W1 Questions

Description

Quiz on W1 Questions, created by Madi Egan on 02/10/2018.
Madi Egan
Quiz by Madi Egan, updated more than 1 year ago
Madi Egan
Created by Madi Egan over 5 years ago
170
2

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
(Inheritance W1) You have received chromosome results back on the products of conception from your patient who has had a miscarriage. The karyotype is designated 92,XXXY. Which term below describes the karyotype?
Answer
  • Haploid
  • Aneuploid
  • Triploid
  • Tetraploid

Question 2

Question
(Inheritance W1) Polycystic kidney disease is a significant cause of renal failure that presents from early infancy to adulthood. Early-onset cases tend to affect one family member or siblings, whereas adult-onset cases often show a vertical pattern in the pedigree with affected family members in each generation. Which of the following provides the BEST explanation of these observations?
Answer
  • Pleitropy
  • Variable expressivity
  • Locus heterogeneity
  • Allelic heterogeneity

Question 3

Question
(Cytogenetics W1) A standard chromosome analysis is ordered for a child with heart defects, developmental delay, and an unusual facial appearance. The results are normal. A clinical geneticist colleague with whom you consult suspects Williams syndrome and recommends that fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) be performed on the patient's chromosomes using a probe for chromosome 7. Only one signal is seen for the chromosome 7 probe in each chromosome spread examined. Which of the following statements best summarizes the analyses?
Answer
  • A microdeletion is present on one of the patient's chromosomes 7.
  • This is a normal result.
  • The initial karyotype results are inconsistent with the FISH results.
  • FISH is only helpful when the initial karyotype results are abnormal.

Question 4

Question
(Cytogeneics W1) Which of the following features distinguishes meiosis from mitosis?
Answer
  • Separation of sister chromatids.
  • DNA replication in preceding interphase
  • Missegregation of chromosomes, which may lead to aneuploidy.
  • Synapsis of homologs during prophase I.

Question 5

Question
(DNA Replication W1) A one-year old child was treated in the emergency department for severe sunburn. According to the parents, the child had minimal sun exposure. No other abnormalities were noted in the physical exam except for freckling. You suspect:
Answer
  • Possible defect in nucleotide excision repair
  • Parental neglect
  • Possible defect in DNA mismatch repair
  • A defect in the process that controls the initiation of DNA replication

Question 6

Question
(DNA Replication W1) A patient with Xeroderma pigmentosum has a defect in the XPA gene leading to a defect in nucleotide excision repair (NER). Cell extracts are prepared from this patient's cells and tested for the ability to perform nucleotide excision repair on DNA damage resulting from exposure to UV light. What outcome would you predict?
Answer
  • Extracts remove lesions too fast but there is no lasting defect
  • Cell extracts perform NER within normal limits
  • Cell extracts cannot repair UV damaged DNA
  • Exposure to UV light does not result in the specific DNA damage that is repaired by NER

Question 7

Question
(DNA Replicatoin W1) The replication of genomic DNA is a tightly-controlled fundamental process. The beginning or initiation of chromosomal replication is initiated where?
Answer
  • No proteins are involved in initiation, only DNA is required.
  • From the centromere of each chromosome
  • At an origin
  • At the telomeres

Question 8

Question
(DNA Replication) Many drugs target the DNA replication process by altering the DNA template, inhibiting crucial enzyme activity, or blocking replication elongation. Drugs that inhibit bacterial Type II Topoisomerases (quinolone related) are very effective in antibacterial chemotherapy. What function of topoisomerase during replication are quinolones targeting?
Answer
  • Unwinding of the Okazaki fragment by the replicative helicase
  • Resolution of supercoiling created by DNA strand separation by the moving replication fork
  • Primer loading at the origin of replication by the sliding clamp protein
  • Loading of the Okazaki fragments in the leading strand

Question 9

Question
(CSL) In systole, which valves are open and which valves are closed?
Answer
  • Open: mitral, tricuspid; Closed: aortic, pulmonic
  • Open: pulmonic, tricuspid; Closed: aortic, mitral
  • Open: aortic, pulmonic; Closed: mitral, tricuspid
  • Open: aortic, mitral; Closed: pulmonic, tricuspid

Question 10

Question
(Anatomy) Which type of imaging uses no radiation?
Answer
  • PET scan
  • CT scan
  • MRI
  • Plain X-ray

Question 11

Question
(Anatomy) Which one of the following types of anatomical planes would divide the body into a left half and a right half?
Answer
  • Sagittal
  • Horizontal
  • Frontal
  • Transverse

Question 12

Question
(Anatomy) A 15-year-old girl is suspected of having meningitis. To obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid by lumbar puncture, the tip of the needle must be placed in which of the following locations?
Answer
  • Between arachnoid mater and dura mater
  • Between pia mater and arachnoid mater
  • Deep to pia mater
  • Superficial to dura mater

Question 13

Question
(Anatomy) The ventral (anterior) roots of the spinal nerves contain axons of somatic___________?
Answer
  • afferent and somatic efferent neurons
  • afferent and visceral afferent neurons
  • afferent neurons
  • efferent neurons

Question 14

Question
(Cell Bio) Small unrestrained particles such as proteins in an aqueous solution are in constant riotous motion due to thermal energy. Which of the following is a defining property of thermally-driven Brownian motion in the cell?
Answer
  • The thermally-driven Brownian motion of a protein or protein complex is independent of its mass.
  • The thermally-driven Brownian motion of a protein or protein complex in the cell results from collisions of the particle with water molecules.
  • The path of a single protein molecule exhibiting thermally-driven Brownian motion in the cell would fill the cell's volume uniformly in an instant.
  • The combined paths of millions of protein molecules exhibiting thermally-driven Brownian motion in the cell would eventually fill the cell's volume more or less uniformly.

Question 15

Question
(Metabolism) During an enzymatically catalyzed reaction, what do the enzymes stabilize?
Answer
  • Product
  • Substrate
  • Transition state
  • Reverse reaction

Question 16

Question
(Early Embryology) The amniotic cavity first forms by cavitation within which layer of cells?
Answer
  • Extraembryonic mesoderm
  • Epiblast
  • Hypoblast
  • Syncytiotrophoblast

Question 17

Question
(Embryology) Certain factors delay the transport of the cleavage stage embryo through the uterine tube (oviduct). This delay may cause which of the following?
Answer
  • Extrauterine pregnancy
  • Failure in fertilization
  • Failure in zona reaction
  • Formation of twins

Question 18

Question
(Embryology) Which of the following types of cells will specifically form the embryo?
Answer
  • Trophoblast
  • Cytotrophoblast
  • ICM
  • Follicle

Question 19

Question
(Genome organization) What functionally separates neighbouring Topologically Associated Domains (TADs) from each other?
Answer
  • Genes
  • Boundaries
  • Enhancers
  • Segmental duplications

Question 20

Question
(CSL) A heart murmur is caused by:
Answer
  • Rapid deceleration of blood during early diastole
  • Rapid deceleration of blood during late diastole
  • Turbulent blood flow across a valve or septal defect
  • An inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing against each other

Question 21

Question
(Biochem) Please use the attached image to answer the following: Some amino acids have ionizable side chains. Which amino acid would have the titration curve shown in the attached figure?
Answer
  • Alanine
  • Glycine
  • Histidine
  • Leucine

Question 22

Question
(Biochem) The concentration of H+ ions in a solution at pH 6 compared to pH 7 is:
Answer
  • Twice as high
  • Twice as low
  • Ten times higher
  • ten times lower

Question 23

Question
(Biochem) Although all protein structures are unique, there are common structural building blocks that are referred to as regular secondary structures. Some proteins have a helices, some have B sheets, and still others have a combination of both. Which of the features below is most responsible for enabling proteins to have these common structural elements?
Answer
  • Specific amino acid sequences
  • Side-chain interactions
  • The hydrophobic-core interactions
  • Hydrogen bonds along the protein backbone

Question 24

Question
(Genome Organization) The Philadelphia chromosome was a landmark because it was the first consistent chromosome abnormality found in any kind of malignancy. What kind of chromosomal rearrangement creates the Philadelphia chromosome?
Answer
  • inversion
  • translocation
  • deletion
  • duplication

Question 25

Question
In judging the quality of a physician, which of the following factors is noted as being most important to patients?
Answer
  • The physician's use of advanced medical technology
  • The physician's amount of time spent on the physical exam of the patient
  • The physician's ability to build rapport and communicate empathetically
  • The perceived age and gender of a physician

Question 26

Question
A physician's active listening is a key part of communication between physician and patient. Active listening includes accurately summarizing the patient's story and responding empathetically. Another indicator of active listening is:
Answer
  • Repeating back the patient's words verbatim to show you have paid careful attention
  • Paraphrasing the patient's words to demonstrate understanding
  • To start taking notes right away to show you don't want to miss a word
  • Immediately opening the patient's EMR to demonstrate you are aware of their history

Question 27

Question
(Genetic Variation) In reference to genetic variation, a mutation is best characterized as:
Answer
  • A permanent change in the nucleotide sequence or arrangement of DNA, ranging from a single nucleotide to alterations of an entire chromosome
  • Any change in the DNA sequence which results in disease
  • An alternate genotype in the population of which the rarer allele has a frequency of at least 1%
  • Any common variant in the population that increases susceptibility to disease

Question 28

Question
(Genetic Variation) Your 8 y.o. patient and his parents undergo genome sequencing. The report shows that your patient has a variant, c.100delAG in a gene associated with his phenotype. This variant is not found in either of his parents nor in any population database or the literature. What is your best interpretation?
Answer
  • This is a benign missense variant that, without other evidence, does not explain this patient's clinical presentation.
  • This is a variant of unknown significance since it has never been reported in a patient.
  • This is a likely pathogenic missense variant but it requires confirmation by a functional assay
  • This is a de novo, novel likely pathogenic variant that produces a frameshift and results in disease.

Question 29

Question
(Inheritance and pedigree) Use the attached image to answer the following: The attached pedigree shows segregation of a rare genetic disease through a family. Filled in symbols represent family members with the disease phenotype. What is the MOST LIKELY mode of inheritance?
Answer
  • AR
  • AD
  • XLD
  • Mitochondrial

Question 30

Question
(Metabolism) Please use the attached image to answer the following: In the attached graph of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, what is indicated by the letter "X"?
Answer
  • The change in Gibbs Free Energy, ∆G10
  • The equilibrium constant, K'eq
  • The Michaelis-Menton constant, Km
  • the maximal velocity, Vmax

Question 31

Question
(Protein Structure) Of the following amino acids, which one can be phosphorylated on its side chain?
Answer
  • alanine
  • glutamic acid
  • lysine
  • tyrosine

Question 32

Question
(Proteins) Studies conducted with a lysozyme mutant that contains an Asp->Asn change at position 52 and a Glu->Gln change at position 35 exhibited almost a complete loss in enzymatic activity. What is the most likely explanation for the decrease in enzyme activity in the mutant?
Answer
  • Increased affinity for substrate
  • Absence of negative charges in the active site
  • Change in the active-site scaffold
  • Larger amino acids in the active site decreases the affinity for substrate

Question 33

Question
(Proteins) Polypeptides are synthesized from amino acid building blocks. The condensation reaction between the growing polypeptide chain and the next amino acid to be added involves the combined loss of ________________ from the newly formed peptide.
Answer
  • a water molecule
  • an amino group
  • a carbon atom
  • a carboxylic acid group

Question 34

Question
(Pedigree) Use the attached image to answer the following: Attached is the pedigree of a family in which a genetic disease is segregating. Affected family members are in black. The MOST LIKELY mode of inheritance is:
Answer
  • AD
  • AR
  • XLR
  • Mitochondrial
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