MSK3 - Exam 3 - LE

1. 1An injury occurring during Uncontrolled Flexion of the knee is likely to damage which of the following structures?

   1. AAnteroMedial Bands of the ACL
   2. BPosteroLateral Bands of the ACL
   3. CAnteroLateral Bands of the ACL
   4. DPosteroMedial Bands of the ACL
2. 2An injury occurring during uncontrolled extension is most likely to damage which of the following structures?

   1. AAnteroLateral Bands of the ACL
   2. BPosterioMedial Bands of the ACL
   3. CAnteroMedial Bands of the ACL
   4. DPosteroLateral Bands of the ACL
3. 3Ouch! What happened to this guy's knee??

   

   1. ADashboard injury during MVA
   2. BPCL Tear
   3. CACL Tear
   4. DTwisting injury with foot planted on the ground
4. 4A positive Varus Stress Test with the knee in 0-degrees Flexion indicates injury to which of the following structures?

   1. ALCL
   2. BMCL
   3. CPCL
   4. DACL
5. 5Laxity in what position of the Valgus Stress Test (Knee) would indicate a major disruption?

   1. AFull Extension
   2. BFull Flexion
   3. C90-degrees Flexion
   4. D20-30-degrees Flexion
6. 6At [blank_start]10-20%[blank_end] of distention is when the amount of effusion first becomes visible to the naked eye.
   At [blank_start]5%[blank_end] of distention quadriceps inhibition is noted.

   1. A10-20%
   2. B5-10%
   3. C20-30%
   4. D40-50%
   5. E5%
   6. F10%
   7. G30%
   8. H20%
   9. I40%
   10. J50%
7. 7Spencer et al. revealed the following:
   *Onset of [blank_start]20-30mL[blank_end] of effusion – inhibition of the vastus medialis
   *Onset of [blank_start]50-60 mL[blank_end] of effusion – inhibition of the entire quadriceps

   1. A20-30mL
   2. B10-20mL
   3. C30-40mL
   4. D40-50mL
   5. E50-60mL
   6. F50-60 mL
   7. G10-20 mL
   8. H20-30 mL
   9. I30-40 mL
   10. J40-50 mL
8. 8As you know when the knee is moving into the classical motion there is a posterior glide of the tibia on the femur. As the knee gets closer to [blank_start]100-120[blank_end] degrees of knee flexion the posterior glide ceases and a tilting of the tibia occurs.

   1. A100-120
   2. B40-50
   3. C20-30
   4. D90-95
   5. E140-150
9. 9Which of the following statements are true regarding the Knee Rules?

   1. AThe Ottawa Knee Rules are good for ruling-out fractures.
   2. BThe Pittsburgh Knee Rules are good for ruling-out fractures
   3. CThe Ottawa Knee Rules are good for ruling-in fractures.
   4. DThe Pittsburgh Knee Rules are good for ruling-in fractures
   5. EUnlike the Ottawa Knee Rules that use examination findings, the Pittsburgh Knee Rules use a series of questions to decide on the necessity of a radiograph.
   6. FUnlike the Pittsburgh Knee Rules that use examination findings, the Ottawa Knee Rules use a series of questions to decide on the necessity of a radiograph.
   7. GThe Pittsburgh Knee Rules rule-out non-traumatic cases.
   8. HThe Ottawa Knee Rules cover both traumatic and non-traumatic cases.
   9. IThe Ottawa Knee Rules rule-out non-traumatic cases.
   10. JThe Pittsburgh Knee Rules cover both traumatic and non-traumatic cases.
10. 10A third-degree ACL sprain is more painful than a second-degree sprain.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse

11. 11A second-degree PCL sprain is more painful than a first degree ACL sprain.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
12. 12Based on the anatomical structure of the ACL, why might effusion not be present with a tear of the ACL?

    1. AThe ACL is extra-capsular
    2. BThe ACL is avascular
    3. CThe ACL is intra-articular
13. 13According to the BB Lesson, which of the following is the best special test to assess a meniscus injury?

    1. AMcMurray's
    2. BThessaly's
    3. CApley's Compression
14. 14Which of the following impairments can cause anterior knee pain?

    1. AMuscle Weakness
    2. BMuscle Tightness
    3. CEdema/Effusion
    4. DTendonitis
    5. EHypermobility
    6. FHypomobility
15. 15In the lower extremity what muscles typically get weak?

    1. AGlute Med
    2. BQuadriceps
    3. CHamstrings
    4. DAdductors
    5. EGastrocs
16. 16In the lower extremity what muscles typically get tight?

    1. AGlute Med
    2. BQuadriceps
    3. CHamstrings
    4. DAdductors
    5. EGastrocs
17. 17If the knee is in genu valgus, in what position are the hindfoot and ankle joint?

    1. APronation
    2. BSupination
18. 18If the knee is in genu valgus, in what position is the femur?

    1. AInternal Rotation
    2. BFlexion
    3. CExtension
    4. DExternal Rotation
19. 19Where can the symptoms present with ITB friction syndrome?

    1. ALateral Knee
    2. BLateral Retinaculum
    3. CGerdy's Tubercle
    4. DAnterior Knee
    5. EDeep Inside Knee
    6. FPosterior Knee
    7. GLateral Hip
20. 20In which of the following types of Femoral Acetabular Impingement (FAI) is the problem attributable to excessive osteophytes on the femoral head?

    1. APincer
    2. BCam
    3. CCombination
    4. DNone of these
21. 21In which of the following types of Femoral Acetabular Impingement (FAI) is the problem attributable to excessive osteophytes on the rim of the acetabulum?

    1. APincer
    2. BCam
    3. CCombination
    4. DNone of these
22. 22Anterior Femoral Acetabular Impingement (FAI) may be caused by which of the following motions?

    1. AFlexion
    2. BAdduction
    3. CInternal Rotation
    4. DExtension
    5. EAbduction
    6. FExternal Rotation
23. 23Posterior Femoral Acetabular Impingement (FAI) may be caused by which of the following motions?

    1. AFlexion
    2. BAdduction
    3. CInternal Rotation
    4. DExtension
    5. EAbduction
    6. FExternal Rotation
24. 24Which of the following findings would you expect with anterior femoral acetabular impingement?

    1. AAROM: limitation and pain with flexion, add, and IR
    2. BPROM C: limitation and pain with IR and flexion, abnormal muscle guarding
    3. CPROM A: hypomobile inferiorly/anteriorly with capsular tightness abnormal muscle guarding
    4. DPFC: signs of inflammation
    5. EAROM: limitation and pain with extension, abd, and IR
    6. FPROM C: limitation and pain with ER and extension
    7. GPFT: superficial tenderness in anterior hip
25. 25What are the special tests you have been taught that would help you confirm or refute the presence of an FAI?

    1. AFADDIR
    2. BFABER
    3. CScouring
    4. DOber's Test
    5. EThomas Test
26. 26[blank_start]Iliofemoral[blank_end] Ligament resists hip hyperextension
    [blank_start]Ischiofemoral[blank_end] Ligament resists hip internal rotation
    [blank_start]Pubofemoral[blank_end] Ligament resists hip abduction and extension

    1. AIliofemoral
    2. BIschiofemoral
    3. CPubofemoral
27. 27Which of the following relate to an Acute Labral Tear?

    1. ADemographic: traditionally younger, active individuals
    2. BMOI: weight bearing with sudden uncontrolled rotation or rotation beyond a normal range
    3. CSymptoms: pain, clicking, catching, locking, giving way
    4. DDemographic: traditionally older individuals, may be active or inactive
    5. EMOI: weight bearing with repetitive rotation, may be a normal part of the aging process
    6. FSymptoms: painless, excessive laxity
28. 28Which of the following relate to an Degenerative Labral Tear?

    1. ADemographic: traditionally younger, active individuals
    2. BMOI: weight bearing with sudden uncontrolled rotation or rotation beyond a normal range
    3. CSymptoms: pain, clicking, catching, locking, giving way
    4. DDemographic: traditionally older individuals, may be active or inactive
    5. EMOI: weight bearing with repetitive rotation, may be a normal part of the aging process
    6. FSymptoms: painless, excessive laxity
29. 29In regards to Risk Factors for Hip OA, which of the following are supported by higher level research (Level 1 or 2)?

    1. AAge
    2. BDevelopmental Disorders
    3. CRace
    4. DGender
    5. EGenetics
    6. FOccupation
    7. GSports Exposure (contact sports)
    8. HLeg Length Disparity
    9. IPrevious Injury
    10. JBMI
30. 30Joint space narrowing along with other radiographic features including osteophytes and subchondral sclerosis on plain film radiographs is considered the definitive diagnosis for hip OA.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
31. 31Cluster #1 for Hip OA:
    Hip [blank_start]internal rotation[blank_end] is less than [blank_start]15[blank_end] degrees
    Hip [blank_start]flexion[blank_end] is less than or equal to [blank_start]115[blank_end] degrees
    Age is greater than [blank_start]50[blank_end] years old

    1. Ainternal rotation
    2. Bflexion
    3. Cexternal rotation
    4. Dextension
    5. Eabduction
    6. Fadduction
    7. Gflexion
    8. Hextension
    9. Iinternal rotation
    10. Jexternal rotation
    11. Kadduction
    12. Labduction
    13. M15
    14. N5
    15. O25
    16. P35
    17. Q45
    18. R55
    19. S65
    20. T75
    21. U115
    22. V125
    23. W135
    24. X105
    25. Y95
    26. Z85
    27. AA75
    28. AB65
    29. AC50
    30. AD60
    31. AE70
    32. AF80
    33. AG40
    34. AH30
32. 32Hip OA Cluster #2:
    Hip [blank_start]internal rotation[blank_end] is greater than or equal to [blank_start]15 degrees[blank_end]
    Pain is present with hip [blank_start]internal rotation[blank_end]
    Duration of morning stiffness of the hip is less than or equal to [blank_start]60 minutes[blank_end]
    Age is greater than [blank_start]50[blank_end] years old

    1. Ainternal rotation
    2. Bexternal rotation
    3. Cflexion
    4. Dextension
    5. Eabduction
    6. Fadduction
    7. Ginternal rotation
    8. Hexternal rotation
    9. Iflexion
    10. Jextension
    11. Kabduction
    12. Ladduction
    13. M60 minutes
    14. N2 hours
    15. O3 hours
    16. P10 minutes
    17. Q30 minutes
    18. R15 degrees
    19. Scontralateral side
    20. T5 degrees
    21. U25 degrees
    22. V35 degrees
    23. W45 degrees
    24. X55 degrees
    25. Y50
    26. Z40
    27. AA30
    28. AB60
    29. AC70
    30. AD80
33. 33Entrapment of which of the following nerves could affect motor function of certain abdominal muscles.

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
34. 34Entrapment of which of the following nerves could affect motor function of the hip adductors?

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
35. 35If your patient has decreased muscular strength of the hip adductors, yet has normal sensation in the medial thigh, which nerve can you rule-out?

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
36. 36If your patient has decreased muscular strength of the hip adductors, yet has normal sensation in the foot, which nerve can you rule-out?

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
37. 37Sensory from the Genitals

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
38. 38Sensory from the Upper Anteromedial Thigh

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
39. 39Sensory from the Anterolateral Thigh

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
40. 40Sensory from the Posterolateral Thigh

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
41. 41Sensory from the Medial Thigh

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
42. 42Sensory from the Medial Knee

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
43. 43Sensory from the Posterolateral Lower Leg

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
44. 44Sensory from the Dorsal Foot

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
45. 45Sensory from the Plantar Foot

    1. AIlioinguinal n.
    2. BLateral Femoral Cutaneous n.
    3. CObturator n.
    4. DSciatic n.
46. 46The Ilioinguinal n. is innervated by which of the following nerve roots?

    1. AL1
    2. BL2
    3. CL3
    4. DL4
    5. EL5
    6. FS1
    7. GS2
    8. HS3
    9. IS4
    10. JS5
47. 47The Lateral Femoral Cutaneous n. is innervated by which of the following nerve roots?

    1. AL1
    2. BL2
    3. CL3
    4. DL4
    5. EL5
    6. FS1
    7. GS2
    8. HS3
    9. IS4
    10. JS5
48. 48The Obturator n. is innervated by which of the following nerve roots?

    1. AL1
    2. BL2
    3. CL3
    4. DL4
    5. EL5
    6. FS1
    7. GS2
    8. HS3
    9. IS4
    10. JS5
49. 49The Sciatic n. is innervated by which of the following nerve roots?

    1. AL1
    2. BL2
    3. CL3
    4. DL4
    5. EL5
    6. FS1
    7. GS2
    8. HS3
    9. IS4
    10. JS5
50. 50According to the Brunnstrom reading, the major function of the hip abductors is to maintain a level pelvis during unilateral stance (e.g. stance phase).

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
51. 51Of the following potential causes for PFPS, which will do so via hyper-mobility?

    1. AGenu Valgum
    2. BSmall Lateral Femoral Condyle
    3. CPatella Alta
    4. DTight Lateral Retinaculum
    5. ETight IT-Band
    6. FTight Quads
    7. GWeak Glute Med
    8. HWeak Quads
    9. ITight Hamstrings and Gastroc
    10. JTight Hip Adductors
52. 52Of the following potential causes for PFPS, which will do so via hypo-mobility?

    1. AGenu Valgum
    2. BSmall Lateral Femoral Condyle
    3. CPatella Alta
    4. DTight Lateral Retinaculum
    5. ETight IT-Band
    6. FTight Quads
    7. GWeak Glute Med
    8. HWeak Quads
    9. ITight Hamstrings and Gastroc
    10. JTight Hip Adductors
53. 53Which of the following impairments could cause PFPS via muscle imbalance?

    1. AWeak Glute Med
    2. BWeak Quads
    3. CTight Hamstrings
    4. DTight Gastroc
    5. ETight Hip Adductors
    6. FTight Glute Med
    7. GTight Quads
    8. HWeak Hamstrings
    9. IWeak Gastroc
    10. JWeak Hip Adductors

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USA-MSK Quiz on MSK3 - Exam 3 - LE, created by Ben Williams on 18/06/2018.

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