TEST TUDY 4

1. 1A Rate 2 turn is one that turns at a rate of:
   
   
   
   
   

   1. A3* degrees per second.
   2. B6* degrees per second.
   3. C2* degrees per second.
   4. D9* degrees per second.
2. 2The normal Angle of Bank used in commercial aircraft is normally Rate 1 or:
   
   
   
   

   1. A15*
   2. B20*
   3. C25*
   4. D30*
3. 3The 'Initial' segment of an instrument approach procedure is considered to be:
   
   
   
   
   

   1. AFrom the enroute airway track to begin the initial approach procedure.
   2. BFrom the IAF to the IF.
   3. CFrom the IF to the IAF.
   4. DFrom the IF to the FAF.
4. 4The 'Final' segment of a non-precision instrument approach with a FAF is:
   
   
   
   

   1. AFrom the IF to the Missed Approach point.
   2. BFrom the FAF to the IF.
   3. CFrom the IAF to the FAF.
   4. DFrom the FAF to the Missed Approach point.
5. 5If a 'Light' aircraft is following one designated as 'Medium', what wake turbulence separation should we leave?
   
   
   
   

   1. A5 nautical miles and 2 minutes.
   2. B6 nautical miles and 3 minutes.
   3. C5 minutes and 2 nautical miles.
   4. D6 minutes and 3 nautical miles.
6. 6If a 'Light' aircraft is following one designated as 'Heavy', what wake turbulence separation should we leave?
   
   
   
   
   
   
   

   1. A5 nautical miles and 2 minutes.
   2. B6 nautical miles and 3 minutes.
   3. C5 minutes and 2 nautical miles.
   4. D4 nautical miles and 3 minutes.
7. 7Above 14,000ft, what speed and time should we fly for a standard right-hand holding pattern?
   
   
   
   
   

   1. A230 Knots and 1 minute 30 seconds.
   2. B240 Knots and 1 minute 30 seconds.
   3. C220 Knots and 1 minute 15 seconds.
   4. D210 Knots and 1 minute 15 seconds.
8. 8When will the ATIS include weather information on clouds?
   
   
   

   1. AWhen base is below 5000ft or when CB is present in the vicinity.
   2. BWhen base is below 2,500ft or when CB is present in the vicinity.
   3. CAt all times, including when CB is present in the vicinity.
   4. DAll cloud types, excluding those pre-fixed with 'Alto'.
9. 9The normal Angle of Bank used in commercial aircraft is normally Rate 1 or:
   
   
   
   
   

   1. A15*
   2. B20*
   3. C25*
   4. D30*
10. 10EU-OPS 1 states that we should not conduct visual approaches when?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. ARVR less than 800m.
    2. BMeteorological visibility less than 1500ft.
    3. CRVR less than 550m.
    4. DMeteorological visibility less than 1200ft and clear of cloud.

11. 11Runway threshold lights show which colour in direction of approach to the runway?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. AGreen
    2. BAlternating green and white.
    3. CAll white, and then alternating green and white.
    4. DFlashing white
12. 12When should we submit a flight plan?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. AA flight plan should be submitted 60 minutes prior to departure if the aircraft is operating in IFR or VFR into specific designated areas or if the flight crosses international borders.
    2. BA flight plan should be submitted 60 minutes prior to departure if the aircraft is operating in IFR within advisory airspace, into specific designated areas and if the flight crosses international borders.
    3. CA flight plan should be submitted 30 minutes prior to departure if the aircraft is operating in IFR within advisory airspace, into specific designated areas and if the flight crosses international borders.
    4. DA flight plan should be submitted 60 minutes prior to departure (30 minutes if already airborne) if the aircraft is operating in IFR or VFR within advisory airspace, into specific designated areas and if the flight crosses international borders.
13. 13What is the MEA?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. AThe minimum enroute airway, ensuring the optimum fuel consumption for your journey.
    2. BThe minimum enroute altitude, which ensures obstacle clearance between radio fixes for the width of the airway being flown.
    3. CThe minimum enroute altitude, which ensures sufficient vertical separation of aircraft between radio fixes for the width of the airway being flown.
    4. DThe minimum enroute altitude, which ensures sufficient vertical separation of aircraft between RNAV points, for the width of the airway being flown.
14. 14If an accident occurred in flight or on the ground involving an aircraft, how long should all flight data and cockpit voice recordings be kept for?
    
    
    

    1. A24 months
    2. B12 months
    3. C30 days
    4. D60 days
15. 15An aircraft classed as 'Light' by ICAO has a MTOW of:
    
    
    
    
    

    1. A5,700kg or less
    2. B5,600kg or less
    3. C7,000kg or less
    4. D10,000kg or less
16. 16An aircraft classed as 'Heavy' by ICAO has an MTOW of:
    
    
    

    1. AOver 140,000kg
    2. BOver 136,000kg
    3. COver 135,000kg
    4. DOver 144,000kg
17. 17The IFR minimum height rule states that:
    
    
    

    1. AAircraft should be at 1,000ft within 5nm of obstacles, regardless of surrounding terrain.
    2. BAircraft should be at 1,000ft within 8nm of obstacles, regardless of surrounding terrain.
    3. CAircraft should be at 2,000ft within 5nm of obstacles. This is increased to 3,000ft in mountainous areas.
    4. DAircraft should be at 1,000ft within 5nm of obstacles. This is increased to 2,000ft in mountainous areas.
18. 18At which RVR are low-visibility take offs not permitted to be performed?
    
    
    

    1. A800m RVR
    2. B150m RVR
    3. C550m RVR
    4. D400m RVR
19. 19When is Runway Visual Range reported?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. AAt all times.
    2. BWhen visibility is below 1500m.
    3. CWhen visibility is below 1500ft.
    4. Dwhen visibility is below 800m.
20. 20What are the limitations for the take-off alternate?
    
    
    
    

    1. AFor 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA at alternate, the meteorologic conditions will be at or above the applicable aerodrome operating minima.
    2. BFor 1 hour before and 2 hours after ETA at alternate, the meteorologic conditions will be at or above the applicable aerodrome operating minima.
    3. CFor 2 hours before and 2 hours after ETA at alternate, the meteorologic conditions will be at or above the applicable aerodrome operating minima.
    4. DFor 30 minutes before and 30 minutes after ETA at alternate, the meteorologic conditions will be at or above the applicable aerodrome operating minima.
21. 21The tail light on aircraft is:
    
    
    
    

    1. AWhite in colour and spans approximately 140* degrees.
    2. BRed in colour and spans approximately 110* degrees.
    3. CBlue in colour and spans approximately 110* degrees.
    4. DGreen in colour and spans approximately 140* degrees.
22. 22What is the holdover time?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. AThe allotted time assigned to an aircraft in a holding pattern for which it can expect commencement of the instrument approach procedure.
    2. BThe time during which the process of de-icing and anti-icing is deemed effective.
    3. CThe max permissible time for an aircraft to delay an ETA to the destination aerodrome. Normally 20 minutes maximum.
    4. DThe allotted time assigned to an aircraft in a holding pattern which it can expect clearance to descend to the lowest level of the holding pattern, to commence the instrument approach procedure.
23. 23The lowest safe altitude for a defined sector to a range of 25 nautical miles from the aerodrome or navigational facility is the:
    
    
    
    

    1. AMOCA
    2. BOCH (A)
    3. CMSA
    4. DMDA
24. 24What are the standard ICAO minima for Cat 3A operations?
    
    
    
    

    1. ADecision height lower than 75ft and an RVR of not less than 250m.
    2. BDecision height lower than 100ft and an RVR of not less than 250m.
    3. CDecision height lower than 75ft and an RVR of not less than 200m.
    4. DDecision height lower than 100ft and an RVR of not less than 200m.
25. 25What are the visual meteorological conditions for aircraft operating below 10,000ft in Class D airspace?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. A8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud.
    2. BClear of cloud and in sight of surface.
    3. C5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud.
    4. D5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 3000m horizontally from cloud.
26. 26What are the visual meteorological conditions for aircraft operating above 10,000ft in Class E airspace?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. A5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud.
    2. BClear of cloud and in sight of surface.
    3. C8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud.
    4. D5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 500m horizontally from cloud.
27. 27How long should we keep the Aeroplane Tech Log for?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. A12 months
    2. B24 months
    3. C3 months
    4. D6 months
28. 28What are the standard ICAO minima for Cat 1 operations?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. ADecision height not lower than 200ft and RVR not less than 550m.
    2. BDecision height not lower than 100ft and RVR not less than 550m.
    3. CDecision height not lower than 250ft and RVR not less than 550m.
    4. DDecision height not lower than 250ft and RVR not less than 400m.
29. 29A 'caution zone' of runway lights is established over the last:
    
    
    
    
    

    1. A300m
    2. B600m
    3. C900m
    4. D800m
30. 30RVSM is a change of:
    
    
    
    
    

    1. AVertical separation from 2,000ft to 1,000ft between FL290 and FL410.
    2. BVertical separation from 1,000ft to 2,000ft between FL290 and FL410.
    3. CVertical separation from 2,000ft to 1,000ft between FL290 and FL420.
    4. DVertical separation from 1,000ft to 2,000ft between FL280 and FL420.
31. 31Which maintenance specialists can we use to complete routine maintenance on aircraft?
    
    
    

    1. AAny accredited by the flight authority.
    2. BAny accredited by the flight authority and state of manufacture.
    3. CAny maintenance specialist approved under EASA Part 145 to carry out maintenance.
    4. DAny maintenance specialist approved under EASA Part 150 to carry out maintenance.
32. 32When do we require a cockpit voice recorder?
    
    
    
    

    1. AIn aircraft weighing over 2 tonnes.
    2. BIn turbojet aircraft weighing over 10 tonnes.
    3. CIn multi-engine turbine aircraft with 9 max permissible passengers or more, or an MTOM of 5,700kg or greater.
    4. DIn multi-engine turbine aircraft with 19 max permissible passengers or more, or an MTOM of 5,700kg or greater.
33. 33A damp runway:
    
    
    
    

    1. AIs 25% covered by water.
    2. BGives a shiny appearance.
    3. CDoes not give a shiny appearance.
    4. DGives a reflective appearance.
34. 34When 25% or more of a runway surface area is covered by surface water more than 3mm deep, we call this:
    
    
    
    

    1. AA contaminated runway
    2. BA wet runway
    3. CA damp runway
    4. DA saturated runway
35. 35The manoeuvring area of an aerodrome excludes aprons and as designed for take-off and landing of aircraft.
    
    
    
    
    

    1. ATrue, this area also includes all airport taxiways.
    2. BFalse
    3. CFalse, it also includes aprons.
    4. DTrue
36. 36How long should we keep operational flight plans for?
    
    
    

    1. A6 months
    2. B3 months
    3. C12 months
    4. D24 months
37. 37What is an AIC, and what does it address?
    
    
    
    
    
    

    1. AAn AIC is an 'Aeronautical Information Circular' that provides an advanced warning of operational changes.
    2. BAn AIC is an 'Aeronautical Information Control' that provides an air traffic service to aircraft operating in F and G airspace.
    3. CAn AIC is an 'Aeronautical Information Circular' that provides an advanced warning of significant weather.
    4. DAn AIC is an 'Aeronautical Information Control' that provides an air traffic service to aircraft operating IFR within the Flight Information Regions.
38. 38Taxiway edge lights and taxiway centreline lights are?
    
    
    

    1. ABlue and green
    2. BBlue and white
    3. CGreen and blue
    4. DGreen and white
39. 39If braking action is listed as 0.40 efficiency, what do we class this as?
    
    
    
    
    
    
    

    1. AGood
    2. BPoor
    3. CAquaplanning possible.
    4. DMedium
40. 40A straight departure is considered to be:
    
    
    
    

    1. AOne where the initial departure track is within 15* of the alignment of the runway.
    2. BOne where the initial departure track is within 45* of the alignment of the runway.
    3. COne where the initial departure track is within 30* of the alignment of the runway.
    4. DOne where the initial departure track is within 25* of the alignment of the runway.
41. 41How do we classify aircraft?
    
    
    
    
    
    
    

    1. AThey are classified as A, B, C, D etc, against their speed at the threshold (Vat).
    2. BThey are classified as A, B, C, D etc, against their stall speed in the landing configuration (Vso).
    3. CThey are classified as A, B, C, D etc, against their climb speed in the take-off configuration (V2+15).
    4. DThey are classified as A, B, C, D etc, against their stall speed in the approach configuration (Vs1).
42. 42How many degrees must you remain within to descend on the final approach track on a non-precision procedure when flying with reference to your ADF?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. A5*
    2. B10*
    3. C20*
    4. D2.5*
43. 43In which part, A or B of our Operations manual, where would we find the 'Rules of the Air' ?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. APart 'A'
    2. BPart 'B'
    3. CIn neither, this is found in local air authority manuals only.
    4. DIn both Part 'A' and 'B'.
44. 44Our operations manuals are split in to Part A and Part B. Where can we find information on Flight Time Limitations?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. AEASA Directives
    2. BPart 'A'
    3. CPart 'B'
    4. DThis is type-specific.
45. 45We're at FL100, and have just completed a standard right-hand hold in 1 minute in still air. What speed are we flying?
    
    
    
    
    

    1. A210 Knots
    2. B220 Knots
    3. C230 Knots
    4. D240 Knots
46. 46What is a GPWS and on which aircraft is it mandatory?
    
    
    
    

    1. AGround Proximity Warning System and mandatory on aircraft above 5700KG.
    2. BGround Proximity Warning System and mandatory on all aircraft manufactured after 2001 for the purpose of carriage of passengers for commercial gain.
    3. CGround Proximity Warning System and mandatory on aircraft above 2000KG.
    4. DGround Proximity Warning System and mandatory on aircraft with ability to carry 9+ passengers.
47. 47When choosing a destination, the meteorological conditions for a non-precision circling approach must be:
    
    
    
    

    1. AAbove minima.
    2. BAbove the MDH for the circling approach.
    3. CAbove the OCH or OCA.
    4. DAbove the required RVR for the minimum aerodrome operating minima.
48. 48Minimum Navigation Peformance Specification airspace is defined vertically between:
    
    
    

    1. AFL280 and FL420
    2. BFL285 and FL420
    3. CFL290 and FL410
    4. DFL285 and FL415
49. 49When should we submit a flight plan?
    
    
    

    1. AA flight plan should be submitted 60 minutes prior to departure if the aircraft is operating in IFR or VFR into specific designated areas or if the flight crosses international borders.
    2. BA flight plan should be submitted 60 minutes prior to departure if the aircraft is operating in IFR within advisory airspace, into specific designated areas and if the flight crosses international borders.
    3. CA flight plan should be submitted 30 minutes prior to departure if the aircraft is operating in IFR within advisory airspace, into specific designated areas and if the flight crosses international borders.
    4. DA flight plan should be submitted 60 minutes prior to departure (30 minutes if already airborne) if the aircraft is operating in IFR or VFR within advisory airspace, into specific designated areas and if the flight crosses international borders.
50. 50The decision height is:
    
    
    
    
    
    
    

    1. ARelative to the height of the aircraft above the runway elevation, with QFE set in the altimeter.
    2. BRelative to the height of the aircraft above the runway elevation, with QNH set in the altimeter.
    3. CRelative to the altitude of the aircraft above the runway elevation, with QNH set in the altimeter.
    4. DRelative to the altitude of the aircraft wheels above the runway elevation, with QFE set in the altimeter.
51. 51How long is the type rating skills test valid for?
    
    
    
    
    
    

    1. A6 months
    2. B12 months
    3. C2 years
    4. D5 years

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Quiz on TEST TUDY 4, created by tanque jacobo on 03/07/2018.

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