ISTQB Foundation LVL E3

1. 1Which of the following is a typical test objective?
   a) Validating that documented requirements are met
   b) Causing failures and identifying defects
   c) Initiating errors and identifying root causes
   d) Verifying the test object meets user expectations
   Select ONE option.

   1. Aa
   2. Bb
   3. Cc
   4. Dd
2. 2Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?
   a) Testing causes failures while debugging fixes failures
   b) Testing is a negative activity while debugging is a positive activity
   c) Testing determines that defects exist while debugging removes defects
   d) Testing finds the cause of defects while debugging fixes the cause of defects
   Select ONE option.

   1. Aa
   2. Bb
   3. Cc
   4. Dd
3. 3The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ is one of the principles of testing. Which of the following is an
   example of addressing this principle in practice?
   a) Explaining that it is not possible for testing to show the absence of defects
   b) Supporting the end users to perform acceptance testing
   c) Ensuring that no implementation defects remain in the delivered system
   d) Modifying tests that cause no failures to ensure few defects remain
   Select ONE option.

   1. Aa
   2. Bb
   3. Cc
   4. Dd
4. 4Which of the following test activities are MOST likely to involve the application of boundary value
   analysis and equivalence partitioning?
   a) Test implementation
   b) Test design
   c) Test execution
   d) Test monitoring
   e) Test analysis
   Select TWO options.

   1. Aa
   2. Bb
   3. Cc
   4. Dd
   5. Ee
5. 5Given the following testware:
   1. Coverage items
   2. Change requests
   3. Test execution schedule
   4. Prioritized test conditions
   And the following test activities
   A. Test analysis
   B. Test design
   C. Test implementation
   D. Test completion
   Which of the following BEST shows the testware produced by the activities?
   a) 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
   b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
   c) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
   d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A
   Select ONE option

   1. Aa
   2. Bb
   3. Cc
   4. Dd
6. 6Which of the following statements about the different testing roles is MOST likely to be
   CORRECT?
   a) In Agile software development, the test management role is the primary responsibility of the
   team, while the testing role is primarily the responsibility of a single individual from outside
   the team
   b) The testing role is primarily responsible for test monitoring and test control, while the test
   management role is primarily responsible for test planning and test completion
   c) In Agile software development, test management activities that span multiple teams are
   handled by a test manager outside the team, while some test management tasks are
   handled by the team itself
   d) The test management role is primarily responsible for test analysis and test design, while
   the testing role is primarily responsible for test implementation and test execution
   Select ONE option

   1. Aa
   2. Bb
   3. Cc
   4. Dd
7. 7Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?
   a) Teams with no testers
   b) Improved team dynamics
   c) Specialist team members
   d) Larger team sizes
   Select ONE option.

   1. Aa
   2. Bb
   3. Cc
   4. Dd
8. 8Which of the following statements about the independence of testing is CORRECT?
   a) Independent testers will find defects due to their different technical perspective from
   developers, but their independence may lead to an adversarial relationship with the
   developers
   b) Developers’ familiarity with their own code means they only find a few defects in it, however
   their shared software background with testers means these defects would also be found by
   the testers
   c) Independent testing requires testers who are outside the developer’s team and ideally from
   outside the organization, however these testers find it difficult to understand the application
   domain
   d) Testers from outside the developer’s team are more independent than testers from within
   the team, but the testers from within the team are more likely to be blamed for delays in
   product release
   Select ONE option.

   1. Aa
   2. Bb
   3. Cc
   4. Dd
9. 9Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?
   a) For each test level, there is a corresponding development level
   b) For each test objective, there is a corresponding development objective
   c) For every test activity, there is a corresponding user activity
   d) For every development activity, there is a corresponding test activity
   Select ONE option.

   1. Aa
   2. Bb
   3. Cc
   4. Dd
10. 10Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?
    a) Component Test-Driven Development
    b) Integration Test-Driven Development
    c) System Test-Driven Development
    d) Acceptance Test-Driven Development
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd

11. 11Which of the following provides the BEST description of shift-left?
    a) When agreed by the developers, manual activities on the left-hand side of the test process
    are automated to support the principle of ‘early testing saves time and money’
    b) Where cost-effective, test activities are moved earlier in the software development lifecycle
    (SDLC) to reduce the total cost of quality by reducing the number of defects found later in
    the SDLC
    c) When they have spare time available, testers are required to automate tests for regression
    testing, starting with component tests and component integration tests
    d) When available, testers are trained to perform tasks early in the SDLC to allow more test
    activities to be automated later in the SDLC
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
12. 12Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of a retrospective?
    a) The quality of future test objects improves by identifying improvements in development
    practices
    b) Test efficiency improves by speeding up the configuration of test environments through
    automation
    c) End users’ understanding of the development and test processes is improved
    d) Automated test scripts are enhanced through feedback from developers
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
13. 13Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed if the testing is focused on
    validation and is not being performed by testers?
    a) Component testing
    b) Component integration testing
    c) System integration testing
    d) Acceptance testing
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
14. 14The navigation system software has been updated due to it suggesting routes that break traffic
    laws, such as driving the wrong way down one-way streets. Which of the following BEST describes
    the testing that will be performed?
    a) Only confirmation testing
    b) Confirmation testing then regression testing
    c) Only regression testing
    d) Regression testing then confirmation testing
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
15. 15Given the following example defects:
    i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the
    design
    ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience
    iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution
    iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program
    v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high
    Which of the following BEST identifies example defects that could be found by static testing (rather
    than dynamic testing)?
    a) ii, v
    b) iii, v
    c) i, ii, iv
    d) i, iii, iv
    Select ONE option

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
16. 16Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?
    a) Changes to requirements are understood and implemented earlier
    b) It ensures business stakeholders understand user requirements
    c) It allows product owners to change their requirements as often as they want
    d) End users are told which requirements will not be implemented prior to release
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
17. 17Given the following review types:
    1. Technical review
    2. Informal review
    3. Inspection
    4. Walkthrough
    And the following descriptions:
    A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and
    motivating authors to improve
    B. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating
    new ideas and detecting potential defects
    C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to
    support process improvement
    D. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal
    documented output
    Which of the following BEST matches the review types and the descriptions?
    a) 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
    b) 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B
    c) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
    d) 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
18. 18Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?
    a) Ensure management participate as reviewers
    b) Split large work products into smaller parts
    c) Set reviewer evaluation as an objective
    d) Plan to cover one document per review
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
19. 19What is the MAIN difference between black-box test techniques and experience-based test
    techniques?
    a) The test object
    b) The test level at which the test technique is used
    c) The test basis
    d) The software development lifecycle (SDLC) in which the test technique can be used
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
20. 20You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a
    sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, which are not all the same digit. You
    have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:
    Variable: PIN code length
    • The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
    • The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4
    Variable: Number of different digits
    • The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
    • The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same
    Which of the following is the BEST set of input test data to cover the identified equivalence
    partitions?
    a) 12, 1111, 1234, 12345
    b) 1, 123, 1111, 1234
    c) 11, 12, 1111, 12345
    d) 123, 1222, 12345
    Select ONE option

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
21. 21A developer was asked to implement the following business rule:
    INPUT: value (integer number)
    IF (value ≤ 100 OR value ≥ 200) THEN write “value incorrect”
    ELSE write “value OK”
    You design the test cases using 2-value boundary value analysis.
    Which of the following sets of test inputs achieves the greatest coverage?
    a) 100, 150, 200, 201
    b) 99, 100, 200, 201
    c) 98, 99, 100, 101
    d) 101, 150, 199, 200
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
22. 22You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been
    asked to design test cases based on the following decision table.
    R1 R2 R3
    C1: First attempt at the exam? - - F
    C2: Theoretical exam passed? T F -
    C3: Practical exam passed? T - F
    Issue a driving license? X
    Request additional driving lessons? X
    Request to take the exam again? X
    What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?
    a) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = F
    b) C1 = T, C2 = F, C3 = T
    c) C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = T and C1 = F, C2 = T, C3 = T
    d) C1 = F, C2 = F, C3 = F
    Select ONE option.

    

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
23. 23You are designing test cases based on the following state transition diagram:
    What is the MINIMUM number of test cases required to achieve 100% valid transitions coverage?
    a) 3
    b) 2
    c) 5
    d) 6
    Select ONE option.

    

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
24. 24You want to apply branch testing to the code represented by the following control flow graph.
    How many coverage items do you need to test?
    a) 2
    b) 4
    c) 8
    d) 7
    Select ONE option

    

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
25. 25How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?
    a) White-box coverage measures can help testers evaluate black-box tests in terms of the
    code coverage achieved by these black-box tests
    b) White-box coverage analysis can help testers identify unreachable fragments of the source
    code
    c) Branch testing subsumes black-box test techniques, so achieving full branch coverage
    guarantees achieving full coverage of any black-box technique
    d) White-box test techniques can provide coverage items for black-box techniques
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
26. 26Consider the following list:
    • Correct input not accepted
    • Incorrect input accepted
    • Wrong output format
    • Division by zero
    What test technique is MOST PROBABLY used by the tester who uses this list when performing
    testing?
    a) Exploratory testing
    b) Fault attack
    c) Checklist-based testing
    d) Boundary value analysis
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
27. 27Which of the following BEST describes how using checklist-based testing can result in increased
    coverage?
    a) Checklist items can be defined at a sufficiently low level of detail, so the tester can
    implement and execute detailed test cases based on these items
    b) Checklists can be automated, so each time an automated test execution covers the
    checklist items, it results in additional coverage
    c) Each checklist item should be tested separately and independently, so the elements cover
    different areas of the software
    d) Two testers designing and executing tests based on the same high-level checklist items will
    typically perform the testing in slightly different ways
    Select ONE option

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
28. 28Which of the following provides the BEST example of a scenario-oriented acceptance criterion?
    a) The application must allow users to delete their account and all associated data upon
    request
    b) When a customer adds an item to their cart and proceeds to checkout, they should be
    prompted to log in or create an account if they haven’t already done so
    c) IF (contain(product(23).Name, cart.products())) THEN return FALSE
    d) The website must comply with the ICT Accessibility 508 Standards and ensure that all
    content is accessible to users with disabilities
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
29. 29You are using acceptance test-driven development and designing test cases based on the
    following user story:
    As a Regular or Special user, I want to be able to use my electronic floor card, to access specific
    floors.
    Acceptance Criteria:
    AC1: Regular users have access to floors 1 to 3
    AC2: Floor 4 is only accessible to Special users
    AC3: Special users have all the access rights of Regular users
    Which test case is the MOST reasonable one to test AC3?
    a) Check that a Regular user can access floors 1 and 3
    b) Check that a Regular user cannot access floor 4
    c) Check that a Special user can access floor 5
    d) Check that a Special user can access floors 1, 2 and 3
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
30. 30Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a test plan?
    a) To define test data and expected results for component tests and component integration
    tests
    b) To define as exit criteria from the component test level that “100% statement coverage and
    100% branch coverage must be achieved”
    c) To describe what fields the test progress report shall contain and what should be the form
    of this report
    d) To explain why system integration testing will be excluded from testing, although the test
    strategy requires this test level
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
31. 31At the beginning of each iteration, the team estimates the amount of work (in person-days) they will
    need to complete during the iteration. Let E(n) be the estimated amount of work for iteration n, and
    let A(n) be the actual amount of work done in iteration n. From the third iteration, the team uses the
    following estimation model based on extrapolation:
    𝐸(𝑛) =
    3 ∗ 𝐴(𝑛 − 1) + 𝐴(𝑛 − 2)
    4
    The graph shows the estimated and actual amount of work for the first four iterations.
    What is the estimated amount of work for iteration #5?
    a) 10.5 person-days
    b) 8.25 person-days
    c) 6.5 person-days
    d) 9.4 person-days
    Select ONE option.

    

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
32. 32You are preparing a test execution schedule for executing seven test cases TC 1 to TC 7.
    The following figure includes the priorities of these test cases (1=highest priority, 3 = lowest
    priority).
    The figure also shows the dependencies between test cases using arrows. For instance, the arrow
    from TC 4 to TC 5 means that TC 5 can only be executed if TC 4 was previously executed.
    Which test case should be executed sixth?
    a) TC 3
    b) TC 5
    c) TC 6
    d) TC 2
    Select ONE option

    

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
33. 33What does the test pyramid model show?
    a) That tests may have different priorities
    b) That tests may have different granularity
    c) That tests may require different coverage criteria
    d) That tests may depend on other tests
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
34. 34What is the relationship between the testing quadrants, test levels and test types?
    a) Testing quadrants represent particular combinations of test levels and test types, defining
    their location in the software development lifecycle
    b) Testing quadrants describe the degree of granularity of individual test types performed at
    each test level
    c) Testing quadrants assign the test types that can be performed to the test levels
    d) Testing quadrants group test levels and test types by several criteria such as targeting
    specific stakeholders
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
35. 35Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis may influence the thoroughness
    and scope of testing?
    a) Continuous risk monitoring allows us to identify an emerging risk as soon as possible
    b) Risk identification allows us to implement risk mitigation activities and reduce the risk level
    c) The assessed risk level helps us to select the rigor of testing
    d) Risk analysis allows us to derive coverage items
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
36. 36Which of the following activities in the test process makes the MOST use of test progress reports?
    a) Test design
    b) Test completion
    c) Test analysis
    d) Test planning
    Select ONE option

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
37. 37Which of the following is NOT an example of how configuration management supports testing?
    a) All commits to the repository are uniquely identified and version controlled
    b) All changes in the test environment elements are tracked
    c) All requirement specifications are referenced unambiguously in test plans
    d) All identified defects have an assigned status
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
38. 38Consider the following defect report for a web-based shopping application:
    Application: WebShop v0.99
    Defect: Login button not working
    Steps to Reproduce:
    Launch the website
    Click on the login button
    Expected result: The user should be redirected to the login page.
    Actual result: The login button does not respond when clicked.
    Severity: High
    Priority: Urgent
    What is the MOST important information that is missing from this defect report?
    a) Name of the tester and date
    b) Test environment elements and their version numbers
    c) Identification of the test object
    d) Impact on the interests of stakeholders
    Select ONE option

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
39. 39Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected
    defects and configuration management?
    a) Test execution and coverage tools
    b) Test design and implementation tools
    c) Defect management tools
    d) Test management tools
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd
40. 40Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?
    a) The capability of generating test cases without access to the test basis
    b) The achievement of increased coverage through more objective assessment
    c) The increase in test execution times available with higher processing power
    d) The prevention of human errors through greater consistency and repeatability
    Select ONE option.

    1. Aa
    2. Bb
    3. Cc
    4. Dd

Description

Quiz on ISTQB Foundation LVL E3, created by Vasile Bordei on 06/08/2025.

Author

Vasile Bordei

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