that aren't there.
  • D. The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time.

Question 27

Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?
  • A. Data-driven and keyword-driven
  • B. Data-driven and capture-driven
  • C. Capture-driven and keyhole-driven
  • D. Playback-driven and keyword-driven

Question 28

Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an organization?
  • A. Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.
  • B. Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.
  • C. Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.
  • D. Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool.

Question 29

Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool evaluation?
  • A. Decide which tool to acquire.
  • B. Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool.
  • C. Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects.
  • D. Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets.

Question 30

What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?
  • A. Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.
  • B. Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.
  • C. Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester.
  • D. Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system or components.

Question 31

An exhaustive test suite would include:
  • A. All combinations of input values and preconditions.
  • B. All combinations of input values and output values.
  • C. All pairs of input value and preconditions.
  • D. All states and state transitions.

Question 32

Which statement about testing is true?
  • A. Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle.
  • B. Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to work.
  • C. Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.
  • D. Testing can only be done by an independent test team.

Question 33

For a test procedure that is checking modifications of customers on a database, which two steps below would be the lowest priority if we didn't have time to execute all of the steps? 1. Open database and confirm existing customer 2. Change customer's marital status from single to married 3. Change customer's street name from Parks Road to Park Road 4. Change customer's credit limit from 500 to 750 5. Replace customer's first name with exactly the same first name 6. Close the customer record and close the database
  • A. Tests 1 and 4
  • B. Tests 2 and 3
  • C. Tests 5 and 6
  • D. Tests 3 and 5

Question 34

Consider the following list of either product or project risks: I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization. II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time. III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges. IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system. V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the following statements is true?
  • A. I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
  • B. II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.
  • C. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.
  • D. III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks.

Question 35

Consider the following statements about regression tests: I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed. II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests). III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in the system. IV. They are only effective if automated. Which pair of statements is true?
  • A. I and II
  • B. I and III
  • C. II and III
  • D. II and IV

Question 36

Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for structure-based (white-box) test techniques? V. Decision outcomes exercised W. Partitions exercised X. Boundaries exercised Y. Conditions or multiple conditions exercised Z. Statements exercised
  • A. V, W or Y
  • B. W, X or Y
  • C. V, Y or Z
  • D. W, X or Z

Question 37

Review the following portion of an incident report. 1. I place any item in the shopping cart. 2. I place any other (different) item in the shopping cart. 3. I remove the first item from the shopping cart, but leave the second item in the cart. 4. I click the < Checkout > button. 5. I expect the system to display the first checkout screen. Instead, it gives the pop-up error message, 'No items in shopping cart. Click to continue shopping.' 6. I click < Okay >. 7. I expect the system to return to the main window to allow me to continue adding and removing items from the cart. Instead, the browser terminates. 8. The failure described in steps 5 and 7 occurred in each of three attempts to perform steps 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6. Assume that no other narrative information is included in the report. Which of the following important aspects of a good incident report is missing from this incident report?
  • A. The steps to reproduce the failure.
  • B. The summary.
  • C. The check for intermittence.
  • D. The use of an objective tone.

Question 38

Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support testing? 1. Over-reliance on the tool 2. Greater consistency and repeatability 3. Objective assessment 4. Unrealistic expectations 5. Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool 6. Ease of access to information about tests or testing 7. Repetitive work is reduced
  • A. Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
  • B. Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7, Risks: 4, 5 and 6
  • C. Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5
  • D. Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7

Question 39

Which of the following encourages objective testing?
  • A. Unit testing
  • B. System testing
  • C. Independent testing
  • D. Destructive testing

Question 40

Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement is true?
  • A. Reviews are not generally cost effective as the meetings are time consuming and require preparation and follow up.
  • B. There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.
  • C. Reviews must be controlled by the author.
  • D. Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.
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