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Questions in this quiz (200)
11. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
- Areduced operational costs
- Breduced hardware footprint
- Cfaster changes with more reliable results
- Dfewer network failures
- Eincreased network security
22. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
- Aip address dhcp
- Bip helper-address
- Cip dhcp pool
- Dip dhcp client
33. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
- Adisabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices
- Bsetting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
- Callocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
- Dconfiguring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
44. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
- A2000::/3
- B2002::5
- CFC00::/7
- DFF02::1
- EFF02::2
55. Which option about JSON is true?
- Auses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text
- Bused to describe structured data that includes arrays
- Cused for storing information
- Dsimilar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML
66. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
- Aglobal unicast
- Bunique local
- Clink-local
- Dmulticast
77. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?
- Aenable secret
- Bservice password-encryption
- Cusername Cisco password encrypt
- Denable password
88. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )
- AOpenFlow
- BNETCONF
- CThrift
- DCORBA
- EDSC
99. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
- AThe user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link.
- BThe user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.
- CThe user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen.
- DThe user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.
1010. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)
- Aadapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software
- BSDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
- Ccustomized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
- DREST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center
- Emodular design that is upgradable as needed
1111. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.
Which type of security program is in place?- APhysical access control
- BSocial engineering attack
- Cbrute force attack
- Duser awareness
1212. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?
- ATKIP with RC4
- BRC4
- CAES-128
- DAES-256
1313. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
- AThe switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image.
- BThe ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch.
- CIP routing must be enabled on the switch.
- DA console password must be configured on the switch.
- ETelnet must be disabled on the switch.
1414. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device
- Aoutside global
- Boutside local
- Cinside global
- Dinside local
- Eoutside public
- Finside public
1515. Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
- A10.10.10.0/28
- B10.10.13.0/25
- C10.10.13.144/28
- D10.10.13.208/29
1616. How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
- AIt load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.
- BIt load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.
- CIt forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path.
- DIt uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.
1717. In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
- AA spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.
- BA spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
- CA leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
- DA leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
1818. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
- AIt drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.
- BIt can identify different flows with a high level of granularity.
- CIt guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets.
- DIt can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.
- EIt supports protocol discovery.
1919. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
- ACDP
- BSNMP
- CSMTP
- DARP
2020. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
- AThe switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted.
- BThe switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch.
- CDynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing.
- DThe switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets.
2121. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
- Arunts
- Bgiants
- Cframe
- DCRC
- Einput errors
2222. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
- ATCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.
- BUDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits.
- CUDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol.
- DTCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
2323. When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
- AIt multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.
- BFor each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth.
- CIt divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.
- DIt count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric.
2424. Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
- Aadminadmin123
- Bdefault
- Ctesting1234
- Dcisco123
2525. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
- AConfigure the version of SSH.
- BConfigure VTY access.
- CCreate a user with a password.
- DAssign a DNS domain name.
2626. Which output displays a JSON data representation?
- AOption A
- BOption B
- COption C
- DOption D
2727. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
- AAuthentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.
- BAuthentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password.
- CAuthentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.
- DAuthentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates.
2828. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
- AIt allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.
- BIt drops the traffic.
- CIt tags the traffic with the default VLAN.
- DIt tags the traffic with the native VLAN.
2929. An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
- Ainterface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 - Binterface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 - Cinterface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 - Dinterface e0/0
description to HQ-A370:98968
ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252
- Ainterface e0/0
3030. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
- ACentral AP management requires more complex configurations.
- BUnique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method.
- CIt supports autonomous and lightweight APs.
- DIt eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
3131. What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)
- AThe administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
- BIt uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
- CIt moves the control plane to a central point.
- DIt decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
- EIt uses Telnet to report system issues.
3232. Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?
- Adual algorithm
- Bmetric
- Cadministrative distance
- Dhop count
3333. Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
- AIt processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.
- BIt receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports.
- CIt forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.
- DIt transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports.
3434. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
- Asniffer
- Bmesh
- Cflexconnect
- Dlocal
3535. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
- AYAML
- BJSON
- CEBCDIC
- DSGML
- EXML
3636. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)
- Awhen the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again
- Bwhen the cable length limits are exceeded
- Cwhen one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
- Dwhen Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used
- Ewhen a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted
3737. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
- A20
- B90
- C110
- D115
3838. What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
- AIt enables BPDU messages
- BIt minimizes spanning-tree convergence time
- CIt immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded
- DIt immediately enables the port in the listening state
3939. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
- AThe Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
- BThe Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
- CThe Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
- DThe Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
4040. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
- AAll ARP packets are dropped by the switch.
- BEgress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.
- CAll ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted.
- DThe switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.
4141. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP?
- A10.4.4.4
- B10.4.4.5
- C172.23.103.10
- D172.23.104.4
4242. Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
- A192.168.16.0/21
- B192.168.16.0/24
- C192.168.26.0/26
- D192.168.16.0/27
4343. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
- A2000::/3
- BFC00::/7
- CFE80::/10
- DFF00::/8
4444. Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
- Amanagement interface settings
- BQoS settings
- CIP address of one or more access points
- DSSID
- EProfile name
4545. Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)
- AThe router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exciting Interface by 256.
- BThe router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
- CThe router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
- DThe advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link.
- EThe router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.
4646. Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
- AThe trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.
- BThe trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.
- CThe trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.
- DThe trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.
4747. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
- Alldp timer
- Blldp holdtimt
- Clldp reinit
- Dlldp tlv-select
4848. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?
- AExchange
- B2-way
- CFull
- DInit
4949. Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?
- AA. The interface is not participating in OSPF.
- BB. A point-to-point network type is configured.
- CC. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.
- DD. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface.
5050. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
- AConfigure the ports in an EtherChannel.
- BAdministratively shut down the ports.
- CConfigure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99.
- DConfigure the ports as trunk ports.
- EEnable the Cisco Discovery Protocol.
5151. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
- ABronze
- BPlatinum
- CSilver
- DGold
5252. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1.
The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
- ATraffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces
- BRoute 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.
- CTraffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is a symmetrical
- DRoute 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table
5353. Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
- AVirtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.
- BThe hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
- CEach hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch.
- DThe hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.
5454. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
- Afloating static route
- Bhost route
- Cdefault route
- Dnetwork route
5555. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
- AOption A
- BOption B
- COption C
- DOption D
5656. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
- AThe link is in a down state.
- BThe link is in an error-disabled state
- CThe link is becomes an access port.
- DThe link becomes a trunk port.
5757. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
- ACPU ACL
- BTACACS
- CFlex ACL
- DRADIUS
5858. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
- Aport-to-multipoint
- Bbroadcast
- Cpoint-to-point
- Dnonbroadcast
5959. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
- Apassive
- Bmode on
- Cauto
- Dactive
6060. A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF by default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
- Apoint-to-multipoint
- Bpoint-to-point
- Cbroadcast
- Dnonbroadcast
6161. An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
- Aplatform-as-a-service
- Bsoftware-as-a-service
- Cnetwork-as-a-service
- Dinfrastructure-as-a-service
6262. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
- Aautonomous
- Blightweight
- Cbridge
- Dmobility express
6363. Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
- Aipv6 address dhcp
- Bipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64
- Cipv6 address autoconfig
- Dipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
6464. Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
- Aipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1
- Bipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012:1 5
- Cipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2
- Dipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023:2 5
- Eipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5
6565. Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?
- Ashow ip route
- Bshow ip interface
- Cshow interface
- Dshow cdp neighbor
6666. Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
- AThe two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.
- BThe two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.
- CEach router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.
- DThe two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding.
- EThe two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them.
6767. Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
- AWhen a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated.
- BAs power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused.
- CIf a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects.
- DIf a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err disabled.
6868. Which 802.11 frame type is association response?
- Amanagement
- Bprotected frame
- Ccontrol
- Daction
6969. Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)
- AEnable NTP authentication.
- BVerify the time zone.
- CDisable NTP broadcasts.
- DSpecify the IP address of the NTP server.
- ESet the NTP server private key.
7070. Refer to the exhibit. The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two.)
- AConfigure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.
- BConfigure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.
- CConfigure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
- DConfigure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
- EConfigure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.
7171. Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
- ASpanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
- BVTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
- CRoot port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
- DAfter spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUS.
7272. Refer to exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
- AIt is a broadcast IP address.
- BThe router does not support/28 mask.
- CIt belongs to a private IP address range.
- DIt is a network IP address.
7373. When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
- AThe floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup
- BThe administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary
- CThe floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup.
- DThe default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table.
7474. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
- AIt only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.
- BIt modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization.
- CIt abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.
- DIt does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode
7575. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
- A172.9.0.0/16
- B172.28.0.0/16
- C192.0.0.0/8
- D209.165.201.0/24
7676. Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
- A10.10.1.10
- B10.10.10.20
- C172.16.15.10
- D192.168.0.1
7777. Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
- AIt sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.
- BIt sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.
- CIt cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25.
- DIt load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.
7878. When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
- AIKEv2
- BIKEv1
- CIPsec
- DMD5
7979. Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration started to work as intended.Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)
- AAdd a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
- BAdd a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
- CThe source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.
- DThe ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.
- EThe ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2.
8080. Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
- Aon
- Bauto
- Cactive
- Ddesirable
8181. A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
- Acost
- Badministrative distance
- Cmetric
- Das-path
8282. R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
- AIS-IS
- BRIP
- CInternal EIGRP
- DOSPF
8383. Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
- A0000.5E00.010a
- B0005.3711.0975
- C0000.0C07.AC99
- D0007.C070/AB01
8484. Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
- AOnly traditional networks offer a centralized control plane.
- BOnly traditional networks natively support centralized management.
- CTraditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations.
- DOnly controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.
8585. If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
- AA network device has restarted.
- BAn ARP inspection has failed.
- CA routing instance has flapped.
- DA debug operation is running.
8686. Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
- A0
- B110
- C38443
- D3184439
8787. Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?
- AIt ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed.
- BIt immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route.
- CIt starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes.
- DIt starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1.
8888. Refer to the Exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. Which error must be corrected?
- AThere is a native VLAN mismatch.
- BAccess mode is configured on the switch ports.
- CThe PCs are in the incorrect VLAN.
- DAll VLANs are not enabled on the trunk.
8989. An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
- AWEP
- BRC4
- CAES
- DTKIP
9090. Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
- ATo pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.
- BThe EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”
- CWhen enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.
- DOne functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
9191. When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
- AASCII
- Bbase64
- Cbinary
- Ddecimal
- Ehexadecimal
9292. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
- Aoverlay
- Bnorthbound
- Cunderlay
- Dsouthbound
9393. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?
- Ainterface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk - Binterface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk - Cinterface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk - Dinterface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation
dot1q switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
- Ainterface FastEthernet 0/1
9494. Refer to the exhibit. A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?
- Atrunk mode mismatches
- Ballowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
- Cnative VLAN mismatches
- DVLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
9595. What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFV2? (Choose two.)
- AIt requires the use of ARP.
- BIt can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
- CIt supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
- DIt routes over links rather than over networks.
9696. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
- A2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
- B2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
- CFEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
- D2004:1:25A4:886F::1
9797. Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
- Aone-to-many communication model
- Bone-to-nearest communication model
- Cany-to-many communication model
- Da unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
- Ethe same address for multiple devices in the group
- Fdelivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
9898. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
- AGlobal addresses start with 2000::/3.
- BLink-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
- CLink-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
- DThere is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
- EIf a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
9999. What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?
- AB514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
- BB514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
- CB514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
- DB514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72
100100. Which IPv6 address is valid?
- A2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
- B2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
- C2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
- D2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
101101. Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
- Aanycast
- Bbroadcast
- Cmulticast
- Dpodcast
- Eallcast
102102. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
- Aipv6 local
- Bipv6 host
- Cipv6 unicast-routing
- Dipv6 neighbor
103103. Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?
- A::1
- B::
- C2000::/3
- D0::/10
104104. In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.)
- Afd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
- Bfd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
- Cfd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B
- Dfd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
- Efd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
105105. Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
- AThe switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
- BThe frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.
- CThe MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
- DThe frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
- EThe MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
- FThe frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
106106. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration becomes the root bridge?
- ASW1
- BSW2
- CSW3
- DSW4
107107. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
- AIt ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
- BIt provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
- CIt specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
- DIt decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
- EIt indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
108108. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
- ATwo secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface.
- BA syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface.
- CThe interface is error-disabled.
- DThe interface dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.
- EAn SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface.
109109. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
- Alearned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity
- Bthe interface is error-disabled if packets arrive from a new unknown source address
- Cit has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses
- Dit has dynamically learned three secure MAC addresses
- Ethe security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address
110110. Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface, if packets from an unknown Source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC address? (Choose two.)
- AThe security violation counter does not increment
- BThe port LED turns off
- CThe interface is error-disabled
- DA syslog message is generated
- EThe interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address
111111. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.)
- Athere are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network
- BA static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined
- CTen routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100
- DThe 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP
- EThe EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170
112112. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the interface that generated the output is true?
- AFive secure MAC addresses are dynamically learned on the interface.
- BA syslog message is generated when a violation occurs.
- COne secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface.
- DOne secure MAC address is dynamically configured on the interface.
113113. Refer to the exhibit. When PC 1 sends a packet to PC2,the packet has. Which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
- Asource 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2
- Bsource 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1
- Csource 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
- Dsource 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2
114114. Refer to the exhibit Users in your office are complaining that they cannot connect to the severs at a remote site. When troubleshooting, you find that you can successfully reach the severs from router R2. What is the most likely reason that the other users are experiencing connection failure?
- Ainterface ports are shut down on the remote servers
- BThe DHCP address pool has been exhausted
- CThe ip helper-address command is missing on the R2 interface that connects to the switch
- DVLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.
115115. After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two)
- Adeploy load balancers
- Bconfigure additional vlans
- Cconfigure multiple VRRP groups
- Ddeploy POE switches
- Econfigure additional security policies
116116. Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet.
Which action corrects the configuration issue?
- AAdd the default-information originate command on R2.
- BAdd the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1.
- CConfigure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1.
- DConfigure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2.
117117. Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?
- A{“key”:”value”}
- B[“key”,”value”]
- C{“key”,”value”}
- D(“key”:”value”)
118118. Which option best describes an API?
- AA contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other.
- Ban architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications
- Ca stateless client-server model
- Drequest a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data
119119. Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?
- Ashow ipv6 interface
- Bshow access-list
- Cshow ipv6 access-list
- Dshow ipv6 route
120120. Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH?
- Atransport input telnet ssh
- Btransport input telnet
- Cno transport input telnet
- Dprivilege level 15
121121. AAA stands for authentication, authorization, and accounting
- ATrue
- BFalse
122122. What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router?
- AIt causes the router to send messages with lower severity levels to the syslog server.
- BIt causes the router to send all messages with the severity levels Warning, Error, Critical, and Emergency to the syslog server.
- CIt causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server
- DIt causes the router to stop sending all messages to the syslog server.
123123. Which Cisco IOS command will indicate that interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0 is configured via DHCP?
- Ashow ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 dhcp
- Bshow interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
- Cshow ip interface dhcp
- Dshow ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
- Eshow ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 brief
124124. Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true?
- Aapplies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses
- Bapplies a one-to-one relationship to internal IP addresses
- Capplies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses
- Dcan be configured only on Gigabit interface
125125. Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route?
- Aipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop
- Bipv6 route default interface next-hop
- Cipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
- Dip route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
126126. Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true?
- ADynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.
- BStatic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol
- CStatic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
- DDynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
127127. What is the purpose of the show ip ospf interface command?
- Adisplaying OSPF-related interface information
- Bdisplaying general information about OSPF routing processes
- Cdisplaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis
- Ddisplaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface-type basis
128128. How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
- Ato allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports
- Bto determine the hardware platform of the device
- Cto determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices
- Dall of the above
129 129. How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
- ATTL
- BMAC address forwarding
- CCollision avoidance
- DPort blocking
130130. Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two.)
- AEtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel.
- BSTP does not block EtherChannel links.
- CYou can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports.
- DEtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel.
- EEtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail.
131131. Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)
- ATo communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address.
- BThe MAC address is also referred to as the IP address.
- CThe MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges.
- DA MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware.
- EAn example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90.
- FA MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network.
132132. Which three statements about network characteristics are true? (Choose three.)
- ASpeed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network.
- BScalability indicates how many nodes are currently on the network.
- CThe logical topology is the arrangement of cables, network devices, and end systems.
- DAvailability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required.
- EReliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network.
133133. Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)
- ADefines the network functions that occur at each layer
- BFacilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
- CChanges in one layer do not impact other layer
- DEnsures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
134134. You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network – one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes? (Choose two)
- AChange the maximum paths to 2
- BChange the configuration so they both have the same feasible distance
- CChange the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072 to 2
- DChange the IP addresses so both paths have the same source IP address
135135. Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols? (Choose two)
- AIS-IS
- BEIGRP
- COSPF
- DBGP
- ERIP
136136. Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
- A192.168.14.4
- B192.168.12.2
- C192.168.13.3
- D192.168.15.5
137137. Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.)
- A0
- B1
- C1005
- D1006
- E4096
138138. Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network? (Choose three)
- A192.168.2.0
- B10.4.3.0
- C10.0.0.0
- D172.16.0.0
- E172.16.4.0
- F192.168.0.0
139139. Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two)
- Ato enable intra-enterprise communication
- Bto implement NAT
- Cto connect applications
- Dto conserve global address space
- Eto manage routing overhead
140140. Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
- ANAT
- B6to4 tunneling
- CL2TPv3
- Ddual-stack
141141. Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose Three)
- Ato speed up convergence
- Bto reduce routing overhead
- Cto lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches.
- Dto decrease latency by increasing bandwidth.
- Eto confine network instability to single areas of the network.
- Fto reduce the complexity of router configuration.
142142. Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)
- AIt supports VLSM.
- BIt is used to route between autonomous systems.
- CIt confines network instability to one area of the network.
- DIt increases routing overhead on the network.
- EIt allows extensive control of routing updates.
- FIt is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
143143. Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment?
- Ashow ipv6 eigrp neighbors
- Bshow ipv6 eigrp topology
- Cshow ipv6 eigrp traffic
- Dshow ipv6 eigrp events
144144. Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
- AStart of frame delimiter
- BType field
- CPreamble
- DData field
145145. Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
- Astandby 10 preempt
- Bstandby 10 version 1
- Cstandby 10 priority 150
- Dstandby 10 version 2
146146. Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
- Ano additional config is required
- Bstandby 1 track ethernet
- Cstandby 1 preempt
- Dstandby 1 priority 250
147147. You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity.
The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?- Aip default-gateway
- Bip route
- Cip default-network
- Dip address dhcp
- Eip address dynamic
148148. Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
- AThe designated port
- BThe backup port
- CThe alternate port
- DThe root port
149149. Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)
- Ainterface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode on - Binterface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode active - Cinterface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode auto - Dinterface port-channel 10
switchport
switchport mode trunk - Einterface port-channel 10
no switchport
ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0
- Ainterface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
150150. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
- AThe switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
- BThe switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
- CDynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
- DA switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only
151151. Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to a router, the DHCP clients behind the device cannot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem?
- AConfigure the dns server on the same subnet as the clients
- BActivate the dhcp pool
- CCorrect the subnet mask
- DConfigure the default gateway
152152. Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
- AThe router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
- BThe router will return the packet to its source.
- CThe router will forward the packet via Serial2.
- DThe router will drop the packet.
153153. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
- Asniffer
- Bmesh
- Cflexconnect
- Dlocal
154154. Refer to exhibit. What Administrative distance has route to 192.168.10.1 ?
- A1
- B90
- C110
- D120
155155. Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a non-default administrative distance?
- Arouter1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1
- Brouter1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
- Crouter1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
- Drouter1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
156156. Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter?
- ALLDP
- BEEM
- CCDP
- DNTP
157157. Which effect does the aaa new-model configuration command have?
- AIt enables AAA services on the device
- BIt configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA
- CIt associates a RADIUS server to an group.
- DIt configures a local user on the device.
158158. Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?
- AIt sends the traffic to VLAN 10.
- BIt sends the traffic to VLAN 100.
- CIt drops the traffic.
- DIt sends the traffic to VLAN 1.
159159. Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two)
- Achannel-group 10 mode on
- Bchannel-group 10 mode auto
- Cchannel-group 10 mode passive
- Dchannel-group 10 mode desirable
- Echannel-group 10 mode active
160160. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?
- A00000000
- B11111100
- C11111111
- D11111101
161161. Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
- AThey determine the optimal within an autonomous system.
- BThey determine the optimal path between autonomous systems.
- CBGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol.
- DMost modern networking supports both EGP and BGP for external routing.
- EMost modern network routers support both EGP and EIGRP for external routing.
162162. What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
- A00:00:0c:07:ac:01
- Bff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
- C43:2e:08:00:00:0c
- D00:00:0c:43:2e:08
- E00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff
163163. You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?
- AReload the OSPF process.
- BSpecify a loopback address
- CReboot the router.
- DSave the router configuration
164164. Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)
- AAll switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name
- BAll switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation.
- CAll switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name
- DThe VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain
- EAll switches must use the same VTP version.
165165. Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two.)
- Athe native VLAN
- Bthe trunking protocol
- Cthe VTP domain
- Dthe spanning-tree priority
- Ethe spanning tree protocol
166166. Refer to the exhibit. On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1?
- ARIP
- BOSPF
- CIGRP
- DEIGRP
167167. Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment?
- AVLAN 1
- BVLAN 5
- CVLAN 10
- DVLAN 20
168168. Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
- Amismatched autonomous system numbers
- Ban ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10
- Cmismatched process IDs
- Dmismatched hello timers and dead timers
- Euse of the same router ID on both devices
169169. Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two)
- AThe two devices must reside in different autonomous systems
- BNeighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device
- CThey can be created dynamically after the network statement is configured.
- DThe two devices must reside in the same autonomous system
- EThe two devices must have matching timer settings
170170. Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two)
- Awhether the NTP peer is statically configured
- Bthe IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
- Cthe configured NTP servers
- Dwhether the clock is synchronized
- Ethe NTP version number of the peer
171171. Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts?
- Asource
- Bstatic
- Cpool
- Doverload
172172. Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two)
- Awhether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface
- Bthe EIGRP or BGP autonomous system
- Cwhether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured
- DWhich neighbor adjacencies are established
- Ethe length of time that a route has been known
173173. Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use?
- ANAT pool
- Bdynamic NAT
- Cstatic NAT
- Done-way NAT
174174. Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR?
- Alldp run
- Blldp enable
- Clldp transmit
- Dcdp run
- Ecdp enable
175175. Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start. Which reason for the problem is most likely true ?
- AThe area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
- BThe IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched
- CThe autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
- DThe router ids on R1 and R2 are mismatched
176176. Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?
- Antp server
- Bntp peer
- Cntp authenticate
- Dntp master
177177. Which feature or protocol determines whether the QOS on the network is sufficient to support IP services?
- ALLDP
- BCDP
- CIP SLA
- DEEM
178178. Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled by this configuration?
- Astatic NAT translation
- Ba DHCP pool
- Ca dynamic NAT address pool
- DPAT
179In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address?
- ACDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor
- BCDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor
- CCDP operates normally, but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor
- DCDP operates normally,but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor
180180. Which two statements about NTP operations are true? (Choose two.)
- ANTP uses UDP over IP.
- BCisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative servers and NTP clients.
- CCisco routers can act only as NTP servers.
- DCisco routers can act only as NTP clients.
- ENTP uses TCP over IP.
181181. Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?
- Alldp timer 5000
- Blldp holdtime 5
- Clldp reinit 5000
- Dlldp reinit 5
182182. Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
- ARouter loopback address
- BRouter IP address
- CRouter priority
- DRouter tracking number
183183. Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
- AIt is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.
- BIt runs on the network layer.
- CIt can discover information from routers, firewalls, and switches.
- DIt runs on the physical layer and the data link layer.
184184. Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
- AThe interface number
- BThe port priority
- CThe VLAN priority
- DThe hello time
185185. When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected?
- APassive
- BDesirable
- COn
- DAuto
- EActive
186186. Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?
- Ashow hsrp
- Bshow sessions
- Cshow interfaces
- Dshow standby
187187. Refer to the exhibit. Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers?
- ANetwork 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224
- BNetwork 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
- CNetwork 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224
- DNetwork 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
- ENetwork 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
- FNetwork 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31
188188. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
- Ato uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
- Bto allow communication with devices on a different network
- Cto differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
- Dto establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
- Eto allow communication between different devices on the same network
- Fto allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
189189. Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
- Ashow ip ospf link-state
- Bshow ip ospf lsa database
- Cshow ip ospf neighbors
- Dshow ip ospf database
190190. Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
- AThese commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 - BThese commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 - CThese commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 - DNo further routing configuration is required
- AThese commands need to be added to the configuration:
191191. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
- Aport-to-multipoint
- Bbroadcast
- Cpoint-to-point
- Dnon-broadcast
192192. Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?
- A192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240
- B192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252
- C192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240
- D192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252
- E192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240
- F192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252
193193. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
"City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0."
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
- AFastEthernet0/0
- BFastEthernet0/1
- CSerial0/0
- DSerial0/1.102
- ESerial0/1.103
- FSerial0/1.104
194194. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
- AThe OSPF area is not configured properly.
- BThe cost on R1 should be set higher.
- CThe hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
- DA backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
- EThe OSPF process ID numbers must match.
195195. Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
- AAll of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
- BR1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
- CA static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
- DThe hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
- EEIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
- FR1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
196196. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
- A10.1.1.2
- B10.154.154.1
- C172.16.5.1
- D192.168.5.3
197197. Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
- AAS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
- BLoopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
- CThe no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
- DRouter B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network
198198. Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
- AThe address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
- BThe address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
- COnly the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
- DOnly the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
- EThe IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
199199. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
- AThis design will function as intended.
- BSpanning-tree will need to be used.
- CThe router will not accept the addressing scheme.
- DThe connection between switches should be a trunk.
- EThe router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
200200. What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
- Amoves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy
- Bprovides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks
- Callows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point
- Dcombines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency
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- Quiz on Test 1, created by t s on 19/08/2021.
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- t s
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