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Vaccines, Preventative Care and Neonatology

Description

Pediatric pharmacy questions from BGCOP Spring 2018
Cara Carter
Quiz by Cara Carter, updated more than 1 year ago
Cara Carter
Created by Cara Carter about 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
When is a glucose tolerance test conducted during pregnancy?
Answer
  • As soon as the pregnancy is discovered
  • At 36 weeks when the pregnancy is at term
  • 24-28 weeks
  • 35-37 weeks

Question 2

Question
When should a group B strep culture be conducted during a pregnancy?
Answer
  • At the end of the 1st trimester
  • 35-37 weeks
  • 24-28 weeks
  • 27-36 weeks

Question 3

Question
During what time period should a pregnant mother receive a Tdap?
Answer
  • 27-36 weeks
  • Prior to conception
  • At birth/delivery
  • 35-37 weeks

Question 4

Question
What are the ABC's of initial pediatric assessment? (Check all that apply)
Answer
  • Breathing
  • Activity
  • Appearance
  • Blinking
  • Conciousness
  • Circulation

Question 5

Question
Newborn screening test newborns for conditions that are not detected by physical examination.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 6

Question
What diseases can be detected by newborn screening? (Check all that apply)
Answer
  • Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
  • Sickle Cell Disease
  • Cystic Fibrosis
  • Endometriosis
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Homocystinuria
  • PKU
  • Primary Congenital Hypothyroidism

Question 7

Question
Breastfeeding should be started within the first [blank_start]hour[blank_end] of life and continued for at [blank_start]least[blank_end] [blank_start]six[blank_end] months.
Answer
  • day
  • hour
  • minute
  • week
  • least
  • most
  • twelve
  • five
  • nine
  • six

Question 8

Question
Babies being placed on their back to sleep came from the 1994 "Back to Sleep" campaign to reduce what?
Answer
  • Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome
  • Infant Suffication
  • Asthma
  • Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

Question 9

Question
At what age should children play peek-a-boo, say mama or dada and stand alone or take steps?
Answer
  • 12 months
  • 18 months
  • 24 months
  • 9 months

Question 10

Question
Children should display what developmental milestones at 2 years? (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • Name items in a picture book
  • Complete potty-training
  • Show defiant behavior
  • Construct short sentences

Question 11

Question
An oral syringe should always be used to dose liquids for children.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 12

Question
[blank_start]1-800-222-1222[blank_end] is the phone number to poison control.
Answer
  • 1-800-222-1222

Question 13

Question
Things that can fit through a toilet paper roll can kill a child under 5.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
Which of the following are reasons that pediatric pharmacokinetics are different than adult pharmacokinetics?
Answer
  • CYP450 enzymes are still developing
  • Infants lack significant stomach acid
  • All of these are reasons
  • Infants have more body water

Question 15

Question
Which of the following is not a reason for increased percutaneous drug absorption in pediatrics?
Answer
  • Children have larger surface area to mass ratio
  • Children have greater skin hydration
  • Children have greater muscle mass
  • Children have thinner skin

Question 16

Question
A higher percentage of body water in infants leads to a larger volume of distribution
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 17

Question
Why do infants and neonates have higher free fraction of drugs?
Answer
  • Higher body water percentage
  • Lower protein stores
  • Lower muscle mass
  • Higher surface area to body mass ratio

Question 18

Question
What dose should be the absolute maximum dose for an obese child?
Answer
  • The extrapolated dose based on the child's weight
  • The dose at which results are seen
  • The adult maximum dose
  • The dose at which providers are comfortable with based on individual factors

Question 19

Question
What is meconium?
Answer
  • A term used for the first cry
  • A term used for the first bowel movement
  • A term used to describe the birth crawl
  • An element on the periodic table that only infants possess

Question 20

Question
Why is the APGAR scoring system used?
Answer
  • To determine if an infant is normal at birth
  • To determine if the infant will experience genetic abnormalities through out life
  • To assess for disease at birth
  • To put parents at ease

Question 21

Question
The first A in APGAR stands for [blank_start]appearance[blank_end] and is used to determine if a neonate's [blank_start]color[blank_end] is normal.
Answer
  • appearance
  • activity
  • angiogenesis
  • color
  • muscle tone
  • visible blood vessels

Question 22

Question
The P in APGAR stands for [blank_start]pulse[blank_end]
Answer
  • pulse

Question 23

Question
The GAR in APGAR stands for which of the following
Answer
  • Grimace, Activity, Respiration
  • Grin, Action, Respiration
  • Grimace, Action, Reflex
  • Grim, Activity, Reflex

Question 24

Question
Which of the following prophylaxis treatments and disorders are correctly matched
Answer
  • Gonococcal ophthalmia-erythromycin ointment or silver nitrate solution
  • Chlamydia- Oral amoxicillin
  • Vitamin K deficiency- IM phytonadione
  • Platelet aggregation-enoxaparin

Question 25

Question
What is respiratory distress syndrome?
Answer
  • The name given to a condition in which infants are born with only one lung
  • A developmental disorder in which lungs are immature at birth
  • Cystic Fibrosis when diagnosed in utero
  • Lack of airway operation due to asthma or COPD at birth

Question 26

Question
[blank_start]Surfactant[blank_end] deficiency, poor [blank_start]muscle[blank_end] development and incomplete development in the lungs are common causes of respiratory distress syndrome and typically seen in neonates less than [blank_start]28[blank_end] weeks.
Answer
  • 28
  • Surfactant
  • muscle

Question 27

Question
Which of the following is a common sign that an infant is struggling to breath?
Answer
  • Nasal flaring
  • Nasal salute
  • Excessive sleeping
  • Hyperactivity

Question 28

Question
Why is surfactant given to neonates experiencing respiratory distress syndrome? (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • It is the most simple and quickest treatment
  • To cause an increase in alveolar surface tension
  • It has been proven to reduce mortality and morbidity
  • None of these
  • All of these
  • To replace deficient amounts

Question 29

Question
What are tocolytics?
Answer
  • Drugs used to induce labor or contractions
  • Drugs used to stop labor or contractions
  • Drugs used during a cesarean section
  • Drugs used to increase fetal lung development

Question 30

Question
[blank_start]Indomethacin[blank_end] is given at 24-32 weeks to halt labor while [blank_start]calcium channel blockers[blank_end] are given at 32-34 weeks. [blank_start]magnesium sulfate[blank_end] is used for neuroprotective effects.
Answer
  • Indomethacin
  • Calcium Channel Blockers
  • Magnesium sulfate
  • calcium channel blockers
  • magnesium sulfate
  • indomethacin
  • magnesium sulfate
  • indomethacin
  • calcium channel blockers

Question 31

Question
Antenatal steroids are given to treat respiratory distress syndrome. Why?
Answer
  • They are thought to decrease overall morbidity and mortality
  • They decrease the incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage
  • They decrease the incidence of patent ductus arteriosus
  • All of these are reasons to give antenatal steriods

Question 32

Question
Which of the following drugs and drug classes is correctly matched as first line therapy for bronchopulmonary dysplasia?
Answer
  • HCTZ (Diuretic)
  • Theophylline (Bronchodialator)
  • Inhaled Prednisone (Corticosteroid)
  • Furosemide (Potassium supplement)

Question 33

Question
Hypoxemia, reflex bradycardia, resuscitation and organ damage are concerns of what condition associated with prematurity?
Answer
  • Low birth weight
  • Respiratory distress syndrome
  • Apnea
  • Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia

Question 34

Question
There is a positive correlation between the incidence of neonatal apnea and [blank_start]low birth weight[blank_end]
Answer
  • low birth weight
  • fetal lung development
  • cystic fibrosis
  • asthma

Question 35

Question
Prevention of apnea is thought to occur by competitively inhibiting adenosine. Which of the following drugs is thought to do this and thus is used to treat apnea?
Answer
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Theophylline
  • Caffeine
  • Azothioprine

Question 36

Question
In utero the blood flow from the placenta goes through the [blank_start]right[blank_end] side of the heart and bypasses the lungs via the [blank_start]ductus arteriosus[blank_end]
Answer
  • ductus arteriosus
  • right

Question 37

Question
What is the name of the condition when the ductus does not normally close on its own?
Answer
  • Open ductus
  • Patent ductus arteriosus
  • Infantile coronary artery syndrome
  • Early onset atrial fibrilation

Question 38

Question
What pharmacologic therapy is used to treat patent ductus arteriosus?
Answer
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Calcium Channel Blockers
  • Beta Blockers
  • Prostaglandin inhibitors

Question 39

Question
Ductal dependent [blank_start]congenital heart disease[blank_end] is the only reason to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.
Answer
  • congenital heart disease
  • congenital heart defect
  • arteriole bypass
  • arteriole stenosis

Question 40

Question
This drug causes vasodilation by direct effect on vascular and ductus arteriosus smooth muscle to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.
Answer
  • Ibuprofen
  • Indomethacin
  • Pseudophedrine
  • Alprostail

Question 41

Question
Match each of the congenital heart defects with their descriptions [blank_start]Atrial Septal Defect[blank_end] -Opening between atria [blank_start]Ventricular Septal Defect[blank_end] -Opening between ventricles [blank_start]Coarctation of Aorta[blank_end] -Narrowing of the aorta [blank_start]Transposition of Great Arteries[blank_end] -Vessel connection of aorta and pulmonary artery [blank_start]Tetralogy of Fallot[blank_end] -Opening between ventricles, right ventricular outflow obstruction and right aorta shift [blank_start]Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome[blank_end] -Underdeveloped left ventricle, opening between atria, small aorta, vessel connecting aorta and pulmonary artery
Answer
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Atrial Septal Defect
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Coarctation of Aorta
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Atrial Sepatal Defect
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Coarctation of Aorta
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Atrial Septal Defect
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Coarctation of Aorta
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Atrial Septal Defect
  • Coarctation of Aorta
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Coarctation of Aorta
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Atrial Septal Defect
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Atrial Septal Defect
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Coarctation of Aorta

Question 42

Question
Early onset sepsis occurs in the first [blank_start]7 days[blank_end], typically manifests as [blank_start]pneumonia[blank_end] and is caused by bacteria from [blank_start]the mother[blank_end]. Late onset sepsis occurs afters the first [blank_start]7 days[blank_end], typically manifests as [blank_start]meningitis and sepsis[blank_end] and is caused by bacteria from [blank_start]the environment[blank_end].
Answer
  • 7 days
  • 14 days
  • 30 days
  • 90 days
  • pneumonia
  • ear infection
  • difficulty breathing
  • heart problems
  • the mother
  • the environment
  • formula
  • neonatal cleaning
  • 7 days
  • 14 days
  • 30 days
  • 90 days
  • meningitis and sepsis
  • cold
  • pneumonia
  • cystic fibrosis
  • the environment
  • formula feedings
  • the mother
  • nosicomial setting

Question 43

Question
Listeria monocytogenes, E. Coli, Group B strep and H. influemzae are the common bacteria causing what?
Answer
  • The common cold
  • Hospital Acquired Pneumonia in infants
  • Early Onset Sepsis
  • Late Onset Sepsis

Question 44

Question
Which of the the following are typically used to treat early onset sepsis? (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • Amoxicillin +/- Clavulanate
  • Ampicillin
  • Levofloxacin
  • Zosyn
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Cefotaxime
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Ceftaroline

Question 45

Question
Late onset sepsis is usually treated with what?
Answer
  • Rest and BRAT diet
  • Broad spectrum antibiotics
  • Anti-viral or anti-retroviral therapy
  • Amoxicillin

Question 46

Question
TORCH is an acronym for a group of diseases that cause what due to in utero exposure?
Answer
  • congenital conditions
  • chronic conditions
  • neurodegenerative conditions
  • genetic conditions

Question 47

Question
The acronym TORCH stands for [blank_start]taxoplasmosis[blank_end], [blank_start]other[blank_end], [blank_start]rubella[blank_end], [blank_start]cytomegalovirus[blank_end], [blank_start]herpes infection[blank_end].
Answer
  • taxoplasmosis
  • trichomoniasis
  • other
  • oligobacteria
  • rubella
  • rabies
  • cytomegalovirus
  • Chlamydia
  • herpes infection
  • H. influenzae

Question 48

Question
Toxoplasmosis is caused by [blank_start]Toxoplasma gondii[blank_end] which is a [blank_start]protozoan parasite[blank_end] found in the feces of [blank_start]cats[blank_end] and contaminated [blank_start]meat or vegetables[blank_end].
Answer
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Toxoplasma denticola
  • bacteria
  • protozoan parasite
  • virus
  • cats
  • dogs
  • fish
  • hamsters/rodents
  • meat or vegetables
  • fruit or vegetables
  • beans or poultry

Question 49

Question
Select all correctly matched congenitally acquired infectious diseases and their treatments
Answer
  • Vibrio cholerae- Amoxicillin
  • Trepodema pallidum -Penicillin G for 10 days
  • E. coli -Vancomycin
  • Streptococcus faecalis - Ceftriaxone
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae -Metronidazole
  • Cytomegalovirus -Ganciclovir

Question 50

Question
Match the congenitally acquired infectious diseases with their treatment. Chlamydia trachomatis -[blank_start]systemic erythromycin or azithromycin[blank_end] [blank_start]Hepatitis B[blank_end] - Vaccine and HBIG within 12 hours of birth Herpes Simplex - [blank_start]High dose acyclovir[blank_end]
Answer
  • systemic erythromycin or azithromycin
  • oral vancomycin
  • IM cefazolin
  • Hepatitis A
  • Hepatitis B
  • Hepatitis C
  • HIV
  • High dose acyclovir
  • Low dose valacyclovir
  • Gancyclovir
  • Valgancyclovir

Question 51

Question
Finnergan Score is used to assess [blank_start]neonatal abstinence syndrome[blank_end].
Answer
  • neonatal abstinence syndrome

Question 52

Question
Which of the following are first line treatments for neonatal abstinence syndrome? (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • diazepam
  • morphine
  • hydromorphone
  • oxycodone
  • phenobarbital
  • methadone
  • clonidine
  • pseudoephedrine

Question 53

Question
[blank_start]TDAP[blank_end] vaccine is recommended more for the protection of children and infants and should be given every 10 years.
Answer
  • TDAP

Question 54

Question
What recombinant vaccine is recommended for immunocompromised individuals aged 50 and older?
Answer
  • Tdap
  • Shingrix
  • HiB
  • Prevnar 13

Question 55

Question
[blank_start]High dose[blank_end] or [blank_start]adjuvanted IIV[blank_end] are formulation of influenza vaccines recommended for people aged 65 and older.
Answer
  • High dose
  • IM
  • Intranasal
  • low dose
  • adjuvanted IIV
  • recombinant

Question 56

Question
Prevnar (PCV 13) and Pneumovax (PPSV23) are pneumococcal vaccinces recommended for whom?
Answer
  • Adults 65 and older
  • Adults 55 and older with a comorbidity
  • Immunocompetent individuals
  • A and C
  • All of the above
  • None of the above

Question 57

Question
The maximum number of doses of Pneumovax (PPSV23) that any person should receive is [blank_start]three[blank_end] with each dose being a minimum of [blank_start]five[blank_end] [blank_start]years[blank_end] apart.
Answer
  • three
  • two
  • four
  • five
  • five
  • three
  • two
  • four
  • years
  • months
  • days
  • weeks

Question 58

Question
When is the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine given?
Answer
  • At the first well baby check up
  • At birth
  • At 3 months
  • At hospital discharge

Question 59

Question
The minimum age for HPV vaccination is what?
Answer
  • thirteen in boys and nine in girls
  • nine
  • thirteen
  • nine in boys and thirteen in girls
  • puberty in box sexes

Question 60

Question
The [blank_start]second[blank_end] dose of the meningococcal vaccine is given at [blank_start]sixteen[blank_end].
Answer
  • second
  • first
  • third
  • thirteen
  • sixteen
  • eighteen

Question 61

Question
IIV formulation of the influenza vaccine can be given at what age minimum?
Answer
  • No age minimum
  • 5 years
  • 12 months
  • 6 months

Question 62

Question
What vaccines are recommended for all pregnant women? (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • Tdap
  • Influenza
  • DTap
  • HiB
  • Herpes Zoster

Question 63

Question
Adults younger than 60 years old with [blank_start]diabetes[blank_end] are a high risk indication for the [blank_start]Hepatitis B[blank_end] vaccine
Answer
  • Hepatitis B
  • diabetes

Question 64

Question
Patients who smoke cigarettes should receive what vaccine if they are older than 18 and younger than 65?
Answer
  • Influenza
  • Hepatitis B
  • Pneumovax (PPSV23)
  • Tdap

Question 65

Question
Which of the following should be given to an AIDs patient (CD4 less than 200)?
Answer
  • Shingles
  • Varicella
  • MMR
  • All of these
  • None of these

Question 66

Question
An aspleenic person should be given which of the following vaccines to protect against encapsulated organisms? (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • HiB
  • Pneumococcal
  • Meningococcal
  • Influenza
  • Varicella
  • MMR

Question 67

Question
Proper hydration and arm movement do what post-immunization?
Answer
  • Nothing
  • Reduce soreness
  • Provide synergistic effects for the vaccine
  • Prevent post-vaccine illness

Question 68

Question
What year was mercury removed from vaccines except multidose flu vials?
Answer
  • 1995
  • 2000
  • 2005
  • 2010

Question 69

Question
Acetaminophen and Ibuprofen have been shown to reduce what?
Answer
  • Inflammation after vaccination
  • Immune response after vaccination
  • Vaccine associated fever
  • All of these

Question 70

Question
Undervaccinated or unvaccincated people exposed to diseases in other countries are typically patient 0 during outbreaks.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 71

Question
What vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy
Answer
  • All vaccines
  • Live vaccines
  • Conjugate vaccines
  • Toxoid vaccines

Question 72

Question
What is the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices?
Answer
  • The group who approves vaccine schedules
  • A division of the CDC
  • A division of the FDA
  • A division of the Department of Health and Human Services

Question 73

Question
The first dose followed by a second dose in 1 to 2 months and a third dose in 6 months is the dosing schedule for what vaccine?
Answer
  • HPV
  • HiB
  • Influenza
  • Varicella

Question 74

Question
A patient should first be given [blank_start]PCV13[blank_end] followed by [blank_start]PPSV23[blank_end] [blank_start]one year[blank_end] later.
Answer
  • PCV13
  • PPSV23
  • Menactra
  • Influenza vaccine
  • PPSV23
  • PCV13
  • HiB
  • Yellow fever vaccine
  • six months
  • one year
  • two years
  • five years

Question 75

Question
Andrew Wakefield is the British physician who fabricated data in a publication that lead to the belief that vaccines cause autism. What was the name of the publication?
Answer
  • The Needle Stick
  • Autism Errupts
  • Autism Conspiracy
  • The Lancet
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