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Fetal year 1

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Quiz on Fetal year 1, created by David alibhai on 12/03/2019.
David alibhai
Quiz by David alibhai , updated more than 1 year ago
David alibhai
Created by David alibhai about 5 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
How often do hcG levels double in a typical pregnancy
Answer
  • 1-3 days
  • 2-3 days
  • 2-4 days
  • 3 days

Question 2

Question
When does the placenta become the primary support for a growing fetus
Answer
  • 10-12 weeks
  • 9 weeks
  • 11 weeks
  • 11-15 weeks

Question 3

Question
A 23 year old pregnant women comes in due to increases thirst, needing to pee more often than usual and is very tired. You discover she has very high blood sugar levels
Answer
  • Gestational diabetes
  • Type 1 diabetes mellitus
  • Type 2 diabetes mellitus
  • Addison’s disease

Question 4

Question
A 23 year old pregnant women comes in due to increases thirst, needing to pee more often than usual and is very tired. You discover she has very high blood sugar levels. What substance is causing the underlying pathology
Answer
  • HPL
  • hcG
  • Progesterone
  • Oestrogen

Question 5

Question
What cells secrete HPL
Answer
  • Trophoblasts
  • Syncytrophoblasts
  • Endometrial cells
  • Theca cells

Question 6

Question
What is the role of HPL
Answer
  • Anti insulin, modification of metabolic state and promotion of growth of mammary glands
  • Anti insulin, promotion of mammary gland growth and supports the placenta
  • Anti insulin, supports the endometrium and supports the placenta
  • Anti insulin, control of metabolic state, promotion of growth of mammary glands and smooth muscle relaxant

Question 7

Question
Are chromosomes with the centromere at the centre of the chromosome
Answer
  • Metacentric
  • Submetacentric
  • Acrocentric
  • Mediacentric

Question 8

Question
Which of these best describes echratin DNA
Answer
  • Light staining regions, more accessible chromatin, more gene rich and transcriptionally active
  • Light staining regions, tightly packed chromatin, more gene rich and transcriptionally active
  • Dark staining regions, more accessible chromatin, more gene rich and transcriptionally active
  • Light staining regions, more accessible chromatin, have few genes and transcriptionally active

Question 9

Question
[blank_start]X inactivation[blank_end] is where in females due to 2 X chromosomes one is switched off in all cells to prevent double coding
Answer
  • X inactivation
  • x activation
  • pseudoautosomal region

Question 10

Question
[blank_start]Pseudoautosomal regions[blank_end] occurs since the Y and X chromosomes don’t have homologous chromosomes to pair with during meiosis they have identical sequences in their telomeres
Answer
  • Pseudoautosomal regions
  • x activation
  • dosage compensation
  • x inactivation

Question 11

Question
Click the correct role of each shunt in its movement of blood
Image:
Mobile upload (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • from placenta to bypass liver
  • from pulmonary artery to descending aorta
  • from right atrium to left atrium
  • from pulmonary artery to descending aorta
  • from right to left atrium
  • from placenta to bypass the liver
  • from right to left atrium
  • from pulmonary artery to descending aorta
  • from placenta to bypass the liver

Question 12

Question
Label the 3 shunts
Image:
Mobile upload (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • foramen ovale
  • ductus venosus
  • ductus arteriosis
  • ductus venosus
  • ductus arteriosis
  • foramen ovale
  • ductus arteriosis
  • ductus venosus
  • foramen ovale

Question 13

Question
Deoxygenated blood in the main pulmonary artery is mostly directed through the [blank_start]ductus arteriosis[blank_end] because of pulmonary [blank_start]vasoconstriction[blank_end]. It joins the [blank_start]descending[blank_end] aorta to supply the [blank_start]lower[blank_end] body, thus preserving the brains oxygen supply
Answer
  • ductus arteriosis
  • foramen ovale
  • ductus venosus
  • vasoconstriction
  • vasodilation
  • descending
  • ascending
  • lower
  • upper

Question 14

Question
What condition ensures that the foramen ovale remains open
Answer
  • Right atrial pressure is higher than left atrial pressure
  • Left atrial pressure is higher than right atrial pressure
  • Both pressures are equal
  • Blood is oxygenated from the placenta

Question 15

Question
What vessel transports the oxygenated blood in fetal circulation
Answer
  • Inferior vena cava
  • Superior vena cava
  • Aorta
  • Pulmonary vein

Question 16

Question
After the first breath the oxygen pressure [blank_start]increases[blank_end] causing pulmonary [blank_start]vasodilation[blank_end] which [blank_start]lowers[blank_end] right atrial pressure. Along with this placental circulation [blank_start]ceases[blank_end] increasing [blank_start]left[blank_end] atrial pressure. This results in the [blank_start]foramen ovale[blank_end] closing which allows venous blood to enter the lungs further [blank_start]increasing[blank_end] oxygen pressure
Answer
  • increases
  • decreases
  • stays the same
  • vasodilation
  • vasoconstriction
  • lowers
  • increases
  • maintains
  • ceases
  • increases
  • left
  • right
  • foramen ovale
  • ductus arteriosis
  • ductus venosus
  • increasing
  • decreasing
  • maintaining

Question 17

Question
What prostaglandin maintains ductus arteriosis potency in uterine
Answer
  • PGE2
  • PGD2
  • PGF2 alpha
  • PG12

Question 18

Question
Why does the ductus arteriosis close 2-3 days after birth aside from a drop in prostaglandin levels
Answer
  • Decreased pulmonary resistance, release of bradykinins by the lungs and increased blood oxygen concentration
  • Increased pulmonary resistance, release of bradykinins by the lungs and increased blood oxygen concentration
  • Decreased pulmonary resistance, release of bradykinins by the lungs and decreased blood oxygen concentration
  • Closure of foramen ovale

Question 19

Question
What is the process shown below
Image:
Mobile upload (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • gastrulation
  • neuralation
  • formation of primitive streak
  • fertilization

Question 20

Question
Select the correct answer
Image:
Mobile upload (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • cellular division
  • inner mass cells
  • trophoblast
  • bilaminar disc
  • mesoderm formation
  • amniotic sac
  • yolk sac

Question 21

Question
What is the role of the notochord
Answer
  • Where epiblast cells migrate to
  • Site where endoderm cells differentiate
  • Causes the formation of the neural plate by the change in the ectoderm
  • Where mesodermic cells migrate to

Question 22

Question
Which of these best describe the structure which the ectoderm will form
Answer
  • Structures that maintain contact with the outside world
  • Vertebral column, dermatomes, myotomes, urogenital structures, peritoneal, pleural and pericardial lining
  • Skin and eyes only
  • GI tract, epithelial linings of respiratory tract, urinary bladder, urethra, liver, pancreas and parathyroid

Question 23

Question
Which of these best describe the structure which the mesoderm will form
Answer
  • Structures that maintain contact with the outside world
  • Eyes and skin only
  • Vertebral column, dermatomes, myotomes, urogenital structures, peritoneal, plueral and the pericardial lining
  • GI tract, epithelial airways of the respiratory tract, urinary bladder, urethra, liver, pancreas and parathyroids

Question 24

Question
Which of these best describes the structures that the endoderm will form
Answer
  • GI tract, epithelial airways of the respiratory tract, urinary bladder, urethra, liver, pancreas and parathyroids
  • Eyes and skin only
  • Structures that maintain contact with the outside world
  • Vertebral column, dermatomes, myotomes, urogenital structures, peritoneal, pleural and pericardial lining

Question 25

Question
Select the correct options
Image:
Mobile upload (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • placental septum
  • myometrium
  • chorionic plate
  • decides parietalis

Question 26

Question
What are the 3 layers of the abdominal wall
Answer
  • Skin
  • Campus fascia
  • Scarpus fascia
  • Ductus fascia
  • Linea alba
  • Aponeurosis
  • Lateral fascia

Question 27

Question
What movement is done by the anterior abdominal wall
Answer
  • Lateral flexion
  • Lateral extension
  • Rotation
  • Hip flexion
  • Hip extension

Question 28

Question
Select the correct option for each box
Image:
Mobile upload (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • external oblique
  • inguinal ligament
  • internal oblique
  • transversus abdominas
  • rectus sheath
  • rectus abdominas
  • linea semilunaris
  • linea alba
  • pyramidalis

Question 29

Question
What are the vessels that supply the anterior abdominal wall
Answer
  • Superior epigastric
  • Inferior epigastric
  • Subcostal arteries
  • Pudendal artery
  • Femoral arteries
  • Renal arteries

Question 30

Question
The diaphragm has a right and left dome
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
The superior epigastric supplies blood to just above the stomach
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 32

Question
The inferior epigastric supplies the intestines
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
The subcostal arteries line transversally
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 34

Question
The iliacus is a muscle that fills the iliac fossa
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 35

Question
What does the psoas major join to, and what motion do they provide
Answer
  • Iliacus and hip flexion
  • Iliacus and hip extension
  • Psoas minor and rotation
  • Psoas minor and hip flexion

Question 36

Question
What motion does the quadratus lumborum aid in
Answer
  • Lateral flexion of the spine
  • Lateral extension of the spine
  • Rotation
  • Hip flexion

Question 37

Question
Which of these are roles of relaxin in women
Answer
  • Relaxes pibic symphasis
  • Softens and dilates cervix
  • Inhibits uterine contractions
  • Antioestrogenic
  • Decreases glandular proliferation
  • Decreases sensitivity to oxytocin
  • Decreases sensitivities to oestrogen

Question 38

Question
The main function of cortisol in fetuses is lung maturation
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 39

Question
What is the role of oestrogen in pregnancy
Answer
  • Increases motility of uterine contractions
  • Increases uterine blood flow
  • Duct growth of breasts
  • Causes milk secretion
  • Inhibits progesterone receptor sensitivity
  • Decreases sensitivity to oxytocin
  • Increases conversion of 17 beta oestradiol into inactive forms

Question 40

Question
[blank_start]Type 1[blank_end] pneumocytes are thin and flat and are involved in gaseous exchange and are [blank_start]unable[blank_end] to replicate or differentiate. [blank_start]Type 2[blank_end] pneumocytes secrete surfactant and are able to differentiate into [blank_start]type 1[blank_end] pneumocytes if damaged
Answer
  • Type 1
  • unable
  • Type 2
  • type 1

Question 41

Question
The stage of pregnancy that is highly sensitive to teratogens is between 2-9 weeks
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 42

Question
Short arms of acocentric chromosomes contain few genes of rRNA
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 43

Question
Centrosomes are composed of tandemly repeated DNA sequences
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 44

Question
How much folic acid do you need to take per day and until how long
Answer
  • 400 micrograms and every day for 12 weeks
  • 400 micrograms and every day for 16 weeks
  • 400 micrograms and every day for 9 weeks
  • 400 grams and every day for 12 weeks

Question 45

Question
Folic acid is B9
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 46

Question
How much vitamin D should be taken each day throughout the pregnancy
Answer
  • 10 micrograms
  • 100 micrograms
  • 10 milligrams
  • 10 grams

Question 47

Question
What best describes a missed miscarriage
Answer
  • Fetus is dead inside the mother and there is no fetal heartbeat, there is no bleeding, pain and the cervical os is closed
  • Fetus is dead inside the mother and there is no fetal heartbeat, there is no bleeding, pain and the cervical os is open
  • Fetus is dead inside the mother and there is no fetal heartbeat, there is bleeding, pain and the cervical os is closed
  • Fetus is dead inside the mother and there is no fetal heartbeat, there is no bleeding, but there is intense pain and the cervical os is closed

Question 48

Question
What best describes a complete miscarriage
Answer
  • Closed cervical os and empty uterus
  • Open cervical os and empty uterus
  • Closed cervical os and some fecal tissue remaining
  • Open cervical os and some fetal tissue

Question 49

Question
What best describes a incomplete miscarriage
Answer
  • Open cervical os and some fetal tissue
  • Closed cervical os and some fecal tissue remaining
  • Closed cervical os and a empty uterus
  • Open cervical os and an empty uterus

Question 50

Question
What are the symptoms of a threatened miscarriage
Answer
  • Mild bleeding
  • Mild pain
  • Cervical os closed
  • Heavy bleeding
  • Intense pain
  • Open cervical os

Question 51

Question
What are the symptoms of a inevitable miscarriage
Answer
  • Mild bleeding
  • Mild pain
  • Open cervical os
  • Closed cervical os
  • Heavy bleeding
  • Intense pain

Question 52

Question
A 29 year old pregnant women comes in for a normal check up and during the ultrasound you discover there is no fetal heart beat. Furthermore she said that she experienced no pain, bleeding and you discover her cervical os is closed
Answer
  • Missed miscarriage
  • Complete miscarriage
  • Incomplete miscarriage
  • Threatened miscarriage

Question 53

Question
A 32 year old pregnant women comes in due to mild bleeding and mild pain which has caused her to be worried for her pregnancy. You then discover that her cervical os is closed.
Answer
  • Threatened miscarriage
  • Missed miscarriage
  • Inevitable miscarriage
  • Complete miscarriage

Question 54

Question
A 32 year old women has come into ER due to intense abdominal pain. You discover she is pregnant and she has been bleeding heavily from her vagina. Upon examination you see her cervical os is open
Answer
  • Inevitable miscarriage
  • Threatened miscarriage
  • Incomplete miscarriage
  • Complete miscarriage

Question 55

Question
Select the correct options
Image:
Mobile upload (image/jpeg)
Answer
  • left ventricle
  • mitral valve
  • left atrium
  • foramen ovale
  • right atrium
  • tricuspid valve
  • right ventricle
  • truncus arteriosis
  • bulbis cordis
  • ventricle
  • atrium
  • sinus venosus
  • endocardial tubes

Question 56

Question
in tetralogy of fallot there are 4 conditions which form the pathology. [blank_start]right ventricular hypertrophy[blank_end] is the thickening of the right muscle wall. [blank_start]overriding aorta[blank_end] is when the aorta is shifted slightly to the right and is directly above the [blank_start]ventricular septal defect[blank_end], which is a hole in the wall between the ventricles. lastly is [blank_start]pulmonary stenosis[blank_end] which is the narrowing of the pulmonary valve
Answer
  • right ventricular hypertrophy
  • overriding aorta
  • ventricular septal defect
  • pulmonary stenosis

Question 57

Question
Mrs Jade, a 64 years old woman is diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma at the roof of the bladder. Which lymph nodes will this cancer most likely spread to initially?
Answer
  • lumbar
  • external iliac
  • internal iliac
  • superficial inguinal

Question 58

Question
Mary is a 29 year old woman who is pregnant, and asks you if she should still be taking folic acid supplements, as her midwife told her she should take it in the first trimester. You calculate that she is 14 weeks pregnant. How should you advise her?
Answer
  • Advise her to continue taking folic acid supplements until she gives birth
  • Advise her that she can stop taking folic acid supplements as she is no longer in the first trimester
  • Advise her to continue taking folic acid supplements as she is still in the first trimester
  • Advise her to take folic acid supplements every other day

Question 59

Question
You are called to the bedside of a 5 day old who was born on 25th gestation week. She has worsening respiratory distress. She is requiring higher O2 settings and continues to have multiple desaturations despite increased ventilator settings. Her vital signs are HR is 160bpm, RR is 68, SaO2 is 85%. On further examination, you hear a systolic murmur loudest at her left upper sternal border. Her skin is warm and dry.
Answer
  • Infant respiratory distress syndrome
  • Patent ductus arteriosus
  • Patent foramen ovale
  • Pneumonia

Question 60

Question
You are a registrar working on a neonatal ICU. You receive a phone call from a GP to expect mother and father bringing in their pre-term baby whose delivery was unplanned and born in the community. The GP tells you that the pregnancy was 30 weeks and that the baby is now tachypnoeic, 72 BPM, with intercostal and subcostal recession. The mother and father are concerned because the baby is grunting and has nose flaring and they think he looks blue. You prepare the team and when the baby arrives he is cyanosed and in addition to what had been described the baby’s breathing pattern is irregular.
Answer
  • deficient surfactant production
  • patent foramen ovale
  • pneumonia
  • hypersensitivity anaphylactic reaction

Question 61

Question
A 30-year-old woman presents to the ED with acute onset of lower abdominal pain associated with vaginal bleeding that began 2 hours prior to arrival. She denies any prior medical history but does report having a tubal ligation after the birth of her second child. Her vitals are significant for a temp of 39.2°C , HR of 120 beats per minute and a BP of 90/60 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient has right adnexal tenderness with blood in the posterior vaginal vault. Her cervical os is closed. She says her last period was 6 weeks ago.
Answer
  • pelvic inflammatory disease
  • appendicitis
  • ectopic pregnancy
  • placenta praevia

Question 62

Question
A 36-year-old who is 4 months pregnant presents to the ED with vaginal spotting for the past 2 days. She also reports occasional abdominal cramping and low back pain. She denies any other past medical history or gynaecological problems. Her initial vital signs include a HR of 89 beats per minute, BP of 144/70 mm Hg, RR of 15 breaths per minute with an O2 saturation of 98% on room air. Her pelvic examination reveals a closed os. Upon ultrasound examination, an intrauterine pregnancy is visualized; however a fetal HR is not detected.
Answer
  • threatened miscarriage
  • complete miscarriage
  • missed miscarriage
  • inevitable miscarriage

Question 63

Question
A 25 year old woman presents to the ED complaining of vaginal bleeding that started earlier in the day. She has gone through two pads over the last 12 hours. She describes mild lower abdominal pain. Her BP is 105/75 mm Hg, HR is 78 beats per minute, temperature is 36.6°C, and RR is 14 breaths per minute. Pelvic exam reveals clotted blood in the vaginal vault with a closed cervical os. Transvaginal ultrasound documents an intrauterine pregnancy with fetal heart sound present
Answer
  • missed miscarriage
  • complete miscarriage
  • inevitable miscarriage
  • threatened miscarriage

Question 64

Question
A 24-year-old in her second trimester presents to the ED with vaginal spotting for the past day. She denies any abdominal pain and is otherwise in her usual state of health. Her vital signs are a HR of 76 beats per minute, BP of 120/65 mm Hg, respiratory rate (RR) of 16 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.2oC.
Answer
  • ectopic pregnancy
  • placenta praevia
  • placenta abruption
  • ovarian torsion

Question 65

Question
A 24-year-old presents to the ED with vaginal bleeding and clots. Her vital signs include a HR of 110 beats per minute, BP of 130/70 mm Hg, RR of 14 breaths per minute with an O2 saturation of 99% on room air. She is afebrile and in mild distress. Recent medical history is significant for vaginal delivery 2 days ago with prolonged labour. Pelvic examination is significant for a large, boggy uterus and a normal vaginal wall.
Answer
  • genital tract trauma
  • endometriosis
  • ectopic pregnancy
  • uterine atony

Question 66

Question
A 40-year-old presents to the ED with suprapubic pain and general malaise for the last 3 days without improvement. Her vitals are significant for a HR of 115 beats per minute, BP of 100/60 mm Hg, and a temperature of 38.1°C. Upon physical examination, her abdomen is soft with significant suprapubic tenderness to light palpation but no rebound or guarding. Her pelvic examination reveals a scant amount of dark red vaginal blood and yellow discharge. Her past medical history is significant for an emergent caesarean section 2 weeks ago without any other gynaecological history. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Answer
  • uterine atony
  • appendicitis
  • endometritis
  • pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 67

Question
A worried mother presents with her five year old daughter Annie to your GP surgery. She complains that Annie seems to be growing poorly compared to her growth chart and is concerned that there is something wrong. On examination also find that Annie has excess skin growth around her neck and abnormally widely spaced nipples. Also, she has poor femoral pulses. One of the investigations you order is a chromosome analysis, what would you expect to find?
Answer
  • 45 XO
  • 46 XX
  • 47 xxy
  • trisomy 18

Question 68

Question
A 40 year old women who is 28 weeks pregnant comes to you her GP complaining of RUQ pain and swollen ankles. She is obese and has a blood pressure of 150/100mmHg. You perform a urine test which is positive for proteinuria. You diagnose her with Pre-eclampsia. What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?
Answer
  • prescribe labetalol
  • admit her to hospital
  • prescribe magnesium sulfate
  • perscribe labetalol and magnesium sulfate

Question 69

Question
what are the sites of DNA replication called
Answer
  • DNA bubbles
  • replication bubbles
  • replication forks
  • synthesis bubble

Question 70

Question
which of the following best describes a promoter region on DNA
Answer
  • a short region of DNA upstream of the coding sequence which controls gene expression
  • a protein which can bind to specific DNA sequences to control gene expression
  • a short region downstream of the coding sequence which controls gene expression
  • a gene that promotes transcription downstream of the control region

Question 71

Question
which of the following best describes activators
Answer
  • turns on gene expression by binding to enhancer regions
  • turns off gene expression by binding to silencer regions
  • turn on transcription
  • turn off transcription

Question 72

Question
which of the following best describes repressors
Answer
  • turns on gene expression by binding to enhancers
  • turns off gene expression by binding to silencers
  • turns on transcription
  • turns off transcription

Question 73

Question
which of the following best describes enhancer regions
Answer
  • turns on transcription
  • turns off transcription
  • sequences of DNA that have repeated sequences
  • short region of DNA upstream of the coding sequence which controls gene expression

Question 74

Question
which of the following best describes silencer regions
Answer
  • short region of DNA upstream of the coding sequence which controls gene expression
  • turns on transcription
  • turns off transcription
  • regions of DNA with repeat sequences

Question 75

Question
transcription: 1) [blank_start]RNA polymerase[blank_end] copies the info in DNA into one molecule of RNA 2) RNA is a single strand of [blank_start]nucleotides[blank_end] 3) [blank_start]RNA polymerase 2[blank_end] transcribes [blank_start]exons[blank_end] 4) RNA polymerase proof reads 5) RNA is pre-RNA as it still contains [blank_start]introns[blank_end] 6) RNA polymerase 1 and [blank_start]RNA polymerase 3[blank_end] transcribes [blank_start]tRNA[blank_end] and rRNA
Answer
  • RNA polymerase
  • DNA polymerase
  • helicase enzyme
  • nucleotides
  • nucleic acids
  • bases
  • RNA polymerase 2
  • exons
  • RNA polymerase 1
  • introns
  • RNA polymerase 3
  • tRNA
  • mRNA

Question 76

Question
membrane proteins enter the membrane at their site of synthesis and fold in the membrane because their TMD's (transmembrane domains) are water soluble
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 77

Question
for membrane proteins translocons act as a chaperone, helping the new transmembrane domains assemble
Answer
  • True
  • False
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