Copy and Edit

4

Description

Quiz 4
ckassidy
Quiz by ckassidy, updated more than 1 year ago
ckassidy
Created by ckassidy about 9 years ago
540
0
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
When describing the male urinary anatomy, which information should the nurse include? The portion of the male urethra that is closest to the bladder is the _____ portion.
Answer
  • Vas Deferens
  • Cavernous
  • Prostatic
  • Membranous

Question 2

Question
While planning care for a patient with urinary problems, the nurse recalls that the renin­angiotensin system will be activated by:
Answer
  • Renal hypertension
  • Decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles
  • Elevated sodium concentrations
  • Increased blood volume

Question 3

Question
When the nurse is discussing the functional unit of the kidney, what other term should the nurse use?
Answer
  • Pyramid
  • Collecting duct
  • Calyx
  • Nephron

Question 4

Question
A 35­year­old hypertensive male begins taking a diuretic. Which of the following common side effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?
Answer
  • Hyponatremia
  • Increased Uric Acid Secretion
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypermagnesemia

Question 5

Question
When the nurse is discussing the sodium­sensing cells of the glomerulus, what term should the nurse use?
Answer
  • Macula densa
  • Podocytes
  • Mesangial Cells
  • Loop of Henle

Question 6

Question
A 28-­year-­old female presents with fever, chills, and flank pain. She is diagnosed with pyelonephritis. A nurse recalls the patient’s infection is located in the:
Answer
  • Bladder
  • Glomerulus
  • Renal Tubules
  • Renal Pelvis

Question 7

Question
A 42­year­old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a lot of blood. The nurse realizes he is in acute renal failure caused by:
Answer
  • Obstruction of the proximal tubule
  • Kidney stones
  • Immune complex deposition in the glomerulus
  • Inadequate renal blood flow

Question 8

Question
A 60­year­old male is diagnosed with renal failure. While the nurse is reviewing lab results, which of the following lab values would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
Answer
  • Increased urea clearance
  • Decreased plasma potassium level
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Elevated plasma creatinine level

Question 9

Question
A 45­year­old female presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and anemia. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. When the patient asks what caused this anemia, how should the nurse respond? Your anemia is caused by:
Answer
  • Red blood cells being lost in the urine
  • Inadequate production of erythropoietin
  • Red blood cells being injured as they pass through the glomerulus
  • Inadequate iron absorption in the gut

Question 10

Question
A 42­year­old female is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is discussing dietary treatment. Which information indicates the nurse understands dietary regimen? Treatment includes restricting:
Answer
  • Fats
  • Proteins
  • Sugars
  • Complex Carbohydrates

Question 11

Question
When a patient asks what the most common type of renal stones is composed of, how should the nurse respond? The most common type of renal stone is composed of:
Answer
  • Phosphate
  • Struvite
  • Calcium
  • Magnesium

Question 12

Question
A 25­year­old female presents with burning urination. She was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. When the nurse checks the culture results, which of the following organisms is most likely infecting her urinary tract?
Answer
  • Chlamydia
  • Escherichia coli
  • Streptococcus
  • Candida albicans

Question 13

Question
Upon examination of a male infant, it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis. The nurse will document this condition as:
Answer
  • Hypospadias
  • Cryptorchidism
  • Hydroureter
  • Epispadias

Question 14

Question
Which of the following clusters of symptoms would make a clinician suspect a child has developed glomerulonephritis?
Answer
  • Dysuria, urinary frequency, and abdominal tenderness
  • Proteinuria, hypotension, and ascites
  • Gross hematuria, flank pain, and hypertension
  • Pyuria, fever, and abdominal pain

Question 15

Question
A 7­year­old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
Answer
  • Diurnal enuresis
  • Secondary enuresis
  • Primary enuresis
  • Nocturnal enuresis

Question 16

Question
A 15­year­old female presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever. Tests reveal glomerulonephritis. When the parents ask what could have caused this, how should the nurse respond?
Answer
  • Nephrotic syndrome
  • Potter syndrome
  • Nephropathy
  • Poststreptococcal infection

Question 17

Question
Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of female anatomy? Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle then develops into:
Answer
  • A theca cell
  • Scar tissue
  • An atretic follicle
  • A corpus luteum

Question 18

Question
Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of progesterone? Progesterone is primarily secreted by the:
Answer
  • Granulose cells
  • Anterior pituitary
  • Follicle
  • Corpus luteum

Question 19

Question
A clinician is preparing to teach about spermatogenesis. Which information should the clinician include? Spermatogenesis occurs in the:
Answer
  • Inguinal canals
  • Seminiferous tubules
  • Vas deferens
  • Epididymis

Question 20

Question
When a staff member asks the nurse what the thick middle layer of the uterine wall is called, what is the nurse’s best response? The:
Answer
  • Endometrium
  • Epithelial layer
  • Perimetrium
  • Myometrium

Question 21

Question
In the majority of cases delayed puberty is due to:
Answer
  • A disruption of the pituitary
  • Slow maturation
  • A disruption in the hypothalamus
  • Ambiguity in sex determination

Question 22

Question
A 21­year­old female is infected with human papillomavirus (HPV) following unprotected sexual intercourse with a male she recently met. She is now at higher risk of developing which of the following cancers?
Answer
  • Ovarian
  • Endometrial
  • Vulvar
  • Cervical

Question 23

Question
Cryptorchidism can be defined as:
Answer
  • Problems with testicular descent
  • An abnormal state in which the testes are overdeveloped
  • Lack of a scrotum
  • A normal developmental state of the testes

Question 24

Question
A middle­ aged male speaks to his physician about benign BPH. He reveals that his father was recently diagnosed with this condition, and he wants to know if he could have it. The physician tells him that a common complaint from men with mild to moderate BPH is:
Answer
  • Infertility
  • Sexual Dysfunction
  • Decreased Urinary Stream
  • Prostatodynia

Question 25

Question
The patient’s medication has a side effect of gynecomastia. The patient asks the nurse to define this term. The nurse would respond that gynecomastia is:
Answer
  • Overdevelopment of breast tissue in males
  • A type of breast cancer
  • Inflammation of the mammary glands in lactating women
  • Lack of breast development in women

Question 26

Question
A 25­year­old female presents with amenorrhea and hirsutism. She is diagnosed with PCOS. Lab testing will most likely reveal:
Answer
  • Genetic cancerous mutations
  • Estrogen deficit
  • Cortisol excess
  • Hyperinsulinemia

Question 27

Question
A 30­year­old female with newly diagnosed PCOS is being counseled by her OB­GYN. The physician indicates that this condition often results in:
Answer
  • Early menopause
  • Infertility
  • Ovarian cancer
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 28

Question
A 23­year­old sexually active female presents with white copious discharge and itch. She is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis caused by overgrowth of which microorganism?
Answer
  • Candida albicans
  • Lactobacillus acidophilus
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • Escherichia coli

Question 29

Question
The descent of the bladder and the anterior vaginal wall into the vaginal canal is called a:
Answer
  • Varicocele
  • Urethrocele
  • Rectocele
  • Cystocele

Question 30

Question
A 40­year­old female presents with cramping and excessive vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound reveals benign uterine tumors in the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium. These tumors are commonly called:
Answer
  • Endometriosis
  • Adenomas
  • Adenomyosis
  • Leiomyomas

Question 31

Question
Which sphincter prevents reflux of digested material from the colon into the small intestine?
Answer
  • Lower esophageal
  • Pyloric
  • Ileocecal valve
  • Haustral

Question 32

Question
The ileum and jejunum are suspended by folds of the peritoneum known as the _____ that contains an extensive vascular and nervous network.
Answer
  • Mesentery
  • Meissner plexus
  • Myenteric plexus
  • Auerbach fold

Question 33

Question
In the liver, free bilirubin moves from the plasma in the sinusoids into the hepatocytes, where it is converted into:
Answer
  • Conjugated bilirubin
  • Urobilinogen
  • Unconjugated bilirubin
  • Biliverdin

Question 34

Question
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:
Answer
  • Beta cells
  • Islets of Langerhans
  • Ducts
  • Alpha Cells

Question 35

Question
The nursing student is teaching a class to second graders. The student would correctly identify that food moves down the esophagus via the process termed:
Answer
  • Haustral segmentation
  • Peristalsis
  • Retropulsion
  • Defecation

Question 36

Question
A 10­month­old is brought to the pediatrician by the mother who states the baby has been experiencing colicky pain followed by vomiting, sweating, nausea, and irritability. Testing reveals a condition in which one part of the intestine telescopes into another. From which type of intestinal obstruction is he suffering?
Answer
  • Ileus
  • Torsion
  • Hernia
  • Intussusception

Question 37

Question
A 20­year­old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.
Answer
  • Hypotonic
  • Osmotic
  • Secretory
  • Motility

Question 38

Question
Clinical manifestations of bile salt deficiencies are related to poor absorption of:
Answer
  • Fats and fat­soluble vitamins
  • Minerals
  • Water­soluble vitamins
  • Proteins

Question 39

Question
A 30­year­old obese female underwent gastric resection in an attempt to lose weight. Which of the following complications could the surgery cause?
Answer
  • Hiccups
  • Constipation
  • Anemia
  • Acid Reflux Gastritis

Question 40

Question
Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?
Answer
  • Diarrhea
  • Malabsorption
  • Pattern of remission/exacerbations
  • Abdominal Pain

Question 41

Question
A 16­year­old female presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and a low­grade fever. A possible diagnosis would be:
Answer
  • Pancreatitis
  • Hepatitis
  • Appendicitis
  • Colon cancer

Question 42

Question
A 54­year­old male complains that he has been vomiting blood. Tests reveal portal hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his condition?
Answer
  • Cirrhosis of the liver
  • Thrombosis in the spleen
  • Renal stenosis
  • Left ventricular failure

Question 43

Question
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:
Answer
  • Decreased cerebral blood flow
  • Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
  • Hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice
  • Impaired ammonia metabolism

Question 44

Question
An increase in the rate of red blood cell breakdown causes which form of jaundice?
Answer
  • Hemolytic
  • Hepatocellular
  • Metabolic
  • Obstructive

Question 45

Question
A 55­year­old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the
Answer
  • Gallbladder
  • Common Bile Duct
  • Cystic Duct
  • Intrahepatic Bile canaliculi

Question 46

Question
Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):
Answer
  • Secretory response to hiatal hernia
  • Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
  • Congenital anomaly
  • Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux

Question 47

Question
Which of the following gastrointestinal (GI) clinical manifestations is subjective? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • Diarrhea
  • Retching
  • Nausea
  • Anorexia
  • Vomiting

Question 48

Question
Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:
Answer
  • Fluid reserves are lower in children
  • Children have lower adipose reserves.
  • Children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.
  • Children have a lower metabolic rate.

Question 49

Question
Which condition should the nurse assess for in mothers carrying fetuses affected by esophageal malformations?
Answer
  • Short umbilical cords
  • Enlarged placentas
  • Excessive amniotic fluid
  • Foul smelling vaginal discharge

Question 50

Question
A mother brings her 2­week­old infant to the pediatrician because he vomits forcefully for no apparent reason and food sometimes is regurgitated as though undigested. The infant is most likely suffering from:
Answer
  • Pyloric stenosis
  • Meconium ileus
  • Galactosemia
  • Esophageal atresia

Question 51

Question
A 2­month­old female with Down syndrome is diagnosed with Hirschsprung disease following family complaints of chronic constipation. The most likely cause of these symptoms is:
Answer
  • Absence of ganglia along the length of the colon
  • Excessive use of glycerin suppositories to promote bowel elimination
  • Additional ganglia throughout the length of the colon
  • The use of cow’s milk instead of formula

Question 52

Question
When a staff member asks the nurse about the contractile unit of a muscle, how should the nurse reply? The contractile unit of a muscle cell is called the:
Answer
  • Myofibril
  • Ribosome
  • Motor Unit
  • Basement membrane

Question 53

Question
When the nurse is using the term “sarcopenia,” what is the nurse describing? It is the:
Answer
  • Absence of muscle cells
  • Age­related loss in skeletal muscle
  • Muscles that are unable to contract
  • Fatigue of muscle cells

Question 54

Question
While planning care for a patient with muscle problems, which information should the nurse remember? _____ ions directly control the contraction of muscles.
Answer
  • Potassium
  • Sodium
  • Calcium
  • Magnesium

Question 55

Question
The nurse observed the patient’s muscle contracted, but the limb did not move. How should the nurse chart this muscle contraction?
Answer
  • Isotonic contraction
  • Concentric contraction
  • Eccentric contraction
  • Isometric contraction

Question 56

Question
Which of the following clinical findings would be expected in the patient with rhabdomyolysis?
Answer
  • Dark Urine
  • Sweating
  • Yellow Color to the Skin
  • Lower Extremity Swelling

Question 57

Question
A 70­year­old female presents with a hip fracture. She is diagnosed with osteoporosis. One factor that most likely contributed to her condition is:
Answer
  • Excessive dietary calcium
  • Strenuous exercise
  • Increased androgen levels
  • Decreased estrogen levels

Question 58

Question
A disorder similar to osteomalacia that occurs in growing bones of children is termed:
Answer
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Paget disease
  • Osteosarcoma
  • Rickets

Question 59

Question
A 54­year­old female was recently diagnosed with degenerative joint disease. This condition is characterized by loss of:
Answer
  • Synovial fluid
  • Articular cartilage
  • The epiphyses
  • The joint capsule

Question 60

Question
Researchers now believe that RA is:
Answer
  • Curable with antiviral agents
  • An autoimmune disease
  • A complication of rheumatic fever
  • Related superficial joint injury

Question 61

Question
A 46­year­old male presents with severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the right big toe. He was diagnosed with gouty arthritis. The symptoms he experienced are caused by the crystallization of _____ within the synovial fluid.
Answer
  • Uric acid
  • Pyrimidines
  • Acetic acid
  • Purines

Question 62

Question
A 32­year­old male was injured in a motor vehicle accident and confined to bed for 3 weeks. During this time, the size and strength of muscle fibers decreased, a condition referred to as:
Answer
  • Myodysplasia
  • Deconditioning hypoplasia
  • Ischemic Atrophy
  • Disuse Atrophy

Question 63

Question
A 70­year­old female with osteoporosis fractures her leg at a location of preexisting abnormality. She reports that the fracture occurred following a minor fall. Which of the following best describes the fracture?
Answer
  • Greenstick fracture
  • Fatigue fracture
  • Stress fracture
  • Pathologic fracture

Question 64

Question
Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal disorder characterized by:
Answer
  • Diffuse pain, fatigue, and tender points
  • Neurologic pain in the skeletal muscles
  • Muscle pain in the back and gastrointestinal symptoms
  • Pain resulting from joint and muscle inflammation

Question 65

Question
Ewing sarcoma originates from:
Answer
  • The Spleen
  • Osteoblasts
  • The Bone Marrow
  • Epithelial Cells

Question 66

Question
Children with OI suffer from frequent:
Answer
  • Dislocations
  • Bone Infections
  • Bone Fractures
  • Joint Injuries

Question 67

Question
Tinea corporis (ringworm) is a _____ infection of the skin.
Answer
  • Nematode
  • Bacterial
  • Fungal
  • Viral

Question 68

Question
A 20­year­old female presents with vaginal itch and thin­walled pustular lesions. She is diagnosed with candidiasis. This condition is caused by a:
Answer
  • Virus
  • Bacterium
  • Yeast
  • Fungus

Question 69

Question
When assessing a patient with scleroderma, which changes in the skin will be observed?
Answer
  • Hardening
  • Thinning
  • Necrosis
  • Hyperpigmented

Question 70

Question
A 40­year­old female is diagnosed with skin cancer. Her primary care provider explains that the most important risk factor for skin cancer is:
Answer
  • Amount of sun exposure over age 50
  • Living in equatorial regions where the sun is most intense
  • Amount of direct sun exposure at a young age
  • Lifetime amount of sun exposure

Question 71

Question
In burn injury patients, the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used to estimate:
Answer
  • Degree of systemic involvement
  • Possibility of infection
  • Total body surface area burned
  • Depth of burn injury

Question 72

Question
A 30­year­old male firefighter is badly burned and is admitted to the emergency department. Which of the following would be expected in the first 24 hours?
Answer
  • Fluid Overload
  • Diuresis
  • Decreased Levels of Stress Hormones
  • Increased Capillary Permeability

Question 73

Question
Rubella, rubeola, and roseola are common communicable diseases caused by _____ infection.
Answer
  • Yeast
  • Fungal
  • Viral
  • Bacterial

Question 74

Question
If a woman has a 28 day menstrual cycle, when will ovulation occur?
Answer
  • Day 1
  • Last day
  • Day 14
  • Day 28

Question 75

Question
A 40 year old patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis? What lab values would you expect to find?
Answer
  • Elevated AST and ALT
  • Elevated amylase and lipase
  • Decreased bilirubin
  • Increased albumin
Show full summary Hide full summary

Want to create your own Quizzes for free with GoConqr? Learn more.

Similar

Exam 1 Medications
tera_alise
Anthropology Final-- Part 3-4
Heather McCord
Disorders of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
Carmen Wong
Liver & hepatobiliary function
Carmen Wong
Disorders of hepatic & Biliary Fx
Carmen Wong
Microbiology MCQs 3rd Year Final- PMU
Med Student
Anatomy and Physiology
pressey_property
Science Final Study Guide
Caroline Conlan
APUSH End-of-Year Cram Exam: Set 1
Nathaniel Rodriguez
sec + final
maxwell3254
CCNA Security Final Exam
Maikel Degrande
Browse Library