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Set A
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Questions in this quiz (53)
1What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?
- Afailure domain
- Bcollision domain
- Cbroadcast domain
- Duser domain
2A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
- AA single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
- BThe failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.
- CThis is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
- DThis is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
3What is the function of STP in a scalable network?
- AIt decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
- BIt protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
- CIt combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.
- DIt disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.
4What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)
- AHTTP access to the device
- Ba terminal emulation client
- CTelnet or SSH access to the device
- Da direct connection to the console or AUX port
- Ea connection to an operational network interface on the device
5Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
- Aconfiguring trunk links on the VTP server
- Bconfiguring or changing the VTP password
- Cconfiguring or changing the VTP domain name
- Dconfiguring or changing the VTP version number
- Econfiguring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
6What are three characteristics of VTP? (Choose three.)
- AIn the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created and modified on a switch.
- BSwitches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database.
- CVTP-enabled switches exchange three types of advertisements: summary routes, subnet advertisements, and advertisement requests from transparent bridges.
- DThe switch configuration must be saved and the switch reloaded to reset a configuration revision number.
- EVTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only.
- FSwitches in different VTP domains can exchange updates if revision numbers are the same.
7A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?
- AConfigure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.
- BAssociate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
- CConfigure the VLANs on the new switch.
- DConfigure all ports on the new switch to access mode.
8What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?
- AIt holds the running configuration.
- BIt holds the saved configuration.
- CIt holds the VLAN database.
- DIt holds the operating system.
9Refer to the exhibit. The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host H1 cannot communicate with H2. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?
- AInclude a router in the topology.
- BAssociate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.
- CRemove the native VLAN from the trunk.
- DConfigure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.
- EAdd the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.
10Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
- AThe other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.
- BThere is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.
- CVTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.
- DVLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.
- EThis switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.
11What eliminates switching loops?
- Ahold-down timers
- Bpoison reverse
- CSpanning Tree Protocol
- DTime to Live
- EVTP
12A small company network has six interconnected Layer 2 switches. Currently all switches are using the default bridge priority value. Which value can be used to configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to ensure that it becomes the root bridge in this design?
- A1
- B28672
- C32768
- D34816
- E61440
13Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)
- ASW1 will become the root bridge.
- BSW2 will become the root bridge.
- CSW2 will get a port blocked.
- DSW4 will get a port blocked.
- ESW3 will become the root bridge.
- FSW4 will become the root bridge.
14Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)
- Alistening
- Blearning
- Cblocking
- Ddisabled
- Eforwarding
15A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?
- AAny switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
- BAny trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.
- CAny switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
- DAny switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.
16As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
- AAs the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
- Bgrouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
- Cgrouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
- Dproviding redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
17Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?
- Achannel-group 2 mode auto
- Binterface port-channel 2
- Cchannel-group 1 mode desirable
- Dinterface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5
18A network administrator configured an EtherChannel link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of the three interfaces is down?
- AThe EtherChannel fails.
- BThe remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.
- CThe remaining two interfaces become separate links between the two switches.
- DOne interface becomes an active link for data traffic and the other becomes a backup link.
19When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?
- Aactive
- Bauto
- Con
- Ddesirable
20Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?
- APAgP
- BDTP
- CLACP
- DSTP
21A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?
- AHSRP uses active and standby routers.
- BIt uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.
- CIt allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.
- DHSRP is nonproprietary.
22What is the term used to describe a network topology where the subnets from a major classful network address space are separated from each other by addresses from a different major classful network address?
- Amultihomed network
- Bconverged
- Cdiscontiguous network
- Ddata network
23What type of packets are sent when there is a change in the EIGRP topology?
- Ahello
- Btriggered bounded update
- Creply
- Dacknowledge
24Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?
- AR1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7
- BR1-R3-R2-R6-R7
- CR1-R2-R6-R7
- DR1-R4-R5-R6-R7
25What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?
- AThe path with the least number of hops.
- BThe path with the smallest delays.
- CThe path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.
- DThe path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.
26Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
- Athe link router interface IP address and subnet mask
- Bthe type of network link
- Cthe link next-hop IP address
- Dthe link bandwidth
- Ethe cost of that link
27What indicates to a link-state router that a neighbor is unreachable?
- Aif the router no longer receives routing updates
- Bif the router no longer receives hello packets
- Cif the router receives an update with a hop count of 16
- Dif the router receives an LSP with previously learned information
28What are three features of EIGRP? (Choose three.)
- Auses the Shortest Path First algorithm
- Bestablishes neighbor adjacencies
- Cuses the Reliable Transport Protocol
- Dbroadcasts
- Esends full routing table updates periodically
- Fsupports equal and unequal cost load balancing
29What capability do protocol-dependent modules provide to the EIGRP routing protocol?
- Aroute different Layer 3 protocols
- Bexchange summary routes between areas
- Ccombine routes learned from different protocols into a single routing table
- Dload balance between routing protocols
30When are EIGRP update packets sent?
- Aonly when necessary
- Bwhen learned routes age out
- Cevery 5 seconds via multicast
- Devery 30 seconds via broadcast
31Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?
- Anetwork 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63
- Bnetwork 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127
- Cnetwork 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192
- Dnetwork 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128
32Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?
- AIt carries the geographical information of the organization.
- BIt functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.
- CIt is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.
- DIt identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.
33Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)
- Adelay
- BMTU
- Creliability
- Dtransmit
- Ebandwidth
34An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
- AThe DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
- BThe router uses the default route.
- CThe best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.
- DThe router will query neighbors for an alternate route.
35When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?
- Awhen the EIGRP domain is converged
- Bwhen there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
- Cwhen there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network
- Dwhen the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available
36Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?
- AWhich address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?
- Bthe IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
- Cthe all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
- Dthe interface IPv6 link-local address
37Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?
- A10.0.0.0/8
- B10.1.0.0/16
- C10.1.0.0/28
- D10.1.1.0/24
10.1.2.0/24
10.1.3.0/24
10.1.4.0/28
38Which command will configure an IPv6 default static route?
- Arouter(config)# ipv6 ::/64 s0/0/0
- Brouter(config-rtr)# redistribute static
- Crouter(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0
- Drouter(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing
39Which statement describes the load balancing behavior of EIGRP?
- AEIGRP for IPv4 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv6 does not.
- BEIGRP for IPv6 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv4 does not.
- CNeither EIGRP for IPv4 nor EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.
- DBoth EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.
40What routing protocol can be configured to load balance across paths with unequal metrics through the use of the variance command?
- AEIGRP
- BOSPF
- COSPFv3
- DRIPng
41What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
- ARouters send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
- BRouters send triggered updates in response to a change.
- CRouters create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
- DThe database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
- EPaths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
42A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?
- AOSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.
- BSPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”.
- CA new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start.
- DOSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.
43In an OSPFv2 configuration, what is the effect of entering the command network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0?
- AIt changes the router ID of the router to 192.168.1.1.
- BIt enables OSPF on all interfaces on the router.
- CIt tells the router which interface to turn on for the OSPF routing process.
- DIt allows all 192.168.1.0 networks to be advertised.
44What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
- AA higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
- BLink cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
- CCost equals bandwidth.
- DA lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
45Which two addresses represent valid destination addresses for an OSPFv3 message? (Choose two.)
- AFF02::5
- B224.0.0.5
- CFE80::42
- D2001:db8:acad:1::1
46Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?
- AFF02::5
- B2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2
47What information is contained in OSPF type 3 LSAs?
- Anetworks reachable in other areas
- Bnetworks learned from other routing protocols
- Cthe router ID of the DR to all routers in the area
- Dthe router ID of an ASBR and the route to reach it
48Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?
- AThere are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.
- BThe OSPF routing process is inactive.
- CThe link to the new area is down.
- DThe router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
49Refer to the exhibit. For the given topology, what are three results of the OSPF DR and BDR elections ? (Choose three.)
- AR1 is BDR for segment A.
- BR2 is DR for segment A.
- CR3 is DR for segment A.
- DR4 is DR for segment B.
- ER5 is BDR for segment B.
- FR3 is DR for segment B.
50Refer to the exhibit. In this scenario, Area 40 cannot be connected directly to Area 0. Which OSPF network type must be configured in Area 1 to connect these areas?
- Apoint-to-point
- Bvirtual link
- Cpoint-to-multipoint
- Dnonbroadcast multiaccess
51Refer to the exhibit. What method can be used to enable an OSPF router to advertise a default route to neighboring OSPF routers?
- AUse a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.
- BUse the redistribute static command on R0-A.
- CUse the default-information originate command on ISP.
- DUse the default-information originate command on R0-A.
52Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers?
- AThe R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.
- BR1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.
- CThe hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.
- DThe neighbor adjacency has formed.
53Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem?
- AImplement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.
- BImplement the command network 192.168.2.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 on router R2.
- CImplement the command network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 on router R2.
- DChange the router-id of router R2 to 2.2.2.2.
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- Quiz on Set A, created by Sam Brake on 30/04/2018.
- Author
- Sam Brake
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- English
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