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P&P1 Revision Tri1 2018 Part 2

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Nursing Quiz on P&P1 Revision Tri1 2018 Part 2, created by Kathleen Jackson on 15/06/2018.
Kathleen Jackson
Quiz by Kathleen Jackson, updated more than 1 year ago
Kathleen Jackson
Created by Kathleen Jackson almost 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which of the following is a systemic sign of infection?
Answer
  • Pain
  • Erythema
  • Swelling
  • Fatigue

Question 2

Question
Which of the following does NOT directly determine the virulence of a microbe?
Answer
  • Whether its gram positive or negative
  • Invasive qualities
  • Ability to mutate
  • Production of toxins

Question 3

Question
The widespread necrosis of respiratory mucosa caused by an influenza infection often gives rise to:
Answer
  • Subclinical infections
  • Primary infections
  • Secondary infections
  • Tertiary infections

Question 4

Question
Which of the following bodily fluids would you expect to be sterile?
Answer
  • Blood
  • Vaginal discharge
  • Faeces
  • Sputum

Question 5

Question
That time during an infection when the infected person may experience a headache or fatigue and senses he or she is “coming down with something” is referred to as which of the following?
Answer
  • Subclinical
  • Acute
  • Prodromal
  • Incubation

Question 6

Question
Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
Answer
  • Fever and leukocytosis
  • Headache and anorexia
  • Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue
  • Pain, erythema, and swelling

Question 7

Question
What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
Answer
  • To provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth
  • To provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication
  • To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it
  • To determine the type of microbe present in a specimen

Question 8

Question
What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?
Answer
  • Presence of viral infection
  • Presence of bacterial infection
  • Bone marrow damage
  • Immunosuppression

Question 9

Question
Secondary immune deficiencies occur because of:
Answer
  • Lack of protein in the diet
  • Long term use of prednisone
  • Stressful job
  • All answers are correct

Question 10

Question
A common symptom of individuals with immunodeficiency is:
Answer
  • Anaemia
  • Recurrent infections
  • Lots of allergies
  • Auto antibody production

Question 11

Question
Primary immune deficiencies occur because of:
Answer
  • bad nutrition
  • a genetic defect
  • recurrent infections
  • chronic diseases affecting the immune system

Question 12

Question
Immunodeficiencies may result in an increased risk of infections by normally harmless microorganisms. These infections are referred to as:
Answer
  • transient
  • pathogenic
  • opportunistic
  • virulent

Question 13

Question
Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They:
Answer
  • increase the rate of mitosis in tumors.
  • cause immediate pain.
  • activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.
  • destroy antigens quickly.

Question 14

Question
An incompatible blood transfusion is an example of this type of hypersensitivity reaction:
Answer
  • Type IV
  • Type III
  • Type II
  • Type I

Question 15

Question
Reaction to latex gloves (in most cases) is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction:
Answer
  • Type IV
  • Type III
  • Type II
  • Type I

Question 16

Question
In this type of reaction, the antigen and antibody combine forming an immune complex which then can get deposited into tissue for example the kidneys.
Answer
  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type IV

Question 17

Question
A bee sting that causes a person to go into anaphylactic shock is an example of this type of hypersensitivity reaction:
Answer
  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type IV

Question 18

Question
The first line of defense which changes very little during our lifetime is called
Answer
  • Passive immunity
  • Active immunity
  • Adaptive immune response
  • Innate immune response

Question 19

Question
Humoral immunity is mediated by:
Answer
  • T lymphocytes (T cells).
  • B lymphocytes (B cells).
  • natural killer cells.
  • neutrophils.

Question 20

Question
Which white blood cells are responsible for adaptive immunity:
Answer
  • Monocytes
  • Eosinophils
  • Neutrophils
  • Lymphocytes

Question 21

Question
A molecule that will stimulate the adaptive immune response:
Answer
  • Antigen
  • Pathogen
  • Immunoglobulin
  • Antibody

Question 22

Question
Neutrophils:
Answer
  • produce histamine.
  • produce antibodies.
  • are elevated during an allergic response.
  • are phagocyte cells.

Question 23

Question
The role of memory cells is to:
Answer
  • change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation.
  • immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen.
  • recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response.
  • bind complement to the antibody.

Question 24

Question
Humoral immunity is mediated by:
Answer
  • Natural killer cells
  • T cells
  • B cells
  • Neutrophils

Question 25

Question
The most abundant, actively motile, phagocytic leukocyte is the:
Answer
  • Neutrophil
  • Monocyte
  • Basophil
  • Macrophage

Question 26

Question
Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
Answer
  • T-helper cells
  • Macrophages
  • Eosinophils
  • Monocytes

Question 27

Question
The immunoglobulin that is found in tears and saliva is:
Answer
  • IgB
  • IgA
  • IgM
  • IgG

Question 28

Question
Exposure to peanuts where the person goes into anaphylactic shock is an example of this type of hypersensitivity reaction:
Answer
  • Type III
  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type IV

Question 29

Question
A common primary target for most immunosuppressant drugs is:
Answer
  • B cell activation
  • Macrophages
  • All cytokines
  • T cell activation

Question 30

Question
An autoimmune disease is:
Answer
  • an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs
  • failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself
  • an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment
  • excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material

Question 31

Question
When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:
Answer
  • Delay hypersensitivity
  • Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
  • Immune complex hypersensitivity
  • Type 1 hypersensitivity

Question 32

Question
Autoimmunity arises when a breakdown in 'self-
Answer
  • Specificity
  • Immunity
  • Memory
  • Tolerance

Question 33

Question
A 22-year-old prostitute was recently diagnosed with HIV. A decrease in which of the following cell types would be expected to accompany this virus?
Answer
  • CD8 T cells
  • T memory cells
  • CD4 T cells
  • B cells

Question 34

Question
Primary immune deficiencies occur because of:
Answer
  • A genetic defect
  • HIV
  • Excessive emotional stress
  • Lack of vitamin C

Question 35

Question
A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be effective?
Answer
  • ribavirin
  • reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • cell wall synthesis inhibitors
  • inhibitors of metabolism

Question 36

Question
Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
Answer
  • Passive natural
  • Active artificial
  • Active natural
  • Passive artificial

Question 37

Question
Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?
Answer
  • Hypoplasia of the thymus
  • Immunosuppresive agents
  • Atrophy of lymph nodes
  • Delayed hypersensitivity

Question 38

Question
All of the following are factors that promote healing EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Effective circulation
  • Advanced age
  • Good nutrition: protein, vitamins A & C
  • A clean, undisturbed wound

Question 39

Question
A raised thickened scar that grows beyond the wound margin is
Answer
  • Keloid scar
  • Epithelialisation
  • Ulcer
  • Hypertrophic scar

Question 40

Question
The purpose of inflammation include all the following except:
Answer
  • Eliminate/neutralise injurious agent
  • To remove body toxins
  • Localise injury and prevent further damage
  • Clean-up tissue for healing

Question 41

Question
The first phagocytic cell(s) to enter a site of injury are:
Answer
  • Neutrophils
  • Macrophages
  • Monocytes
  • Lymphocytes

Question 42

Question
Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Pyrexia
  • Malaise
  • Regional swelling
  • Anorexia

Question 43

Question
Pathophysiology may be defined as the study of:
Answer
  • Disease patterns
  • Disease causes
  • How disease develop and alter body function
  • A collection of signs and symptoms

Question 44

Question
Glucocorticoids are produced by
Answer
  • The hypothalamus
  • The spleen
  • The thymus glands
  • The adrenal glands

Question 45

Question
The mechanism of action of glucocorticoids include all of the following except:
Answer
  • Inhibit of helper T cells
  • Prevent the synthesis of arachidonic acid
  • Increase production of antibodies
  • Inhibit protein synthesis of chemical mediators

Question 46

Question
Which of the following effects is NOT one typically associated with glucocorticoids?
Answer
  • Reduced prostaglandin sythesis
  • Stimulation of fat and protein break down
  • Reduced bone density
  • Increased sodium and water retention

Question 47

Question
Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following
Answer
  • Opportunistic infections
  • Decreased bone density
  • Increased leukocyte production
  • Wasting skeletal muscle

Question 48

Question
Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti-inflammatory agent?
Answer
  • Paracetamol
  • Prednisone
  • Asprin
  • Ibuprofen

Question 49

Question
Drugs that have anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic activities include: 1. COX-2 inhibitors (NSAIDs). 2. glucocorticoids (e.g., prednisone). 3. ibuprofen (NSAID). 4. paracetamol. 5. aspirin.
Answer
  • 1,2
  • 2,4
  • 1,3,5
  • 1,4,5

Question 50

Question
All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover.
  • Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis.
  • Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.
  • Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis

Question 51

Question
Which of the following factors generally WOULD NOT delay wound healing?
Answer
  • Poor nutrition
  • Adequate serum levels of Vitamins A & C
  • Hypoxia
  • Advanced age

Question 52

Question
exudates are thick, yellow/green and typically indicates a bacterial infection
Answer
  • Serous
  • Fibrinous
  • Purulent
  • Haemorrhagic

Question 53

Question
Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Pyrexia
  • Malaise
  • Regional swelling
  • Anorexia

Question 54

Question
Chemical mediators released during inflammatory response include:
Answer
  • Albumin and fibrinogen
  • Growth factors and cell enzymes
  • Histamine and prostaglandins
  • Macrophages and neutrophils

Question 55

Question
Aetiology is defined as the study of the:
Answer
  • causes of a disease
  • course of a disease
  • expected complications of a disease
  • manifestations of a disease

Question 56

Question
Identify the proper sequence in the healing process
Answer
  • 1)A blood clot forms; 2) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 3) new blood vessels develop; 4) phagocytosis of foreign material and cell debris occurs; 5) and collagen fibers form a tight, strong scar.
  • 1)Foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes; 2) a blood clot forms; 3) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 4) new blood vessels form; 5) and collagen fibers grow and cross-link.
  • 1) A blood clot forms; 2) phagocytes remove foreign material and cell debris; 3) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 4) new blood vessels form; 5) and collagen fibers promote formation of a tight, strong scar.
  • 1) Collagen fibers form in the damaged area; 2) a blood clot forms; 3) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 4) angiogenesis takes place; 5) and foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes.

Question 57

Question
To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
Answer
  • Unplanned death of a group of cells
  • Preprogrammed cell self-destruction
  • Increase rate of mitosis of cells
  • Necrotic tissue invaded by bacteria

Question 58

Question
A patient is on a high dose of glucocorticoids to treat lupus. Which of the following blood tests would a nurse be most concerned about?
Answer
  • Blood glucose
  • Liver enzymes
  • Clotting time
  • pH

Question 59

Question
A patient with type 1 diabetes was prescribed a glucocorticoid for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which will the nurse expect in the treatment plan?
Answer
  • A decrease in the amount of insulin needed
  • An increase in the amount of insulin needed
  • No change in the amount of insulin needed
  • An increase in the need for carbohydrates

Question 60

Question
Inflammation is a non-specific response to:
Answer
  • Any injury to vascularised tissue
  • Cold temperatures
  • Micro-organisms only
  • Foreign material only

Question 61

Question
Histamines are produced from ? and cause ?.
Answer
  • Plasma proteins; increased platelet aggregation
  • Mast cells; vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
  • All cell membranes; pain
  • Platelets; attraction of neurophils

Question 62

Question
A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:
Answer
  • reduce the replication of many bacteria.
  • reduce the growth of many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
  • destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
  • destroy all pathogenic microbes

Question 63

Question
Bacterial mutation means that:
Answer
  • pathogens become nonpathogens
  • the host's immune response to that bacteria is strengthened
  • the bacteria survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate
  • its genetic information has changed

Question 64

Question
Pathogenicity:
Answer
  • is the capacity of microbes to cause disease/infection
  • is the size of a specific microbe
  • is the presence of toxins in the blood
  • is the presence of viruses in the blood

Question 65

Question
Exotoxins:
Answer
  • are very heat tolerant
  • may cause fever and fatigue
  • can disrupt cellular metabolic and signalling processes causing widespread damage
  • can be incorporated into the structure of the cell membrane as liposaccharides

Question 66

Question
Gram negative bacteria have
Answer
  • A thick peptidoglycan layer cell wall
  • A thin peptidoglycan cell wall sandwiched between an inner cytoplasmic cell membrane and a bacterial outer membrane.
  • No cell wall only a thick cell membrane
  • require oxygen as a source of energy and therefore for growth.

Question 67

Question
Protozoa:
Answer
  • are multicellular organisms
  • have intricate life cycles including egg, larvae and adults stages
  • replicate asexually by cell division
  • all of the answers are correct

Question 68

Question
Opportunistic infections are:
Answer
  • An infection by a non-pathogenic organism that has become pathogenic
  • The capacity of microbes to cause disease
  • Presence and multiplication of micro-organisms that is not yet causing disease
  • An organism participating in a symbiotic relationship with the host

Question 69

Question
What is a eukaryotic organism, that contains both a cell wall and cell membrane. When they cause an infection it is termed mycosis
Answer
  • Fungi
  • Virus
  • Bacteria
  • Protozoa

Question 70

Question
Which of the following factors would NOT increase the virulence of a specific microbe?
Answer
  • Secretion of endotoxins
  • Presence of a bacterial capsule
  • Secretion of enzymes
  • Size of the micro-organism

Question 71

Question
Triazole as an antifungal agent works by:
Answer
  • Disrupt the synthesis of its cell membrane
  • Disrupt DNA replication
  • Disrupt the synthesis of its cell wall
  • Inhibit hydrogen peroxide metabolism

Question 72

Question
An antimicrobial agent with a narrow spectrum of activity reflects a drug that has:
Answer
  • only a weak antibiotic action.
  • effectiveness against a relatively small variety of microbes.
  • a low potency.
  • a narrow margin of safety.

Question 73

Question
Which of the following signs would best indicate a bacterial infection (in comparison to a viral infection)?
Answer
  • The presence of pain
  • The presence of purelent exudate.
  • The presence of a serous exudate.
  • The presence of swelling.

Question 74

Question
During which period is the infectious disease fully developed?
Answer
  • Prodromal
  • Acute
  • Incubation
  • Aggresive

Question 75

Question
The structure of a virus includes:
Answer
  • a cell wall and membrane
  • metabolic enzymes and a cell wall
  • a protein coat and either DNA or RNA
  • a slime capsule and cilia

Question 76

Question
Bacteria:
Answer
  • require host cells in order to replicate
  • are prokaryotes
  • may cause mycosis
  • are contained within a capsid

Question 77

Question
Bacterial mutation means that:
Answer
  • pathogens become nonpathogens
  • the bacteria survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate
  • its genetic information has changed
  • the host's immune response to that bacteria is strengthened

Question 78

Question
Which of the following mechanisms is NOT one of the four typical mechanisms of action of antibiotic agents
Answer
  • Affect bacterial folic acid synthesis
  • Inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis
  • Disrupt bacterial meiosis
  • Disrupt cell wall synthesis

Question 79

Question
Which of the following clinical manifestations is not one typically associated with anaphylaxis
Answer
  • Pruritus
  • Hypertension
  • Stridor
  • Syncopy

Question 80

Question
Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?
Answer
  • Atrophy of lymph nodes
  • Immunosuppresive agents
  • Hypoplasia of the thymus
  • Delayed hypersensitivity

Question 81

Question
Primary immune deficiencies occur as a result of:
Answer
  • A genetic defect affecting immune cell number
  • Human immunodeficiency virus
  • Excessive emotional stress
  • Lack of vitamin C

Question 82

Question
An example of a live attenuated vaccine includes:
Answer
  • Polio
  • Rabies
  • DPT
  • Rubella

Question 83

Question
The main property of the adaptive immune response for immunity to previously encountered infections is:
Answer
  • Antigen specificity
  • Diversity
  • Memory
  • Self/non-self recognition

Question 84

Question
The role of memory cells is to
Answer
  • change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation.
  • immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen.
  • recognize the antigen and stimulate an immune response.
  • activate the hippocampus in the CNS

Question 85

Question
White blood cells responsible for adaptive immunity:
Answer
  • Neutrophils
  • Lymphocytes
  • Monocytes
  • Eosinophils

Question 86

Question
Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
Answer
  • T-helper cells
  • Macrophages
  • Eosinophils
  • Mast cells

Question 87

Question
A common primary target for most immunosuppressant drugs is:
Answer
  • Blocking cytokines
  • Suppressing B cell activation
  • Suppressing T cell activity
  • Suppressing macrophages

Question 88

Question
Some common treatments for immunodeficiency may include marrow or thymus transplants and:
Answer
  • Hyperbaric treatments
  • Blood transfusions and narrow spectrum antibiotics
  • Prophylactic antibiotics and cytokine stimulants
  • Antibiotics and radiation therapy

Question 89

Question
Interferons work by:
Answer
  • Suppress viral replication in infected cells
  • Stimulates cytokine production
  • Inhibit macrophage activity
  • Inducing fever

Question 90

Question
The immune system identifies foreign organisms via the recognition of surface:
Answer
  • antigens
  • cytokines
  • interferons
  • antibodies

Question 91

Question
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with a:
Answer
  • Type III hypersensitivity reaction
  • Type II hypersensitivity reaction
  • Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
  • Type I hypersensitivity reaction

Question 92

Question
Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:
Answer
  • development of an immune-deficient state.
  • a chronic allergic condition.
  • immune complex deposits of anti DNA/RNA antibodies.
  • a deficiency of T lymphocytes.

Question 93

Question
The type of white blood cells that contains chemical mediators and plays an important part in allergic inflammatory responses is the:
Answer
  • Basophil
  • Neutrophil
  • Monocyte
  • Macrophage

Question 94

Question
The common local effects of an expanding tumour mass include: 1. obstruction of a tube or duct. 2. anemia and weight loss. 3. cell necrosis and ulceration. 4. tumour markers in the circulation.
Answer
  • 1,2
  • 2,4
  • 1,3
  • 1,2,3,4

Question 95

Question
Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
Answer
  • The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors
  • The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
  • The effects of multiple metastatic tumors
  • Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer

Question 96

Question
Ultraviolet light is considered a carcinogen because:
Answer
  • It produces a carcinogenic enzyme in skin cells
  • It introduces errors into DNA (genes)
  • It directly prevents telomere shortening
  • It directly prevents DNA repair

Question 97

Question
First line treatment for testicular cancer always involves
Answer
  • nodulectomy
  • chemotherapy
  • radiation
  • orchidectomy

Question 98

Question
Staging systems used to classify a malignant tumour at the time of diagnosis are based on which of the following factors?
Answer
  • Size, encapsulated or non-encapsulated, invasion into neighboring tissue
  • Size of the tumour, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases
  • Location of tumour, size, type of cellular abnormality
  • Type of cellular abnormality, size of secondary tumours, location/tissue affected

Question 99

Question
Why is a patient with prostate cancer prescribed an estrogen?
Answer
  • To soften prostatic tissue
  • To decrease the rate of replication for malignant cells
  • To achieve hormonal balance
  • To suppress prostate gland function

Question 100

Question
Seeding refers to:
Answer
  • Spread of cancer cells in body cavities/membranes
  • Spread of cancer cells into the nearest lymph node
  • Local spread of cancer cells within a tissue
  • Spread of cancer cells to distant sites in the body by blood or lymph
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