Research Techniques Quiz

1. 1A nucleoside consists of a [blank_start]pentose sugar[blank_end] and an organic (nitrogenous) base.

   1. Apentose sugar
2. 2The difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide is that both have a pentose sugar and nitrogenous base, but a nucleoside has the addition of a phosphate group as well.

   1. ATrue
   2. BFalse
3. 3Where does the phosphate group attach to the sugar moiety (pentose sugar)?

   1. A1' carbon
   2. B2' carbon
   3. C3' carbon
   4. D4' carbon
   5. E5' carbon
4. 4Drag the labels to their correct position. Alpha, beta, and gamma refer to the phosphates. Not all labels are to be used. The dots above the picture refer to what part of the picture you are looking at (eg. phosphate group, organic (nitrogenous) base, or pentose sugar).

   

   1. AAlpha
   2. BBeta
   3. CGamma
   4. DRibose
   5. EDeoxyribose
   6. FAdenine
   7. GGuanine
   8. HCytosine
   9. IThymine
   10. JUracil
   11. KPhosphate group
   12. LPentose Sugar
   13. MOrganic (nitrogenous) base
   14. NGlycosidic Bond
5. 5What is incorporated into DNA or RNA polymers?

   1. AAdenosine Monophosphate (AMP)
   2. BAdenosine Diphosphate (ADP)
   3. CAdenosine Triphosphate (ATP)
6. 6Alpha and Beta phosphates are used for energy to incorporate nucleotides into a developing polynucleotide.

   1. ATrue
   2. BFalse
7. 7The common representation of polynucleotides is as an arrow with the 5' end at the left and the 3' end at the right, with the arrow pointing at the 3' end.

   1. ATrue
   2. BFalse
8. 8Typically, polynucleotides will contain a 5' [blank_start]phosphate[blank_end] and 3' [blank_start]hydroxyl[blank_end] terminal groups

   1. Aphosphate
   2. Bhydroxyl
9. 9Connected strands in the DNA double helix run in a(n)

   1. AParallel direction to each other
   2. BAntiparallel direction to each other
10. 10The nitrogenous base 'adenine' can form base pairs with
    (choose all that apply)

    1. ACytosine
    2. BThymine
    3. CGuanine
    4. DUracil
    5. EAdenine

11. 11The nitrogenous base 'Guanine' can form base pairs with:
    (choose all that apply)

    1. ACytosine
    2. BGuanine
    3. CAdenine
    4. DThymine
    5. EUracil
12. 12[blank_start]Chargaff's Law[blank_end]: A = T ; G = C

    1. AChargaff's Law
13. 13Nuclear DNA is replicated during the process of [blank_start]mitosis[blank_end]

    1. Amitosis
14. 14Mitochondrial DNA is only inhereted

    1. AMaternally
    2. BPaternally
    3. CFrom both parents
15. 15Mitochondria DNA is replicated:

    1. ADuring mitosis
    2. Bthrough binary fission
16. 16Eukaryotic chromosomal DNA is [blank_start]linear[blank_end], while prokaryotic chromosomal DNA is [blank_start]circular[blank_end]

    1. Alinear
    2. Bcircular
17. 17Label the Central Dogma

    

    1. ADNA
    2. Btranscription
    3. CRNA
    4. DTranslation
    5. EProtein
18. 18The path from DNA to Chromosomes is as follows: 1) DNA supercoils to fit inside the cell; 2) DNA wraps around histones to form nucleosomes; 3) Chains of nucleosomes combine together to form chromatin; 4) Chromatin winds together to form chromatids 5) Unique chromatids are the basis of chromosomes.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
19. 19What kind of genomic DNA is found in prokaryotes?

    1. AChromosomal DNA and Mitochondrial DNA
    2. BChloroplast DNA and Chromosomal DNA
    3. CMitochondrial DNA and Chloroplast DNA
    4. DChromosomal, mitochondrial, & chloroplast DNA
    5. EChromosomal and plasmid DNA
    6. Fplasmid DNA and mitochondrial DNA
    7. GChromosomal, mitochondrial, & plasmid DNA
20. 20Eukaryotic genomic DNA includes nuclear/chromosomal DNA, [blank_start]chloroplast DNA[blank_end], and mitochondrial DNA.

    1. Achloroplast DNA
21. 21[blank_start]Genomic DNA[blank_end] is the entire complement of DNA found in an organism. (Spell out fully)

    1. AGenomic DNA
22. 22Mitochondria are thought to have originated from [blank_start]bacteria[blank_end].

    1. Abacteria
23. 23All prokaryotes have chromosomal and plasmid DNA.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
24. 24Plasmid DNA is usually (choose all that apply):

    1. ALinear
    2. BCircular
    3. CDNA
    4. DRNA
    5. Esingle-stranded
    6. Fdouble-stranded
25. 25Plasmids are only found in prokaryotic organisms.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
26. 26A gene is a [blank_start]segment of DNA[blank_end].

    1. Asegment of DNA
27. 27A gene is a sequence of [blank_start]nucleotides[blank_end] that codes for a functional product, which is usually a [blank_start]protein[blank_end].

    1. Aprotein
    2. Bnucleotides
28. 28DNA Replication is the duplication of DNA which occurs during the S phase of Interphase (during mitosis).

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
29. 29[blank_start]Transcription[blank_end]: The process by which a molecule of DNA is copied into a complementary strand of RNA (mRNA).

    1. ATranscription
30. 30In the process of DNA isolation, tissues are digested in a [blank_start]detergent[blank_end]. Two examples are SDS and SLS.

    1. Adetergent
31. 31In the process of DNA isolation, chelating agents get rid of [blank_start]divalent cations[blank_end].

    1. Adivalent cations
32. 32DNA is _________; alcohol is ___________.

    1. Ahydrophilic; hydrophobic
    2. Bhydrophobic; hydrophilic
33. 33In DNA extraction type 2: 'phenol: chloroform', [blank_start]phenol[blank_end] solvates DNA.

    1. Aphenol
34. 34The pros of the high salt DNA extraction method are: high yield, inexpensive, and quick and simple.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
35. 35The most accurate way of determining how much DNA you have is via:

    1. ASpectrophotometry
    2. BAgarose gel electrophoresis
36. 36Correctly create this chart by placing headings and examples of each into the columns for restriction enzyme cleavage. The first column is 3' overhangs, the second column is 5' overhangs, and the 3rd column is blunt ends. Examples are listed alphabetically.

    

    1. A3' Overhangs
    2. B5' Overhangs
    3. CBlunt End Cutters
    4. DAlu1
    5. EEcoRV
    6. FHaeIII
    7. GRsaI
    8. HSmaI
    9. IBamHI
    10. JEcoRI
    11. KHinDIII
    12. LNotI
    13. MXbaI
    14. NBglI
    15. OKpnI
    16. PNcoI
    17. QPvuI
    18. RSacII
37. 37You can store diluted enzymes long-term.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
38. 381) [blank_start]Miniprep[blank_end]: 50-100ug pDNA
    2) [blank_start]Midiprep[blank_end]: 100-350ug pDNA
    3) [blank_start]Maxiprep[blank_end]: 500-850ug pDNA
    4) [blank_start]Megaprep[blank_end]: 1.5-2.5 mg pDNA
    5) [blank_start]Gigaprep[blank_end]: 7.5-10 mg pDNA

    1. AMiniprep
    2. BMidiprep
    3. CMaxiprep
    4. DMegaprep
    5. EGigaprep
39. 39Type III restriction endonucleases are most commonly used.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
40. 40The first type II RE characterised was from E.coli and was designated [blank_start]EcoRI[blank_end]

    1. AEcoRI
41. 41Enzymes must be stored at -20 degrees C. It is best to store enzymes in a frost-free freezer to prevent formation of ice crystals in the enzyme solution.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
42. 42Select all of the loading buffers.

    1. ARedSafe
    2. BBromophenol blue
    3. COG
    4. DEtBr
    5. ESYBR green
    6. FXylene cyanole
43. 43What kind of molecule is agarose? A [blank_start]polysaccharide[blank_end].

    1. Apolysaccharide
44. 44The process of isolating plasmid DNA is often referred to as a [blank_start]MINI-PREP[blank_end].

    1. AMINI-PREP
45. 45If excess enzyme is used it may result in [blank_start]non-specific[blank_end] cutting (called [blank_start]star activity[blank_end]).

    1. Anon-specific
    2. Bstar activity
46. 46Enzymes such as [blank_start]proteases[blank_end] and [blank_start]RNases[blank_end] are often present on our fingers/hands.

    1. Aproteases
    2. BRNases
47. 47During DNA isolation, during the tissue digestion step these three enzymes are often included: hemiceullulases, lysozymes, and [blank_start]collegenases[blank_end].

    1. Acollegenases
48. 48The [blank_start]sonication[blank_end] method uses sound waves to disrupt [blank_start]membranes[blank_end] using high-frequency sound.

    1. Amembranes
    2. Bsonication
49. 49The [blank_start]detergent[blank_end] technique (SDS or SLS) solubilizes the [blank_start]lipid[blank_end] bilayer. It can be used for all tissue types.

    1. Adetergent
    2. Blipid
50. 50[blank_start]Homogenization[blank_end] uses mechanical shearing to disrupt membranes by physical force. Used on [blank_start]plant[blank_end] tissue.

    1. AHomogenization
    2. Bplant
51. 51Sonication can be used on bacterial and fungal cells.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
52. 52An example of a chelating agent is EDTA.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
53. 53Both RNA and DNA absorb UV light very efficiently making it possible to detect and quantify at concentrations as low as [blank_start]2.5ng[blank_end]/µL.

    1. A2.5ng
54. 54Beer's law states that absorbance is directly proportional to concentration.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
55. 55proteins have a UV absorption maximum of [blank_start]280nm[blank_end], due mostly to tyrosine and tryptophan.

    1. A280nm
56. 56The absorbance of a DNA sample at [blank_start]280[blank_end]nm gives an estimate of the protein contamination of the sample.

    1. A280
57. 57The ratio of the absorbance at [blank_start]260[blank_end]/[blank_start]280[blank_end]nm is a measure of the purity of a DNA sample; it should be between [blank_start]1.8[blank_end] and [blank_start]1.95[blank_end].

    1. A260
    2. B280
    3. C1.8
    4. D1.95
58. 58Pure double-stranded DNA has an ideal purity reading of 1.85.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse

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Quiz on Research Techniques Quiz, created by Shauna Ryner on 09/10/2018.

Author

Shauna Ryner

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