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Questions in this quiz (132)
1Happy, Frustrated, Exhilarated
Which of the words DOES belong to the list of the words above?- APolluted
- BMelancholic
- CDepressing
- DLaughable
2A business jet is descending toward its destination. The jet left 35,000 feet at 09:20 and passed 17,500 feet at 09:34.
The jet maintained a constant rate of descent until passing 17,500 feet, where it increased the rate of descent by a factor of 3. When will the jet reach 2,500 feet?- A09:36
- B09:40
- C09:38
- D09:42
3Solve (x – 8) (x + 4) = 0
- A4, -4
- B-8, 4
- C8, -4
- D0, 0
4An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:
- Apresent position needs to be reentered.
- Bpresent position needs to be reentered
- Cattitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
- Da complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.
5While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral will command
- Acontrol surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to
straight and level flight. - Bthe control surfaces to continue rolling the aircraft until reaching 55 degrees roll angle.
- Ccontrol surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and
maintain its current attitude. - Da load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for
pitch attitude.
- Acontrol surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to
6The ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel will illuminate amber;
- Awhen one or more IR's are operating on aircraft battery power.
- Bfor a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.
- CBoth A and B are correct.
- DNone of the above
7The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?
- ANo present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.
- BIn addition to answer A, an alignment fault may exist.
- CAttitude and heading information have been lost.
- DNone of the above
8In normal law the low speed limits depicted on each pilots PFD:
- Aare displayed as green x's
- Bare displayed as green ='s
- Care displayed as Alpha prot and Alpha and other environmental factors
- Dare displayed as green =o's
9In normal law, pitch and roll attitude limits depicted on each pilots PFD:
- Aare displayed as green x's.
- Bare displayed as green =',s
- Care never displayed and must be memorized by each A320 pilot
- DNone of the above.
10What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:
- Amove the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3
- Bmove the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3
- Cmove the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/0 3
- Dmove the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/0 1
11While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:
- Athe flight controls revert to direct law
- Bthe sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick
deflection is proportional to AOA. - Cthe flight controls remain in the load factor demand law
- Dnone of the above
12What action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost?
- ANothing.
- BMove the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
- CMove the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3
- DNone of the above.
13Pressurization is normally automatic on the A320. Can you interfere with it?
- AYes, manually set landing elevation using the LND ELEV AUTO selector.
- BYes, CABIN PRESS MODE SEL to OVERRIDE and MAN V/S CTL toggle switch
- CBoth A and B
- DNo.
14Aft cargo ventilation is controlled by:
- AThe aft cargo rotary selector knob.
- BThe zone controller and the SDCU.
- CThe cargo ventilation controller.
- DAll of the above.
15How many pressurization controllers are installed on the A320?
- AThree: two automatic, and one manual controller.
- BTwo: one automatic and one manual.
- CTwo independent controllers. They both operate in the automatic mode.
- DOne controller with AC and DC motor backups.
16Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber AFT ISOL VALVE fault light?
- AAutomatically closes the aft cargo compartment isolation valves.
- BMeans that either the inlet or outlet isolation valve(s) disagrees with the switch position.
- CIndicates that the extract fan has stopped.
- DAll of the above.
17How can you change pressurisation controllers during flight?
- ACycle the LDG ELEV AUTO knob out of the AUTO position then back to AUTO.
- BCycle the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL pushbutton to the MAN position then back to AUTO.
- CCycle the cabin pressurisation MAN V/S CTL switch.
- DNone of the above.
18What computers control the cabin and cockpit conditioned air?
- ATwo zone controllers that pass information and requests to two pack controllers.
- BTwo pack controllers that pass information and requests to three zone controllers.
- CThree zone controllers that pass information and instructions to two pack controllers for three zones.
- DOne zone controller that passes information and instructions to two pack controllers for three zones
19How many trim air valves are there?
- AOne trim air valve.
- BThree: one each for the cockpit zone, the forward cabin zone, and the aft cabin zone.
- CTwo: one for the cockpit and first class zone, and one for the cabin zone.
- DFour: one each for the cockpit zone, the first class zone, and two for the aft zone.
20Which statement is true?
- ARNAV (GPS), RNAV (GNSS), RNAV (DME DME), RNAV (VOR DME) & RNP APCH are
treated with the same SOP. - BAn operator can be RNAV terminal area approved but not RNP approach approved.
- CRNP AR approaches are a variant of RNP approaches, consequently no specific
authorization is required. - DWhen the AOC mentions P-RNAV it grants automatically RNAV approach
- ARNAV (GPS), RNAV (GNSS), RNAV (DME DME), RNAV (VOR DME) & RNP APCH are
21The RNP approaches in WIZZ Air operations have been approved from the 1st of January
2017 by the CAA. Does it mean that pilots can perform RNP approaches?- AYes, as RNP approaches are categorized NPA, all pilots are already trained
- BNo, pilots can perform RNP approaches only if both of them have had a successful initial training.
- CNo, pilots can perform RNP approaches only if the PIC has had a successful initial
training. - DNo, pilots can perform RNP approaches only if one of the pilots has had a successful
initial training. This pilot should be the PF for the approach
22What is the mean chord line?
- AThe mean chord line is the wing area divided by the wing span.
- BThe mean chord line is a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an
aerofoil. - CThe mean chord line is a line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of equidistance
on the upper and lower surfaces of an aerofoil. - DThe mean chord line is the line equidistance from the leading and the trailing edge
along the wing span.
23What is the mean chamber line?
- AThe mean chamber line is a line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of
equidistance on the upper and lower surfaces of an aerofoil. - BThe mean chamber line is the wing area divided by the wing span.
- CThe mean chamber line is a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of anaerofoil.
- DThe mean chord line is the line equidistance from the leading and the trailing edge
along the wing span.
- AThe mean chamber line is a line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of
24What is aspect ratio?
- AThe aspect ratio is the ratio between the angle of attack at the wing root and the
wingtip. - BThe aspect ratio is the wing area divided by the wing span.
- CThe aspect ratio is the ratio between the altitude above ground and the gliding distance.
- DThe aspect ratio is the ratio between the chord lines at the wing root and the wingtip.
- AThe aspect ratio is the ratio between the angle of attack at the wing root and the
25What are Krueger flaps?
- AKrueger flaps are leading-edge wing flaps used to increase the wing chamber and
therefore increase the coefficient of lift maximum. - BKrueger flaps increase the wing's chamber area and mean aerodynamic chord, thereby
increasing its coefficient of lift maximum. - CKrueger flaps are trailing-edge wing flaps used to increase the wing area and chamber,
which increases the coefficient of lift maximum. - DKrueger flaps are trailing-edge wing flaps used to increase the wing chamber, which
increases the coefficient of lift maximum.
- AKrueger flaps are leading-edge wing flaps used to increase the wing chamber and
26What happens to your calculated airspeed (CAS) or indicated airspeed (lAS) if you descend at a constant true airspeed (TAS)?
- AThe CAS / lAS will increase.
- BThe CAS / IAS will decrease.
- CThe CAS will increase, the IAS will decrease.
- DThe CAS will decrease, the IAS will increase.
27How is ASDA calculated?
- AASDA=TORA+safeway
- BASDA=TODA+safeway
- CASDA=TORA+clearway
- DASDA=TODA+clearway
28What is TODA?
- ATODA=TORA+safeway
- BTODA=TORA+clearway
- CTODA=ASDA-safeway
- DTODA=ASDA+safeway
29How does weight affect the V1 speed, if the field length is limiting?
- AV1 decreases when the take-off mass increases.
- BV1 increases when the take-off mass increases.
- CWhen the field length is limiting, there is no change in V1 speed when the weight
changes. - DV1 is constant for a given field length.
30The validity of FM (alone) or BECMG AT in the TAF is:
- ADeterioration and improvement: Applicable from the start of the change
Mean wind: Should be within required limits
Gusts: May be disregarded - BDeterioration and improvement: Applicable from the end of the change
Mean wind: Should be within required limits
Gusts: May be disregarded - CDeterioration: Applicable from the start of the change
Improvement: Applicable from the end of the change
Mean wind: Should be within required limits
Gusts: May be disregarded - DDeterioration and improvement: Applicable from the start of the change
Mean wind: Should be within required limits
Gusts: Should be within required limits
- ADeterioration and improvement: Applicable from the start of the change
31The validity of BECMG (alone), BECMG FM, BECMG TL, BECMG, FM…TL in the TAF is:
- AImprovement: Applicable from the start of the change
Mean wind: Should be within required limits
Gusts: May be disregarded - BImprovement: Applicable from the end of the change
Mean wind: Should be within required limits
Gusts: May be disregarded - CImprovement: Applicable from the end of the change
Mean wind: Must be within required limits
Gusts: Must be disregarded - DImprovement: Applicable from the end of the change
Mean wind: Must not be within required limits
Gusts: May be disregarded
- AImprovement: Applicable from the start of the change
32Which statement is valid regarding the DESTINATION aerodrome?
- AFor a non-precision or circling approach the ceiling must be disregarded.
- BFor a non-precision or circling approach the ceiling must be at or above MDH +100 feet
- CFor a non-precision or circling approach the ceiling must be at or above MDH +200 feet.
- DFor a non-precision or circling approach the ceiling must be at or above MDH.
33The following equipment shall be serviceable before entering RVSM airspace:
- A-Two primary altimeter systems
-One automatic altitude control system
-One altitude alerting system
-An transponder with altitude reporting capability that can be connected to the altitude
measurement system in use for maintaining altitude. - B-Two primary altimeter systems (agree within ± 200 feet)
-One automatic altitude control system
-One altitude alerting system
-An transponder with altitude reporting capability that can be connected to the altitude
measurement system in use for maintaining altitude. - C-Two primary altimeter systems (agree within ± 300 feet)
-Twoautomatic altitude control system
-Two altitude alerting system
-An transponder with altitude reporting capability that can be connected to the altitude
measurement system in use for maintaining altitude. - D-Two primary altimeter systems (agree within ± 100 feet)
-Two automatic altitude control system
-One altitude alerting system
-An transponder with altitude reporting capability that can be connected to the altitude
measurement system in use for maintaining altitude.
- A-Two primary altimeter systems
34What is the maximum mass for Fuel Last Minute Change on the load sheet, if we LMC 400 kg of PAX and Bags.
- A0 kg
- B200 kg
- C600 kg
- D150 kg
35When anti-icing with Type 1 fluid, and there is a discrepancy between the fluid type specific and the generic hold over time tables, which one should you use?
- AWe should use the more restrictive HOT table.
- BFor anti-icing with Type 1 fluid, the generic hold over time tables have to be used.
- CWe can use either table.
- DThe fluid specific HOT table is more precise, so if available, it must be used.
36What is the operating speed range during final approach of a Wizz Air A321 according to ICAO DOC 8168 (PANS OPS)?
- A140-180
- B115-160
- C121-140
- D115-180
37What is the weather minima for commencing a visual approach.
- AThe runway has to be in sight to start an approach, no minima is published
- BVIS-5000m Ceiling-2500ft
- CVIS-2500m Ceiling-1000ft
- DVIS-5000m Ceiling-2500ft and runway must be in sight.
38What is the standard mass for a cabin crew member?
- A85kg
- B65kg
- C75kg
- D70kg
39What is the definition of contaminated runway?
- Ameans a runway of which more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the
required length and width being used is covered by the following:
-surface water more than 3 mm (0,125 in) deep, or by slush, or loose snow, equivalent
to more than 3 mm (0,125 in) of water;
-snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression
and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up (compacted snow); or
-ice, including wet ice. - Bmeans a runway of which more than 50 % of the runway surface area within the
required length and width being used is covered by the following:
-surface water more than 3 mm (0,125 in) deep, or by slush, or loose snow, equivalent
to more than 3 mm (0,125 in) of water;
-snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression
and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up (compacted snow); or
-ice, including wet ice. - Cmeans a runway of which more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the
required length and width being used is covered by the following:
-surface water more than 6 mm (0,125 in) deep, or by slush, or loose snow, equivalent
to more than 6 mm (0,125 in) of water;
-snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression
and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up (compacted snow); or
-ice, including wet ice. - Dmeans a runway of which more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the
required length and width being used is covered by the following:-surface water less than 3 mm (0,125 in) deep, or by slush, or loose snow, equivalent
to less than 3 mm (0,125 in) of water;
-snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression
and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up (compacted snow); or
-ice, including wet ice.
- Ameans a runway of which more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the
40Can you legally fly to an airport not included in OM-C - Airports, and what is the reason for your decision?
- ANever, because the airport is not approved by Wizz Air
- BYes, if the airport is adequate to your best knowledge/preparation.
- CYes, because the information reported on OM-C are not necessary
- DYes, but only if is an alternate aerodrome listed on the OFP.
41What does HORN SHUTOFF on the EVAC panel do?
- ASilences EVAC signals throughout the cabin and cockpit.
- BCancels the EVAC alert
- CSilences EVAC signal in cockpit.
- DNone of the above.
42While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the following control laws is in effect?
- ABackup.
- BDirect.
- CAlternate.
- DNone of the above.
43Engine #1 has just been started and the APU is inoperative. The EXT PWR push button blue ON light is illuminated. Which of the statements below is correct?
- AExternal power is supplying all electrical needs.
- BEngine Gen #1 is supplyinq AC bus #1 and the downstream systems, and AC bus #2
through the bus tie contactors. - CGen #1 supplies AC bus #1 and (generally) the downstream systems; Ext power
supplies AC bus #2 . - DNone of the above
44While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the
following statements is correct?- AIf the APU is not operating it should be started at this time.
- BThe APU will not start until the aircraft has come to a complete stop and all power has
been removed for 15 seconds. - COn the ground at 100 knots, the DC BATTERY BUS automatically reconnects to the
batteries allowing APU start. - DAt 70 knots ESS AC is disconnected from the batteries.
45If EXTERNAL power is available and within limits:
- Ait will automatically close the bus tie contactors's when connected by the ground crew
- Bthe green AVAIL light will illuminate on the EXT PWR push button.
- Cthe BUS TIE push button illuminates.
- DNone of the above.
46What is the priority of electrical sources?
- AExternal power, Gen #1 and #2, APU.
- BAPU, External power (if selected), Gen #1 and #2.
- CAPU, Gen #2 or #1, External power (if selected).
- DGen #1 or #2, External power (if selected), APU.
47What is considered to be the active range of the A/THR system?
- ADuring single engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the FLX/MCT detent.
- BDuring two engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to the CL detent
- CBoth A and B above.
- DNone of the above.
48Does the FADEC provide EGT limit protection constantly?
- AYes, in all phases-of flight.
- BNo, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts.
- CNo, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts and single-engine
operations.None of the above. - DNone of the above.
49How can A/THR be ARMED automatically?
- AWhenever a takeoff or go-around is initiated.
- BWhen Alpha floor protection is activated.
- CBoth A and B are correct.
- DNone of the above.
50Can the engines be overboosted in the TOGA position?
- ANo, because the EIU is responsable for monitoring N1 and N2
- BYes, if the autothrust function is not active.
- CNo, because the FADEC provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1, N2, and HMU fuel flow adjustments.
51How is manual arming of the A/THR system accomplished?
- AAdvance at least one thrust lever to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent with at least one
Flight Director (FD) on. - BBy placing the thrust levers into the active range
- CBy pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU and confirming the pb illuminates green or
confirm an A/THR annunciation is displayed in column 5 of the FMA. - DNone of the above.
- AAdvance at least one thrust lever to the TOGA or FLX/MCT detent with at least one
52For take-off, the required RVR is 600m. It is night time. The RVR values can`t be transmitted by the tower due to equipment failure. The reported visibility is 500m. Can you depart and why?
- AYes, but only if you can ascertain yourself that the RVR in the take-off direction is equal
to or better than the applicable minimum. - BYes, because according to CMV-RVR conversion table, 500m visibility equals 750m RVR.
- CNo, because RVR values above the minima are normally required for take-off. If they
are not available, they can be replaced by visibility values - DYes, if you have 90 m visual segment at the start of the take-off roll.
- AYes, but only if you can ascertain yourself that the RVR in the take-off direction is equal
53You are in flight to LHBP. Runway in use is 13R with dry runway conditions. The reported
wind is 220/10G25 with clouds BKN014 and VIS: 6000m. At 500 ft, on the ND, the wind is
220/36. Can you continue the approach?- AYes
- BNo, a G/A is mandatory
54Do you have to apply the temperature corrections to the go-around altitude when the arrival
aerodrome temperature is less than 0 degrees?- AYes, always
- BOnly if you are under procedural control.
- CNo.
- DTemperature correction is only necessary if the aerodrome temperature is ISA-15 or
55Failure to retract the flaps after takeoff will:
- Aactivate the wing tip brakes.
- Bresult in automatic flap and slat retraction at 210 kts.
- Cresult in automatic flap and slat retraction at 220 kts.
- Dresult in automatic flap retraction at 210 kts.
56Which of the following will automatically reset after landing?
- ARudder trim.
- BTHS.
- CBoth A and B.
- DNone of the above.
57When ground spoilers deploy automatically:
- Aall ten spoiler panels fully deploy.
- Bfour spoiler panels on each wing deploy.
- Call ten spoiler panels deploy half way.
- Dsix spoiler panels on each wing deploy.
58The wing tip brakes, once activated:
- Alock only the flaps in their current position.
- Block both the slats and flaps in their current position.
- Clock only the slats in their current position.
- Dlock only the affected high lift system surfaces in their current position.
59Which of the following statements is correct concerning the elevator aileron computers (ELAC's)?: (check)
- AThree computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.
- BTwo computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons,
and trimmable horizontal stabilizer. - CThree computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons
and THS. - DTwo computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.
60If both FAC's fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?
- AIt immediately assumes the low speed position.
- BIt freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are
selected. - CMaximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.
61VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes?
- AVOR, RMI and NDB information may be displayed in the ARC or ROSE NAV modes.
- BVOR and ILS information can be displayed in the ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes
respectively. - CBoth A and B are correct.
- DNone of the above.
62What causes a display unit (DU) to go blank?
- ADisplay unit internal failure.
- BNo power.
- CA and B.
- DThe circuit breaker-has popped.
63Once the crewmember has completed viewing a specific system, what is the correct procedure for clearing the screen and returning it to a normal presentation?
- APress the respective system push button again.
- BIt goes away by itself.
- CPress CLR on the ECAM control panel.
- DNone of the above.
64The presence of VOR1 in red on the ND indicates:
- Athe VOR station currently tuned is out of range.
- Bthe VOR station currently tuned is out of service.
- Cthe #1 VOR receiver has failed its self-test.
- Dthe #1 VOR receiver is inoperative.
65How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?
- AOne.
- BTwo.
- COne cylinder shared with the aft cargo compartment.
- DTwo cylinders shared with the aft cargo compartment.
66APU fire detection is accomplished by:
- Aa two channel SDCU located in the APU compartment.
- Btwo parallel fire detection loops.
- Cone fire detection loop.
- Da three channel SDCU located in the APU compartment.
67The aft cargo compartment smoke detection system consists of:
do sprawdzenia- Aa dual loop smoke detector.
- Bfour smoke detectors and a two channel smoke detection control unit.
- Cone smoke detector, one smoke detection control unit and two automatically
discharging fire extinguishers. - DNone of the above.
68In addition to the CRC and a red MASTER WARN light, a good engine fire test display which of the following (AC power available)?
- AENG FIRE warning on ECAM, red FIRE annunciator on engine panel, red ENG FIRE push
button and AGENT SQUIB/DISC illumination on fire panel - BPedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator, red ENG FIRE push button and the AGENT
SQUIB/DISC lights illuminate. - CThe CRC and red MASTER WARN light indicate a good engine fire test.
- DNone of the above.
- AENG FIRE warning on ECAM, red FIRE annunciator on engine panel, red ENG FIRE push
69When is the SRS active?
- AAt T/O, when TOGA or FLX power is set, SRS is displayed on the FMA and provides
guidance up to the acceleration altitude - BDuring a Go Around (after the thrust levers are placed in the TOGA position) up to the
acceleration altitude - CBoth A and B.
- DNone of the above.
- AAt T/O, when TOGA or FLX power is set, SRS is displayed on the FMA and provides
70What is managed climb speed above 10,000 feet?
- AGreen dot.
- B250 knots.
- C280 knots.
- DEcon climb speed.
71The wing fuel transfer valves are:
- Amanually controlled and open when the MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN.
- Bare electrically held closed.
- Copen automatically at the start of refueling,
- Dautomatically close if a low level is sensed in either main wing tank, they automatically
close at the next fueling.
72Which of the following would cause the fault light to illuminate on the MODE SEL push button on the fuel panel?
- AFuel is being burned out of sequence.
- BCrossfeed push button is ON.
- CCenter tank pumps do not stop after slat extension.
- DCenter tank pumps do not stop 5 min after center tank low level reached.
73You are approaching a dry runway in a 64T A320 in EMER ELEC configuration, A/THR OFF,
sea level, head wind of 10 kts, 25C temperature. What is your in-flight landing distance
without company margin?- A2240
- B2020
- C2160
- D2100
74You are approaching with a 64T A320 aircraft with normal brake fault, A/THR OFF, a runway
covered with 3mm slush . The runway is at sea level, no slope, with 5kts tail-wind and a
ground temperature of 5 degrees. You are landing with full flaps and plan to use both
reversers. What is your in-flight landing distance without company margin?- A1640
- B1560
- C1700
- D1510
75You are approaching a runway situated at 1000 ft AMSL with a 64T A320 aircraft with green
and yellow hydraulic system low pressure indication, A/THR OFF, the temperature is -5
degrees, the tower is reporting 5 kts of headwind, runway covered with 100% 4mm slush
and pilot reported braking action is medium. What is your in-flight landing distance without
company margin?- A3160
- B269
- C3880
- D3000
76You are approaching with a 64T A320 aircraft, A/THR OFF, with green and blue hydraulic
system low pressure warning, a runway covered with 1 mm water situated at sea level, with
ground temperature of -5 degrees, 1% upslope, with 5kts reported headwind. No reverser
credit is taken into account. What is your in-flight landing distance without company margin?- A2380
- B1840
- C2690
- D2400
77After extending the RAT, is it possible to check it's position and status?
- ACheck to see if the blue system ELEC PUMP FAULT light is not illuminated.
- BYes, select the ECAM ELEC page.
- CNo.
- DYes, select the ECAM HYD page.
78Where would you find the date of issue of the MEL?
- AOn the Maintenance Statement in the Flight Deck Documents Blue folder
- BIn the MEL pdf document in the onboard database
- CIn the Onboard DB-Validities folder
- DIn the Flight Deck Documents Blue folder
79Where is the exact procedure for LPC Landing Distance Calculation described?
- AOM-B
- BFCOM
- CEFM
- DFCTM
80In case of unsuccessful autoland in real LVO ops, followed by a go-around, you are not
allowed to try one more approach requiring automatic landing before the maintenance
personnel releases the aircraft to do so. Is it true and if so, based on which document?- AThe statement is false.
- BIt is true, and described in the OM-A Part 8
- CIt is true, and described in the OM-B
- DIt is true, and described in the WizzAir LVO manual
81After a 4 hour flight, IRS 1 has a drift of 8 NM. Where would you find the information if this
IRS is serviceable or not?- AMEL
- BFCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP
- CFCOM-PRO-ABN
- DOM-B-2-Normal Procedures
82What is the difference between the engine and wing anti-ice fault lights?
- ABoth indicate valve in transit, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing
light also could indicate low pressure. - BBoth indicate low pressure, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing light might indicate valve in transit.
- CBoth indicate valve in transit, or low pressure. Wing light also could indicate valve
position disagrees with selected position. - DNone of the above.
- ABoth indicate valve in transit, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing
83What happens when either engine anti-ice is open?
- AMinimum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum idle RPM is increased.
- BMaximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, maximum idle RPM is increased.
- CMaximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum RPM is increased.
- DPneumatics blowing across all flight deck windows.
84On a CAT3A approach with DH = 57 ft, what minimum visual reference do you need to
continue landing at minima?- AOne light
- BThree consecutive lights
- CThree consecutive lights including a lateral element of the approach lighting system
- DAny light, which allows the identification of either the runway edge, the threshold, the
touchdown zone or the approach lights.
85What is the purpose of the continuous monitoring program?
- ATo meet the LVO training requirements of the crew.
- BTo follow the operational status of Wizz Air aircraft landing capability.
- CTo demonstrate that at least 95% of autolands comply with the requirements for successful automatic landings as prescribed by Hungarian CAA.
- DB and C are correct
86What does the phrase "stop-end RVR must be taken into account if relevant" means?
- AMeans that the RVR must be above the required landing minima
- BThe RVR for stop-end can be disregarded if high speed taxiway is available to vacate
the runway (with speeds up to 60 knots) - CMeans that RVR for this part must only be considered if the expected speed of the
aircraft is more than 60 knots on this section of the runway. - DMeans that we can disregard the RVR for this section unless there is a failure of an RVR
assessment system in the touchdown zone or the midpoint.
87On a Cat I approach, what is the minimum RVR required in the mid point and stop end (if relevant)?
- A250m (125m if REILS is available)
- B250m/125m
- C250m (125m if HIALS is available)
- D250 m (125m if RCLL available)
88The operator shall only conduct the following low visibility operations (LVO) when approved by the competent authority:
- ALVTO
- BLTS CAT1
- CCAT III
- Dall are correct
89Master Warning is triggered below 1000', what do you do:
- AGo Around
- BContinue to land
- CContinuation or Interruption of the approach and autoland remains crew decision
- DContinue only if you have visual references
90If the brake system automatically transitions to alternate brakes with the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, which of the following will be available?Continue only if you have visual references
- AAuto brakes and anti-skid.
- BOnly auto brakes.
- CAnti-skid.
- DBrakes, auto brakes, anti-skid.
91How can the brake accumulator be re-pressurized?
- AWith the yellow electric hydraulic pump.
- BWith the blue electric hydraulic pump.
- CA and B.
- DNone of the above.
92What is required to arm the auto brakes?
- AGreen hydraulic pressure available, anti-skid, no failures in the braking system.
- BLGCIU1 operative, yellow hydraulic system available, landing gear lowered.
- CBoth A and B are required.
- DNone of the above.
93Who is responsible for the issuance of a certificate of airworthiness?
- AEASA
- BThe authority of State of Registration
- CThe Operator
- DICAO
94Bernoulli’ s equation can be written as (pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q =
dynamic pressure):- Apt = ps - q
- Bpt = q - ps
- Cpt + ps = q
- Dpt - q = ps
95The purpose of a fusible plug is to:
- Aslowly allow the tyre to deflate due to excessive wheel speed.
- Bslowly reduce tyre pressure if the tyre pressure becomes excessive.
- Cslowly allow the tyre to deflate if the tyre pressure is excessive due to over-inflation.
- Dslowly allow the tyre to deflate due to excessive temperature at the tyre.
96The correct drag formula is:
- AD = CD 1/2 RHO V2 S
- BD = CD 1/2 1/RHO V2 S
- CD = CD 2 RHO V2 S
- DD = CD 1/2 RHO V S
97A wing has a span of 50 feet and an area of 200 square feet. Its mean chord would be:
- A10 feet
- B4 feet
- C40 feet
- D1000 feet
98Pitch angle is defined as:
- Athe angle between the lower wing surface and the relative airflow.
- Bthe angle between the chord line and the relative airflow.
- Cthe angle between the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the local horizon.
- Dthe angle between the chord line and the free stream flow velocity.
99Load factor is the actual lift supported by the wings at any given time:
- Adivided by the aircrafts empty weight
- Bdivided by the total weight of the aircraft.
- Csubtracted from the aircraft’ s total weight.
- Ddivided by the surface area of the wing.
100The validity of the long TAF report is:
- AAlways 16 hours.
- BAlways 9 hours.
- CThe start and finish times of the validity period is expressed in whole hours at the
beginning of the report. - DAlways 12 hours.
101When does the APU starter engage?
- AWhen the APU DOOR is fully open and the start switch is pressed on.
- BWhen the Oil Pressure reaches 7 p.s.i.
- CWhen the MASTER SW is pressed on.
- DWhen the START SW is pressed on.
102The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following
into account:
1. equipment available for navigation
2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the cabin crew
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:- A2, 3, 5.
- B2, 4, 5.
- C1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
- D1, 2, 4, 5.
103No alternate airport selected. What is required amount of the Final Reserve Fuel?
- AFuel to hold for 30 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA calculated with the estimated landing mass on arrival at the destination
- BFuel to hold for 45 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA calculated with
the estimated landing mass on arrival at the destination - CFuel to hold for 30 minutes at 5000 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA calculated with
the estimated landing mass on arrival at the destination - DFuel to hold for 45 minutes at 5000 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA calculated with
the estimated landing mass on arrival at the destinati
104In case the weather deterioration from conditions above to below minima at ETA ±1 hour
is given as a TEMPO variation, the aerodrome may be considered above minima for
flight planning purposes, but extra fuel (at least ..... hour extra holding fuel) is required to
be carried- A2
- B0,5
- C1
- D3
105An airport has non-standard approach patterns, unusual performance limitations, and
requires relevant considerations including obstructions. According to WIZZ OM this airport
belongs to …………- ACategory A
- BCategory B
- CCategory D
- DCategory C
106According to the Wizz Air OM, what is the lowest allowed friction coefficient for take-off and
landing?- A0.4
- B0.26
- C0.25
- D0.2
107The APU has been switched off, but it has not stopped . Why might this be?
- AThe APU Fuel Pump continuing to run.
- BThe Air Intake Flap failing to close.
- CA cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).
- DThe APU GEN is still supplying the electrical system.
108What are the correct actions if RMP 1 fails?
- ASwitch it off : use ACP 2
- BSwitch it off : use RMP 3 only.
- CSwitch it off : use RMP 3 or RMP 2.
- DUse the AUDIO SWITCHING switch (on the overhead panel)
109On the ACP, what does an amber light on a Transmission Key indicate?
- AFailure of the associated transmitter
- BFailure of the associated transmitter and receiver.
- CSELCAL operation only.
- DSELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin.
110Which colour code is correct for push button switches?
- AAMBER - immediate action : BLUE - temporary operation
- BGREEN - temporary operation : WHITE - abnormal position
- CWHITE - temporary operation : GREEN - normal operation
- DRED - immediate action : AMBER - abnormal operations
111What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law configuration?
- APitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°
- BPitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 10°, Roll : 67°
- CPitch + 25° (+ 20° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°
- DPitch ± 30°. Roll 45°
112What does a SPEED BRK memo indicate On the EWD?
- AIn green - normal operation. In amber, speedbrake auto-retraction.
- BIn amber - speedbrakes extended with more than 50% N1.
- CIn amber - partial or total speedbrake failure.
- DExtension of speedbrakes when in excess of Vᴍᴏ / Mᴍᴏ
113In normal law during flight, what does sidestick deflection demand?
- ALoad factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll.
- BLoad factor in pitch, proportional aileron and spoiler deflection in roll.
- CRate of pitch change, and 67° bank at full roll demand.
- DA pitch attitude, and a rate of roll up to 33° of bank.
114A-LOCK (alpha lock) appears below the Slat / Flap indicator on the E/WD. What causes this
and how do you recover?- AFlaps are locked in Config 1; reduce angle of attack to retract the flaps.
- BSlats and Flaps are locked in Config 1; recycle the flap lever to retract slats and flaps.
- CSlats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; recycle the flap lever to retract
the slats. - DSlats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle of attack to
retract the slats.
115Regarding the Sidestick Priority Lights on the Glareshield, which is true?
- AA red arrow will always be accompanied by a green light in front of the other pilot.
- BA red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light in front of the other pilot.
- CA red arrow and a green light may be illuminated together on the Captain's side of the
glareshield. - DA red arrow indicates an unwanted input on the associated sidestick.
116What does "F" speed represent at take-off on the IAS strip?
- AMinimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1.
- BMinimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP FULL to FLAP 3.
- CMinimum speed for present flap setting.
- DMinimum speed for selecting one more stage of flaps.
117What information is given at top right of the NAV Display in ARC mode?
- ARaw Data from a tuned VOR.
- BComputed data concerning the TO Waypoint.
- CFlight plan TRACK to the TO Waypoint.
- DTrack and Groundspeed.
118Which is true if both center tank pumps fail? (up to HA-LYE)
- AYou must descend to 15000' when gravity feeding becomes necessary.
- BThe SD shows amber XX replacing the CTR tank quantity indications.
- CThe SD shows amber = through the CTR tank quantity indications.
- DThe FOB (EWD) will show a half-box (amber).
119In case the gound spoilers are not armed, during an RTO (rejected take-off) with autobrake
MAX selected and armed, the brakes will be automatically applied if:- Areverse thrust is selected at any time the speed is above 72 kts,
- Bone of the thrust levers is returned to idle anytime the speed is above 72 kts.
- CVr is not reached after a predetermined distance.
- DV1 is not reached after a predetermined distance.
120What happens automatically when the aircraft is being refuelled?
- AThe transfer valves close.
- BThe Fuel Used (engine S.D.) goes to zero.
- CThe Cross-feed valve opens.
- DThe center tank pumps stop running.
121With fuel in the center tank, but both center tank pumps failed, what will be indicated on the EWD?
- AFOB quantity indicating amber.
- BFOB quantity indicating pulsing.
- CA full amber box round the FOB indication.
- DA half amber box round the FOB indication.
122The MAN V/S CTL switch is ...
- A...operative at all times, and it controls the outflow valve.
- B... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve.
- C... operative in the MAN pressurisation mofe: - hold up to OPEN the safety valve.
- D... inoperative if the DITCHING switch is ON.
123With the aircraft on the ground, which is true with regard to the gear lever?
- AIt can be moved, retraction is inhibited by shock absorber compression.
- BIt cannot be moved due to proximitiy detector signals with shock absorber compression.
- CIt can be selected up by operating the override trigger.
- DIt cannot be moved if the Green hydraulic system is pressurised.
124Regarding landing with Autobrake MED selected, which is true?
- ABraking starts 2 secs. after both mainwheel spin-up to 95% of the actual ground speed
transmitted from IRS1 or 3. - BBraking starts 2 secs. after spoiler deployment.
- CBraking starts 4 secs. after mainwheel spin-up.
- DDuring braking a specific pressure will be applied to the wheelbrakes.
- ABraking starts 2 secs. after both mainwheel spin-up to 95% of the actual ground speed
125Why may the IRS ALIGN lights flash during a pre-flight check?
- AThe IRS is using battery power.
- BLoss of all functions except ATT and HDG.
- CFailure to switch on the associated ADR
- DThe IRS is awaiting a position entry.
126What does the Captain's ND show when selected to ROSE ILS?
- AILS receiver No. 1 or No. 2 signals, as selected.
- BILS receiver No. 1 signals only.
- CILS receiver No. 2 signals only.
- DG/S receiver No. 2 signals and LOC receiver No.1 signals
127If GROUND H.P. AIR is connected, which of the following is true? (check)
- ADo not use the PACKS without at least one normal bleed source on (APU or ENG).
- BYou can only use HP AIR with the APU Bleed ON.
- CDo not use the PACKS or mix it with ENG. BLEED AIR.
- DThe GD. H.P. AIR can be used without restrictions.
128The Trim Air Valves:
- AAre electrically controlled by the zone controller.
- BAdjusts temperature by adding cold air.
- CMix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air.
- DRegulate pack flow depending on number of passengers.
129What will depressing the guarded MASK MAN ON pb accomplish?
- AA signal is sent to the chemical oxygen generators to start the flow of oxygen to the
masks - BIt manually sends a signal to open the oxygen mask doors.
- CBoth A and B are correct.
- DNone of the above.
- AA signal is sent to the chemical oxygen generators to start the flow of oxygen to the
130APU bleed air, when selected
- Ahas priority over engine bleed air.
- Bwill supply bleed air only if the ENG BLEED pb's are selected OFF.
- Cwill supply bleed air only if the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.
- Ddoes not have priority over engine bleed air.
131Bleed leak protection for the APU pneumatic duct is provided by:
- Adetection loops associated with BMC #1.
- Bdetection loops associated with BMC #2.
- Cthe APU BMC.
- DAll of the above.
132A 120 m long train is passing by a 240 m long building at 72 km/h. How many seconds would it
take for the whole train to clear the building?- A12
- B14
- C18
- D16
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- 1 GTE Quiz on GTE, created by Lukasz Pawlukiewicz on 01/06/2022.
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