Exam Part 1 of Nursing 112 FInal GBCC

Tess Nicholson
Quiz by Tess Nicholson, updated more than 1 year ago
Tess Nicholson
Created by Tess Nicholson almost 6 years ago
435
3

Description

Nursing exam final 112

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Informed consent prior to surgery is obtained by the...
Answer
  • Scrub Nurse
  • Surgeon
  • Surgical Tech
  • Circulating Nurse

Question 2

Question
Select all of the following that are commonly used induction drugs for general anesthesia
Answer
  • Mirtazapine (Remeron)
  • Versed (Midozalem)
  • Sublimaze (fentanyl)
  • valium (lorazipam)

Question 3

Question
A child is being put to sleep and while the medications are being administered he suddenly starts moving uncontrollably. What stage of induction is being shown by these symptoms....
Answer
  • analgesia
  • excitment
  • medullary paralysis
  • surgical anesthesia
  • movement

Question 4

Question
Which pt. is going to have the hardest time excreting anesthesia postoperatively
Answer
  • Small child, never had surgery before
  • Thin 70 year old adult, with glaucoma
  • Slightly overweight 30 year old with hernia
  • 76 year old obese male w/ trunk fat

Question 5

Question
Epinephrine can be dangerous when given on an appendage because it may...
Answer
  • often causes a rash
  • cause circulation to be compromised due to vasodilation
  • May cause bleeding due to it's interference with Factor 8
  • cause circulation to be compromised due to vasoconstriction

Question 6

Question
Fully reactive pts in the PACU should be placed in which position to promote respiratory expansion
Answer
  • semifowlers (head of bed at 45 degrees)
  • placed on side
  • supine and head of bed completely flat

Question 7

Question
A pt. in the PACU weighs 100kg and has a urine output of 200 mg/ an hour. The nurse notes that this is...
Answer
  • Below satisfactory output
  • above satisfactory output
  • Just meeting the criteria of satisfactory output

Question 8

Question
A pt. who is allergic to NSAIDs could safely be given Ketorolac (Toradol) for pain management postoperatively
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 9

Question
You have a pt. that is seen at the wound clinic. The wound has begun healing and has been left open and the base of the wound is undergoing treatment... This wound is healing by
Answer
  • Primary intention
  • Secondary intention
  • tertiary intention

Question 10

Question
An appropriate diagnosis for a pt. who has had psychotic symptoms for 4 months would be...
Answer
  • Psychosis NOS
  • Schizophrenia
  • Schizoaffective disorder
  • Schizophreniform disorder

Question 11

Question
Mr. J has came on to the psych unit and is speaking with the nurse. He denies any Auditory or visual hallucinations. When speaking to Mr. J the nurse notes that he only speaks when prompted to and seems to never smile.... These symptoms are...
Answer
  • The negative symptoms of apathy and anhedonia
  • The positive symptoms of alogia and apathy
  • The negative symptoms of alogia and affective blunting
  • the positive symptoms of asociality and avolition

Question 12

Question
The difference between delusions and illusions are ...
Answer
  • delusions have a relationship to real life
  • illusions are misinterpretations of real stimulus
  • delusions are misinterpretations of real stimulus
  • delusions are always violent

Question 13

Question
You greet Camille on the unit in the morning and ask "How are you?"; Camille responds "good, should, could, would". This response is a symptom associated with schizophrenia known as...
Answer
  • Disordered Behavior: Anergia
  • Disordered thought: mutism
  • Delusion: echopraxia
  • Disordered Thought: Clang association

Question 14

Question
When designating the task of taking vitals to an LNA; The nurse must make sure the LNA is careful when positioning the following pt.
Answer
  • Schizophrenic pt. with perseveration
  • Schizophrenic pt. with associative looseness
  • Schizophrenic pt. with waxy flexibility
  • Schizoaffective pt. with delusions of thought broadcasting

Question 15

Question
Interventions for Delusions: In the statement by the nurse "I understand that you are hearing a man talking to you, I don't hear a man. This must be scary for you, why don't we take a walk down to the kitchen and get a snack. "... When the nurse says "this must be scary for you" she is implementing which intervention for delusions ?
Answer
  • Acknowledge
  • empathize
  • sympathy
  • redirect

Question 16

Question
The main differences between normal grief and depression include the following
Answer
  • In depression feelings of hopelessness prevail
  • In grief the pt is able to accept comfort and support from others
  • In depression physical complaints are not usually present
  • In depression anhedonia is prevalent
  • Grief is characterized by overwhelming hopelessness and guilt

Question 17

Question
Which of the following loved ones would be at risk for complicated/dysfunctional grief?
Answer
  • A parent who lost a child from SIDS
  • A man who lives with his daughters and who's wife died in his arms after a long battle with cancer.
  • A man who lost his best friend to homocide
  • A women who lost her husband while he was a soldier in Iraq and the body could not be recovered
  • A young women who lost her elderly father to Alzheimer's Disease after 6 months on hospice care.
  • A daughter who's alcoholic father passed away from liver disease before they could reconcile

Question 18

Question
On an I and O sheet, the nurse should expect a healthy pt.'s flow sheet to balance out after...
Answer
  • 4 hours
  • 14 hours
  • 48 hours
  • 72 hours

Question 19

Question
Hypotonic solutions have a lower osmalarity than serum (<240) : Select all the characteristics associated with this type of fluid
Answer
  • Cause fluid to shift out of blood vessels into cells and interstitial spaces
  • Cause fluid to shift out of cells increasing circulating volume
  • The fluid to hydrates cells while reducing fluid in circulatory system
  • Can increase a hypotensive state
  • Are a good choice for a pt. experiencing fluid volume excess

Question 20

Question
Select all the hypertonic solutions:
Answer
  • TPN & PPN
  • 5% DNS
  • NS
  • LR
  • D5W
  • D10W

Question 21

Question
A pt. presents in the emergency room with the following Heart rate (110), BP (96/56), Temp (36.7); he feels dizzy when he stands Labs: Sodium (150), Potassium (5.4), H&H is high What medical language would MOST appropriately describe this pt's conditon
Answer
  • Dehydration, Hyponatremia
  • Dehydration, hypernatremia, hyperkalemia
  • Hypovolemia, hypokalemia
  • Hypovolemia, hyperkalemia

Question 22

Question
A pt. who has 3rd spacing can have both excessive fluid and dehydration
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 23

Question
A pt. has a specific gravity of 1.040 and asks you what this means you reply.
Answer
  • "This means your NS iv fluids have done there job re-hydrating you"
  • "This means you need to drink less water and watch your sodium intake"
  • "This means your body is putting out very concentrated urine."
  • "This means your body is putting out too much dilute urine"
  • " This is a normal lab value."

Question 24

Question
Hypotonic overhydration can be caused by:
Answer
  • Tap water enemas
  • .9% NS at a rate of 100ml/hour
  • TPN
  • overuse of .45%NS
  • inappropriate formula for children
  • using a water bottle as a pacifier
  • Saline enemas

Question 25

Question
The most important assessment for a pt at risk for CHF or volume excess is...
Answer
  • Respiratory rate
  • daily weights
  • Blood pressure
  • Pain level on exertion

Question 26

Question
Hydrochlorothiazide, HCTZ (Hydrodiuril) is a
Answer
  • Thiazaide diuretic & antihypertensive Mild blocks absorption of water in distal tubule
  • Loop diuretic; exerts action of loop of henle loose water and potassium
  • Potassium sparing and conserving (avoid K+ rich foods) Inhibits action of aldosterone in distal tubule
  • Very Powerful osmotic diuretic used to decrease intracranial pressure and cerebral edema

Question 27

Question
Spironolactone (aldactone) is a
Answer
  • Loop diuretic; exerts action of loop of henle loose water and potassium
  • Very Powerful osmotic diuretic used to decrease intracranial pressure and cerebral edema
  • Potassium sparing and conserving (avoid K+ rich foods) Inhibits action of aldosterone in distal tubule
  • Thiazaide diuretic & antihypertensive Mild blocks absorption of water in distal tubule

Question 28

Question
Mannitol (osmitrol) is a
Answer
  • Thiazaide diuretic & antihypertensive Mild blocks absorption of water in distal tubule
  • Very Powerful osmotic diuretic used to decrease intracranial pressure and cerebral edema
  • Loop diuretic; exerts action of loop of henle loose water and potassium
  • Potassium sparing and conserving (avoid K+ rich foods) Inhibits action of aldosterone in distal tubule

Question 29

Question
A pt. on Furosemide (lasix) should be counseled on eating foods rich in which nutrient
Answer
  • Sodium
  • Phosphorous
  • Potassium
  • Calcium

Question 30

Question
Ideal age of fetus when mother goes into labour
Answer
  • 24-28wks
  • 35-36wks
  • 38-42wks

Question 31

Question
Progesterone levels are to maintaining a pregnancy as _____________ levels are to maintaining labor
Answer
  • Aldosterone
  • Estrogen
  • LH
  • oxytocin

Question 32

Question
Identify the 4 p's of labour
Answer
  • Passage
  • Pulmonary
  • Passenger
  • Powers
  • Psyche
  • Physcian
  • Portal

Question 33

Question
A baby with a station of 0 is considered engaged
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 34

Question
The most favorable positions for the baby to be in at the start of labor Include:
Answer
  • Longitudinal lie
  • transverse lie
  • Attitude: flexion
  • Attitude: extension
  • Cephalic presentation: vertex
  • Cephalic Presentation: Brow

Question 35

Question
With breech presentation the concern is _______________ and with shoulder presentation the concern is _______________.
Answer
  • Cord compression
  • airway obstruction
  • Meconium
  • head entrapment

Question 36

Question
This baby would be documented as in which position
Answer
  • RSA
  • LSA
  • LOP
  • LMA

Question 37

Question
What would you document the fetal position as? Is this a good position for labor?
Answer
  • LMA, no
  • LOA, yes
  • ROA
  • RSA

Question 38

Question
The nurse in this picture is performing?
Answer
  • Leopald's maneuvers
  • Chicovstky signs
  • Pavlov maneuver
  • Gestational age

Question 39

Question
When does fetal o2 and waste exchange occur during the contraction cycle
Answer
  • acme
  • increment
  • Interval

Question 40

Question
Effacement is to thinning and shortening (%) as Dilation is to _______________ (___)
Answer
  • drawing up (mm)
  • Opening (cm)
  • Relaxing (%)
  • shortening (cm)

Question 41

Question
Primary powers are involuntary and cause effacement and dilation; Secondary powers are voluntary pushing
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 42

Question
Estrogen__________; Progesterone ___________
Answer
  • Evacuate, Preserve
  • eliminate, power

Question 43

Question
Signs of impending labor include
Answer
  • Pain in abdomen
  • bloody show
  • lightening
  • Braxton Hicks Contractions
  • Cervical changes
  • Resting/Bath decrease contractions
  • Weight loss (1-3lb)
  • ROM
  • Backache, pain in sacrum

Question 44

Question
Most appropriate precautions to take when A mother had a rupture of membranes but did not go into labor.
Answer
  • Decrease the vaginal exams to only once an hour.
  • Check the fetal heart rate and d/c vaginal exams
  • Check vaginally to see if the baby is engaged at a station of +1
  • Give oxytocin and wait for the doctor

Question 45

Question
Latent (early) Labour is characterized by
Answer
  • Cervix opens 0-3cm
  • mild-moderate contractions, mild discomfort (may go unnoticed)
  • uterus easily indented when contracting
  • behavior changes increased concentration
  • ctx about 3-30min apart; 20-40 sec duration by end
  • ctx 2-5 min apart, duration 40-60sec by end
  • cervix 8cm to fully dilated

Question 46

Question
1 stage: Active labor is characterized by:
Answer
  • 3-7 cm dilated
  • 0-3 cm dilated
  • effacement complete
  • internal rotation begins; descent of fetus into pelvis
  • fetus ballotable, unengaged
  • contractions 2-5 min apart, duration 40-60 sec; mod-strong
  • behavior changes: anxious, helpless, unsocial
  • social, excited, cooperative

Question 47

Question
1st Stage of Labor: Transition Phase characterized by
Answer
  • 8cm to full dilation (10cm)
  • short intense
  • ctx. 2-5 min apart duration 40-60 sec
  • ctx. strong, 1.5-2 min apart, duration 60-90 sec
  • no epidural= most difficult stage
  • wants to push, must resist urge to push
  • Rn should encourage good strong pushes and adequate rest periods

Question 48

Question
Second Stage of Labour begins with _________ and full __________ and ends with birth of the baby.
Answer
  • complete dilation (10cm) and 100% effacement
  • 3 cm dilation and 25 % effacement
  • 6 cm dilation and 50 % effacement
  • 40-50 sec frequency and full dilation

Question 49

Question
Cardinal Movements of Labor in Order
Answer
  • Flexion, Rotation, extension, expulsion
  • Engagement, eternal rotation (shoulder), extension, internal rotation, flexion, expulsion
  • Engagement, Flexion, Internal Rotation, Extension, External Rotation (shoulder, expulsion
  • Engagement, Flexion, external roation, extension, internal rotation, expulsion

Question 50

Question
Third Stage of Labor is all about the...
Answer
  • crowning
  • placenta
  • cardinal movements
  • meconium

Question 51

Question
Shiny Schultze_______ side; Dirty Duncan: ________side
Answer
  • Baby, Mom
  • Mom, Baby

Question 52

Question
Normal Fetal heart Rate (Bradycardia has to persist for at least _____ min for diagnosis)
Answer
  • 90-120; 30 min
  • 120-190; 5 min
  • 110-160; 10 min

Question 53

Question
A fetal heart rate monitor is showing: HR: 140; presence of variability, accelerations with movement at 155 lasting 14 seconds, and a deceleration to 130 following the contraction end. Identify the non-reassuring result.
Answer
  • HR of 140
  • Presence of variability
  • accelerations with movement at 155 lasting 14 seconds
  • Deceleration to 130 following the contraction end

Question 54

Question
Accelerations are good things! Indicates intact CNS and fetal well being; shown by a 15x15 patter for older than 32 weeks and a 10x10 patter for younger than 32 weeks. Accelerations can be caused by all but what?
Answer
  • movement
  • vaginal exam
  • baby sleeping
  • vibro-acoustic stimulation

Question 55

Question
Early Deceleration are associated with head compression which causes vagus nerve to slow HR but they are not associated with fetal compromise. Rate at lowest point usually above 100 bpm. Begin near onset + return to baseline by end of ctx.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 56

Question
In terms of _______________ it is okay to be early but never to be late.
Answer
  • accelerations
  • deccelerations
  • variability

Question 57

Question
A nurse taking care of a pt. whose baby is experiencing late decelerations is documenting her interventions. She notes that she gave pain medication, administered o2, performed a vaginal exam to assess head station and cord, decreased the pt's Oxytocin and increased the IV fluid infusion, placed pt on her side, checked the mother's vital signs and offered a warm compress. Which interventions were directly related to improving placental blood flow?
Answer
  • administering pain meds
  • administering oxygen
  • vaginal exam to assess head station and cord
  • Decreasing oxytocin infusion and increasing IV fluids
  • Placing pt. on her side
  • Vital signs
  • Giving the pt. a warm compress

Question 58

Question
VEAL: CHOP Variable: Cord (no uniform patter) Early: Head Compression (occuring during ctx) Accelerations: Optimal Late: Placental Dysfunction (begin after peak of contraction and rate returns to baseline after contraction ends)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 59

Question
Re-positioning to hands and knees position or side to side and amnioinfusion are interventions for...
Answer
  • early decelerations
  • variable decelerations
  • late decelerations
  • prolonged decelerations

Question 60

Question
Epidural Blocks are associated with the following possible side effects
Answer
  • maternal hypotension
  • Fetal hypotension
  • bladder distension
  • accelerations
  • prolonged second stage of labor
  • Spinal headache
  • catheter migrations
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