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PCCSA Practice Exam
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Questions in this quiz (83)
1Which option can be used to protect data privacy for remote users connecting to an organisation's home office over the public internet?
- Astrong passwords
- Bencryption
- CIPsec authentication headers
- Dhashing the data
2in a PKI, what does one host use to encrypt data when it initiates a network connection to another host?
- AKDC ticket
- BSSH key
- Cpublic key
- Dprivate key
3which IPsec protocol secures communication with encryption?
- Aencapsulating security payload
- Bauthentication header
- Cgeneric routing encapsulation
- Dinternet key exchange
4Panorama does NOT integrate with which option?
- AWildfire
- BSplunk
- CPalo Alto Networks NGFWs
- Dtraditional port-based firewalls
5which option is NOT a core technique for identifying applications in Palo Alto NGFWs?
- Apacket headers
- Bapplication signatures
- Cprotocol decoding
- Dbehavioural analysis
6which option is NOT a defining characteristic of an NGFW
- Alow latency packet processing with minimal throughput loss
- Badherence to strict port and protocol enforcement for allow or block decisions
- Cintegrated security tools
- Dbidirectional full-stack analysis of packets
7which password is the strongest?
- AMyP@s$w0rd1
- Bmypasswordone
- CMyPassword1
- Dmypassword1
8the primary issue with a perimeter-based network security strategy is that it relies on which assumption?
- Aall components on the internal network can be trusted
- Bno components on the internal network can be trusted
- Csome components on the internal network can be trusted
- Dcritical components on the internal network can be trusted
9a zero trust network security model is based on which security principle?
- Adue diligence
- Bleast privilege
- Cnon-repudiation
- Dnegative control
10Intra-VM traffic is also known as
- Anorth-south
- Bunknown
- Ceast-west
- Duntrusted
11which VPN technology is the preferred method for securely connecting a remote endpoint device back to an enterprise network?
- Apoint-to-point tunneling protocol (PPTP)
- Bsecure socket tunneling protocol (SSTP)
- Csecure sockets layer (SSL)
- Dinternet protocol security (IPsec)
12which three important security considerations are associated with virtualisation? (choose three)
- Adormant VMs
- Bhypervisor vulnerabilities
- Chypervisor sprawl
- Dintra-VM communications
- Einter-VM communications
13which option describes malicious software or code that typically takes control of, collects information from, or damages an infected endpoint?
- Aexploit
- Bmalware
- Cvulnerability
- DC2 server
14which technique is NOT used to break the command-and-control (C&C) phase of the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle?
- Ablocking outbound traffic to known malicious sites and IP addresses
- BDNS sinkholing and DNS poisoning
- Cvulnerability and patch management
- Dblocking inbound traffic to known malicious sites and IP addresses
15provider applications run on a cloud infrastructure and the consumer does not manage or control the underlying infrastructure in which cloud computing service model?
- APaaS
- BIaaS
- CSaaS
- Dpublic cloud
16which two protocols function at the transport layer of the OSI model? (choose two)
- ATransmission Control Protocol (TCP)
- BInternet Protocol (IP)
- CUser Datagram Protocol (UDP)
- DHypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
17which is an example of a logical address?
- AIP address
- Bhardware address
- CMAC address
- Dburned-in address
18which three options are dynamic routing protocols?
- Adistance-vector
- Bpath-vector
- Clink-state
- Dpoint-to-point
- Epoint-to-multipoint
19what does the Palo Alto Large Scale VPN feature use to authenticate network devices?
- Apasswords
- Btokens
- Cbeacons
- Dcertificates
20what are three typical capabilities of MDM software?
- ADLP
- Bpolicy enforcement
- Cintrusion detection
- Dmalware prevention
- Eintrusion prevention
21what type of wireless attack intercepts the victim's web traffic, redirects the victim's browser to a web server it controls, and sends whatever content the attacker desires?
- Aevil twins
- Bjasager
- CDDoS
- DSSLstrip
22what is a capability of the Palo Alto Traps endpoint protection product?
- Aidentifies all known and unknown viruses using advanced signatures
- Bidentifies known, and zero-day vulnerabilities
- Cdynamically launches virtual containers to test unknown files in a local sandbox
- Ddynamically assigns all discovered endpoints into trusted and untrusted categories
23which is NOT a characteristic of UTM?
- Acombines security functions, such as firewalls, IDS, anti-malware, and DLP into a single appliance
- Benables all the security functions in a UTM device which can have a significant performance impact
- Cfully integrates all the security functions installed on the device
- Dcan be a convenient solution for small networks
24which option describes the strength of Palo Alto Traps operations?
- Ablocks core exploit and malware techniques
- Bblocks exploits and malware using dynamically generated signatures
- Cblocks malware by testing unknown code in a local container
- Dblocks exploits and malware by preventing memory buffer overflows
25which option is an important characteristic or capability of advanced malware
- Adistributed, fault tolerant architecture
- Bmulti-functionality
- Chiding techniques such as polymorphism, metamorphism, and obfuscation
- Dall answers are correct
26what does the first phase of implementing security in a virtualised data centre consist of?
- Aconsolidating servers across trust levels
- Bconsolidating servers within trust levels
- Cselectively virtualising network security functions
- Dimplementing a dynamic computing fabric
27business intelligence (BI) software consists of tools and techniques used to surface large amounts of raw, unstructured data to perform a variety of tasks including data mining, event processing, and predictive analytics
- ATrue
- BFalse
28The process in which end users find personal technology and apps that are more powerful or capable, more convenient, less expensive, quicker to install, and easier to use than enterprise IT solutions is known as consumerization
- ATrue
- BFalse
29An organization can be compliant with all applicable security and privacy regulations for its industry, yet still not be secure
- ATrue
- BFalse
30The U.S. law that establishes national standards to protect individuals’ medical records and other health information is known as
- AHIPAA
- BFISMA
- CPHI
- DSOX
31Most cyberattacks today are perpetrated by internal threat actors such as malicious employees engaging in corporate espionage
- ATrue
- BFalse
32The Cyber-Attack Lifecycle is a five-step process that an attacker goes through to attack a network
- ATrue
- BFalse
33an attacker needs to succeed in executing only one step of the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle to infiltrate a network, whereas a defender must “be right every time” and break every step of the chain to prevent an attack
- ATrue
- BFalse
34The key to breaking the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle during the Installation phase is to implement network segmentation, a Zero Trust model, and granular control of applications to limit or restrict an attacker’s lateral movement within the network
- ATrue
- BFalse
35Network firewalls cannot completely protect hosts from zero-day exploits
- ATrue
- BFalse
36what exploits target unknown vulnerabilities in operating system and application software on a host machine?
- Azero-trust
- Bpolymorphic worm
- Czero-day
- Dbuffer overflow
37A vulnerability is a small piece of software code, part of a malformed data file, or a sequence (string) of commands created by an attacker to cause unintended or unanticipated behavior in a system or software
- ATrue
- BFalse
38New exploits can be crafted from any number of more than a thousand core exploit techniques
- ATrue
- BFalse
39Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is an effective protocol for securing wireless networks
- ATrue
- BFalse
40what can be described as a mathematical function that creates a unique representation of a larger set of data in a manner that is easy to compute in one direction, but not in the reverse direction
- Aone-way hash
- Bsalt
- Cboolean funciton
- DWPA2 PSK
41what sends data packets to destination networks along a network path using a logical address?
- Aswitch
- Brouter
- Cbridge
- Daccess point
42what is an example of a static routing protocol?
- Aopen shortest path first (OSPF)
- Bborder gateway protocol (BGP)
- Crouting information protocol (RIP)
- Dsplit horizon
43the internet is an example of a wide-area network (WAN)
- ATrue
- BFalse
44what is a distributed, hierarchical internet database that maps FQDNs to IP addresses
- ADomain Name System (DNS)
- BARP table
- Cwhois directory
- DCVE
45an IPv4 address consists or four _______-bit octets
- A8
- B16
- C32
- D64
46what is the technique used to divide a large network into multiple smaller networks by segmenting an IPv4 address into a network and host portion
- Acracking
- Bsubnetting
- Cpartitioning
- Dsplitting
47the OSI model consists of how many layers?
- Afour
- Bsix
- Cseven
- Dnine
48which two sublayers is the data link layer subdivided into?
- AIP (internet protocol)
- BMAC (media access control)
- CLLC (logical link control)
- DARP (address resolution protocol)
49which four layers comprise the TCP/IP model?
- Aapplication
- Btransport
- Cphysical
- Dinternet
- Enetwork access
50The key to Traps is blocking the individual attacks as they appear
- ATrue
- BFalse
51the process that wraps protocol information from the OSI or TCP/IP layer immediately above in the data section of the layer immediately below is known as?
- Adata encapsulation
- Bdata encryption
- Cdata encoding
- Ddata enumeration
52A dynamic packet filtering firewall inspects each individual packet during a session to determine if the traffic should be allowed, blocked, or dropped by the firewall
- ATrue
- BFalse
53What are three characteristics of application firewalls? (choose three)
- Aproxies traffic rather than permitting direct communication between hosts
- Bcan be used to implement strong user authentication
- Cmasks the internal network from untrusted networks
- Dis extremely fast and has no impact on network performance
54the features of an IDS and IPS are: (choose two)
- AIDS is passive, IPS is active
- BIDS is active, IPS is passive
- CIDS only monitors, analyses, and alerts, while an IPS can also block or drop suspicious, pattern-matching traffic on the network
- DIPS only monitors, analyses, and alerts, while an IDS can also block or drop suspicious, pattern-matching traffic on the network
55Signature-based anti-malware software is considered a proactive security countermeasure
- ATrue
- BFalse
56what type of endpoint protection wraps a protective virtual barrier around vulnerable processes while they're running
- Acontainer-based
- Bsignature-based
- Cadvanced
- DHost-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS)
57Which three cloud computing service models are defined by NIST? (Choose three.)
- Asoftware as a service (SaaS)
- Bplatform as a service (PaaS)
- Cdesktop as a service (DaaS)
- Dinfrastructure as a service (IaaS)
58what type of cloud infrastructure model comprises two or more cloud deployment models, bound by standardised or proprietary technology that enables data and application portability
- Apublic
- Bprivate
- Chybrid
- Dcommunity
59what defines who (customer and/or provider) is responsible for what, related to security, in the public cloud
- AAUP
- BOpen Systems Interconnect Model
- CShared Responsibility Model
- DNIST
60AutoFocus is an optional module that can be installed on NGFWs
- ATrue
- BFalse
61unlike file-based malware scanning that waits until an entire file is loaded into memory to begin scanning, stream-based malware scanning begins scanning as soon as the first packets of the file are retrieved. stream based malware scanning reduces latency and improves performance by receiving, scanning, and sending to its intended destination immediately, without having to first buffer and scan the file
- ATrue
- BFalse
62what computer-specific technology allows multiple, virtual operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer
- Aplatform as a service (PaaS)
- Bhypervisor
- Cvirtualisation
- Dinfrastucture as a service (IaaS)
63a storage area network (SAN) uses what kind of storage?
- Ablock-based
- Bobject-based
- Chosted
- Dfile-based
64WildFire performs deep packet inspection of malicious outbound communications to disrupt C&C activity
- ATrue
- BFalse
65what is the network directory service developed by Microsoft for Windows networks?
- ALDAP
- BKerberos
- CActive Directory
- DRemote Desktop Manager
66what is the five-volume set of IT service management best practices?
- AITIL
- BCIS
- CNIST
- DISO
67Aperture protects data in hosted files and application entries
- ATrue
- BFalse
68which of the options is a purpose-built, fully integrated cybersecurity approach that helps organisations get control of their networks and protect critical assets
- AWildFire
- BTraps
- CPanorama
- DSecurity Operating Platform
69Which three options are key components of the Security Operating Platform? (Choose three)
- Anetwork security
- Badvanced endpoint protection
- Ccloud security
- Dapplication development security
70what are three core capabilities of an NGFW?
- Aapplication identification
- Buser identification
- Cmedia identification
- Dcontent identification
71the advantage of using templates in Panorama is that templates eliminate manual, repetitive, risky, and error-prone configuration changes to multiple, individual firewalls deployed throughout the enterprise network
- ATrue
- BFalse
72what are three methods of mapping user identification to an IP address within an NGFW?
- Areceiving user information through XML API from an external LDAP directory
- Buser provided credentials
- Csecurity event log monitoring (active directory, novell, eDirectory, Microsoft exchange, etc)
- Dpacket header analysis
73the basic process of traps EPMs is that the traps agent injects itself into each process as it is started. if the process attempts to execute any of the core attack techniques, the corresponding EPM kills the process and prevents the exploit
- ATrue
- BFalse
74What are the three keys to safely enabling mobile devices in the enterprise?
- Aenforce password policies
- Bmanage the device
- Cprotect the device
- Dcontrol the data
75the organisational security risks associated with tolerated SaaS application usage include regulatory non-compliance or compliance violations, loss of corporate intellectual property (IP) or other sensitive data, and malware distribution
- ATrue
- BFalse
76Aperture is deployed as a standalone inline service between the organization’s traditional perimeter-based firewalls and requires a software agent to be installed on mobile devices.
- ATrue
- BFalse
77what provides continuous monitoring of public clouds and helps organisations achieve a continuous state of compliance in their public cloud workloads?
- APrisma Public Cloud
- BWildFire
- CEvident
- DPanorama
78traditional perimeter-based firewalls only have visibility of traffic that passes through the firewall. SaaS applications and data can be accessed from mobile devices that don't necessarily traverse a perimeter-based firewall, and many SaaS-based applications are designed to circumvent firewalls for performance and ease of use
- ATrue
- BFalse
79Magnifier leverages what to analyze network, endpoint, and cloud data, which helps security analysts rapidly confirm threats by reviewing actionable alerts?
- Aartificial intelligence
- Balgorithms
- Cmachine learning
- Drules
80Which three options are threat intelligence sources for AutoFocus? (Choose three.)
- AWildFire
- BURL filtering with PAN-DB service
- Cunit 42 threat intelligence and research team
- Dthird party IPS
81MineMeld is an open-source application, available directly on GitHub, that streamlines the aggregation, enforcement, and sharing of threat intelligence
- ATrue
- BFalse
82WildFire operates on which concept?
- Afile-based scanning against a signature database
- BIPS and SIEM tool correlation
- Ccloud-based reputation service
- Dvirtualised sandbox
83WildFire prevents known and unknown malware threats.
- ATrue
- BFalse
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- PCCSA IT Security Quiz on PCCSA Practice Exam, created by scott mcinnes on 16/05/2020.
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