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Questions in this quiz (116)
1CS Name the treatment for primary teeth with pathological resorption of the roots exceeding 1/4 to 1/3:
- Atooth extraction, following radiographic examination
- Bimmobilization with orthodontic appliances
- Cendodontic treatment
- Ddental treatment without root canal obturation, vital amputation
- Eleft untreated for dynamic monitoring
2CS Select the treatment method for a superinfected radicular cyst originating from a deciduous tooth:
- Aconservative treatment with antibiotics
- Bendodontic treatment of the tooth to maintain space on the dental arch
- Csurgical through detachment of the periosteum
- Dextraction of the causative tooth
- Etransodontal drainage of the causative tooth followed by treatment of this tooth
3CS Indicate the treatment approach in cases of acute odontogenic periostitis originating from a deciduous tooth:
- Aconservative treatment with antibiotics
- Bendodontic treatment of the causative tooth
- Cextraction of the causative tooth
- Dtransodontal drainage to preserve the causative tooth
- Esurgical opening of the subperiosteal abscess
4CS Name the treatment approach in cases of acute purulent odontogenic periostitis originating from teeth 74, 75, 84, or 85:
- Amandatory tooth extraction followed by periosteotomy
- Bantibacterial therapy
- Ctransodontal drainage and periostotomy at the level of the causative tooth
- Duntil the age of 3 years, teeth will be treated conservatively
- Eopening of the subperiosteal abscess
5CS Indicate the child’s age when the height of the alveolar process exceeds that of the mandibular body:
- Apreschool age
- Bearly preschool age
- Cinfancy
- Dearly school age
- Emiddle school age
6CS Mark the age range during which the mandibular foramen projects 5 mm below the alveolar process:
- A9 months–1.5 years
- B3.5–4 years
- C6–9 years
- D12–14 years
- E14–16 years
7CS State the age of the child at which the mandibular foramen is located 6 mm above the occlusal surfaces of the molars:
- A9 months–1.5 years
- B1–3 years
- C3.5–4 years
- D12 years
- E9 years
8CS Specify during which period of the child’s life the sympathetic nervous system predominates over the parasympathetic nervous system:
- Aup to 3 years
- Bup to 5 years
- Cfrom 3 to 7 years
- Dfrom 7 to 12 years
- Eup to 12 years
9CS Specify which condition is characterized by acute, short-term cerebral vascular insufficiency:
- Alipothymia (syncope)
- Bhyperthermic syndrome
- Canaphylactic shock
- Dcollapse
- Edrug intoxication
10CS Indicate which of the following conditions causes the symptom of bronchospasm:
- Atoxic shock
- Blipothymia (syncope)
- Ccardiovascular collapse
- Danaphylactic shock
- Ehypothermic syndrome
11CS Name the conditions that require urgent treatment with antihistamines:
- Aanaphylactic shock
- Btoxic shock
- Ccollapse
- Dsyncope
- Ecardio-pulmonary insufficiency
12CS Specify in which situations toxic shock may occur:
- Aallergic reactions of the body
- Bnegative emotions
- Cacute dental pain
- Dexcessive administration of the anesthetic
- Eyoung age of the child
13CS Specify the anatomical distance from the alveolar crest to the mandibular foramen for a 5- to 6-year-old:
- A9 mm
- B10 mm
- C7mm
- D12 mm
- E13 mm
14CS Name the clinical situation in which “La Gvardia” type mandibular anesthesia is indicated in children:
- Acongenital defects
- Bacute infectious conditions
- Cstates of restlessness and anxiety
- DDown syndrome
- Ecerebral palsy
15CS Specify the age period when the mandibular ramus will be twice as narrow in children compared to adults:
- A3–4 years
- B5–6 years
- C6–8 years
- D8–10 years
- E10–16 years
16CS Indicate the age range of the child; in the lymphatic system, it performs the function of b:
- A1–3 years
- B4–6 years
- C7–8 years
- D9–10 years
- E10–12 years
17CS Name the anesthetic that produces vaporization of the liquid, drawing the necessary heat from the tissue to produce cooling:
- Atopical anesthesia
- Brefrigeration anesthesia
- Cinfiltration anesthesia
- Dblock anesthesia
- Eplexus anesthesia
18CS Name the local clinical signs that characterize the subperiosteal abscess originating from the upper central incisors:
- Aswelling of the lower eyelid
- Bswelling of the chin region
- Cmarked swelling of the entire upper lip in the form of a tapir lip
- Dmarked swelling of the chin that significantly deforms the child's face
- Eswelling of the cheek extending toward the submandibular region
19CS Identify the group of teeth that will determine the clinical presentation of a painful swelling of the cheek that extends slightly toward the submandibular region:
- Aupper premolars and molars
- Blower incisors and canines
- Clower premolars and molars
- Dupper central incisors
- Eupper canines
20CS Choose which of the following situations corresponds to the definition of an odontogenic subperiosteal abscess:
- Ainflammation of the periosteum of the maxillae caused by dental or periodontal infections
- Ban infectious process characterized by the presence of purulent collections and a tendency toward septic invasion with marked tissue lysis and necrosis
- Ca secondary bone destruction process resulting from local-regional trophic disorders caused by physical, chemical, or thermal agents
- Da circumscribed lesion containing viscous fluid, located subperiosteally
- EIt is an osteoperiostitis with diffuse thickening of the maxillae
21CS Indicate in which form of maxillary osteomyelitis small sequestra will be detected with sizes not exceeding 0.5–1 mm, 1–1 mm:
- Aproductive
- Bdestructive-productive
- Cdestructive
- Dacute odontogenic
- Ehematogenous
22CS Indicate which of the following can be complications of acute odontogenic osteomyelitis in children:
- Aphlegmon of deep spaces
- Bphlegmon of superficial spaces
- Cmediastinitis
- Dacute adenitis
- Eperiadentitis
23CS Name the clinical manifestations of respiratory-type anaphylactic shock:
- Ahives
- Bdysphagia
- Cheadache
- Dangioedema
- Ebronchospasm
24CS Specify the laboratory values corresponding to an acute purulent odontogenic osteomyelitic process:
- AESR – 7–10 mm, white blood cells 6.7–10 9/L
- BESR – 40 mm, white blood cells 20–30 × 10⁹/L
- CESR – 15 mm, white blood cells 11–10 9/L
- Dlymphopenia
- Egrade II anemia
25CS Specify the anatomical location of the infectious process in acute periostitis during the stage of serous infiltration:
- Aon one side of the alveolar process at the level of the causative tooth
- Bat the root apex of the causative tooth
- Con the vestibular and lingual semicircles of the alveolar process
- Dmandibular bone marrow
- Ethe soft tissues adjacent to the focus
26CS Define hyperostotic osteomyelitis:
- Aa destructive-regenerative infectious process affecting bone tissue
- Bpainful infectious infiltrate with osteoperiosteal thickening
- Cinfectious process of the periosteum
- Dnecrotic-purulent process of the bone marrow
- Ediffuse peripheral cortico-periosteal thickening
27CS Indicate the elective regions of the mandible in cases of infections spreading via the hematogenous route:
- Amental region
- Btuberosity at the angle of the mandible
- Calveolar process
- Dcondylar process
- Ecoronal process
28CS Indicate the correct treatment approach in case of root fracture occurring during extraction of primary molars:
- Adeep curettage
- Bremoval of the root remnant
- Cthe apex will be left in the alveolus, which will be expelled along with the eruption of permanent teeth
- Dremoval of the dental bud along with the fractured apex
- Eantibiotic therapy
29CS Specify the child’s age when they may be affected by chronic productive osteomyelitis:
- A3–5 years
- B5–7 years
- C7–12 years
- D9–12 years
- E12–16 years
30CS Identify the main characteristics of chronic destructive osteomyelitis on the radiographic image:
- Aequal alternation of condensed and radiotransparent areas
- Ba zone of condensed bone surrounded by a radiotransparent zone
- Cmarble bone alternating with large condensed zones and small radiotransparent zones
- Ddiscrete transparency with widening of the trabecular spaces
- Eextensive periosteal deposits
31CS Specify in which form of root resorption of primary teeth there is a risk of root fracture during tooth extraction:
- Apathological
- Bvertical
- Chorizontal
- Ddelayed
- Eequivalent
32CS Indicate the general background of the child in hematogenous osteomyelitis:
- Afrequent acute respiratory viral infections
- Bimmune system disorders
- Crepeated allergic reactions
- Dhereditary disorders
- Esepsis (septicemic form)
33CS Mark: For which forms of osteomyelitis is the formation of fistulas in the nasal cavity, anterior and lateral angle of the eye, and hard palate characteristic:
- Aacute odontogenic
- Bchronic mandibular hyperplastic
- Cchronic destructive
- Dhematogenous of the maxilla
- Ehematogenous mandibular
34CS Indicate the site of the infectious process in mandibular hematogenous osteomyelitis in children:
- Achin
- Bbasilar margin
- Cmandibular ramus
- Darticular process
- Ecoronal process
35CS Identify the microbial flora that triggers hematogenous osteomyelitis:
- AE. coli, Vellonella
- Bcorynebacteria
- Cfusobacteria
- Dlactobacilli
- Ewhite and golden Staphylococcus
36CS Specify the age range of the child when lymph node infections occur most frequently:
- A1–2 years
- B3–5 years
- C6–9 years
- D10–12 years
- E12–16 years
37CS Indicate the age periods during which the formation and development of lymph nodes occurs:
- Ain newborns
- Bthe first month of life
- Cthe first year of life
- Dthe first 3 years of a child’s life
- Eadolescence
38CM Indicate the stage of development of the infectious process in the lymph node that is reversible:
- Achronic adenitis
- Badenophlegmon
- Cparadenitis
- Dpurulent adenitis
- Elymphadenitis in the serous stage
39CS Indicate in which form of adenitis surgical drainage of the focus is indicated:
- Aacute in the serous stage
- Bacute purulent
- Cchronic hyperplastic
- Dparadenitis
- Ebenign inoculation lymphoreticulosis (Debre)
40CS Identify the local clinical signs characteristic of acute intraparotid adenitis and distinguish it from acute parenchymal parotitis:
- Apainful swelling in the parotid region
- Btrismus
- Cspontaneous and pressure-induced pain
- Dabsence of changes in salivary secretion
- Efluctuation
41CS Specify what is included in the local treatment of exacerbated chronic parotitis in children:
- Ahigh-dose vitamin therapy
- Bantibiotic treatment
- Cgland instillation with enzymes
- Doral cavity sanitation
- Eintracanalicular administration of iodolipol
42CS Indicate the treatment approach for pre-deciduous (natal) teeth:
- Atheir immobilization with splints
- Borthodontic appliances for protection
- Ctheir removal
- Dendodontic treatment and their immobilization
- Edynamic monitoring
43CS List the complications caused by deciduous teeth:
- Agingivitis
- Bmarked tooth mobility
- Ctraumatic erosion
- Dtooth resorption
- Eerosions on the mother's breast
44CS Select the correct term for the pre-deciduous teeth:
- Aectopic
- Bsupernumerary
- Cretained
- Dnewborn
- Eintruded
45CS Indicate the anatomical structure that borders the pterygo-mandibular space laterally:
- Athe inner surface of the mandibular ramus
- Bthe genioglossus muscle
- Cthe hyoglossal muscle
- DWarthon’s canal
- Elateral pterygoid muscle
46CS Indicate in which anatomical space suppuration will cause signs of impossible mastication, and extremely difficult swallowing and phonation:
- Alateropharyngeal
- Bpterygomandibular
- Cinfratemporal
- Dsublingual
- Etongue abscess
47CS Indicate the anatomical layer affected by relapsing chronic parotitis:
- Aintracellular
- Bsalivary gland parenchyma
- CStenon duct
- Dintraparotid lymph node
- EWharton's duct
48CS Name the etiopathogenic factors in triggering acute epidemic parotitis (mumps):
- Apoor oral hygiene
- Bforeign body in the Stenon duct
- Cmicrobial infection
- Dviral infection
- Ecachectic states
49CS Describe the basic investigation for establishing the diagnosis of a greenwood mandibular fracture:
- Ainspection
- Bpalpation
- CX-ray
- Dclinical examination of the temporomandibular joint
- Eocclusion examination
50CS Specify in which cases of mandibular fractures the integrity of the periosteum is preserved:
- A"green wood" type
- Bsubperiosteal
- Cchin
- Dobstetric trauma
- Eperiosteal contusions
51CS Mark the anatomical areas where “greenstick” fractures occur:
- Aangle of the mandible
- Bchin
- Cbody of the mandible
- Dcoronal process
- Emandibular ramus
52CS Indicate the traumatic soft tissue injury that corresponds to the clinical signs—edema, diffuse swelling, ecchymoses, hematomas:
- Aincision wounds
- Bpenetrating wounds
- Cabrasions
- Dcontusions
- Econtusion-crush wounds
53CS Specify the time elapsed from the accident site to medical care corresponding to delayed primary suturing in children:
- Aup to 6 hours
- Bup to 24 hours
- Cup to 72 hours
- Dafter 10–12 days
- Eafter 20 days
54CS Indicate the time period corresponding to the primary surgical management of maxillofacial traumatic injuries in children:
- A12–24 hours
- B24–28 hours
- Cafter 28 hours
- D10–12 days
- Eafter 20 days
55CS Indicate in which situations salivary colic occurs during meals:
- Aacute epidemic parotitis
- Bexacerbated recurrent parotitis
- Csialolithiasis
- Dchronic recurrent parotitis
- Eallergic sialadenitis
56CS Indicate the most commonly used method of anesthesia in outpatient clinics:
- Ageneral anesthesia
- Blocal anesthesia
- Cregional anesthesia
- Dloco-regional anesthesia
- Eintrapulpal anesthesia
57CS Indicate what preanesthesia entails:
- Athe totality of measures for the patient’s psychological, physical, and pharmacological preparation for anesthesia
- Breduction of central nervous system excitability
- Coral cavity sanitation
- Da comprehensive examination of the patient
- Erecording of personal identification information
58CS Check the box indicating when premedication is administered on an outpatient basis:
- A30–45 minutes before surgery
- B2 hours before surgery
- C6–8 hours before surgery
- D3 hours before surgery
- Eduring surgery
59CS Select the method of premedication for outpatients:
- Amild
- Bstrong
- Cmoderate
- Dlong-acting
- Ewith deep sedation
60CS Specify what is used to achieve mild (light) premedication in an outpatient setting:
- Aminor non-hypnotic tranquilizers (diazepam)
- Banticholinergics (atropine)
- Canalgesics (dipidolor, fentanyl)
- Dantihistamines (dimedrol, suprastin, etc.)
- Esome of these, on a case-by-case basis
61CS Select the most commonly used anesthetic agent in local injection anesthesia:
- Acocaine
- Bdicaine
- Cnovocaine
- Dadrenaline
- Elidocaine
62CS Select the best and most potent anesthetic for pediatric dental practice:
- Anovocaine
- Blidocaine
- Cmepivacaine
- Dultracaine
- Ecocaine
63CS Identify which of the following statements are true regarding xylocaine and procaine (novocaine):
- AXylocaine has an anesthetic effect twice as strong as procaine
- Bprocaine is more toxic than xylocaine
- CProcaine causes vasoconstriction, while xylocaine causes vasodilation
- Dneither causes allergic reactions
- EBoth are degraded by boiling
64CS Select which of the following substances are more commonly used as local anesthetics in children:
- Acocaine
- Blidocaine (spray) 10%
- Cmepivacaine
- Dprilocaine 0.5%
- Eepinephrine
65CS Specify which method is most commonly used for anesthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve:
- Aorally at the Spix spine, apodactyl
- Borally at Spina Spix via palpation
- Csubmandibular cutaneous
- Dretromandibular subcutaneous
- Esuperior (subzygomatic) subcutaneous
66CS List the most commonly used intravenous and intramuscular anesthetics in pediatric dentistry:
- Anon-barbiturate anesthetics (ketamine, ketalar, calipsol)
- Bhalothane
- Cmethoxyflurane
- Dcyclopropane
- Epentothal
67CS Indicate the child’s age when the height of the alveolar process exceeds that of the mandibular body:
- Apreschool age
- Bearly preschool age
- Cinfancy
- Dearly school age
- Emiddle school age
68CS Name the anesthetic that causes the liquid to vaporize, drawing the necessary heat from the tissue and producing cooling:
- Atopical anesthesia
- Brefrigeration anesthesia
- Cinfiltration anesthesia
- Dblock anesthesia
- Eplexus anesthesia
69CS Name the clinical manifestations of respiratory-type anaphylactic shock:
- Aurticaria
- Bdysphagia
- Cheadache
- Dangioedema
- Ebronchospasm
70CS Name the cases in which extraction during an acute inflammatory process may be performed:
- Aacute leukemia
- Bchronic rheumatic fever to prevent its worsening
- Cacute upper respiratory tract infections
- Dacute parenchymal organ disorders
- Eextraction is not permitted in patients with a fever
71CS Specify in which of the following systemic conditions is tooth extraction contraindicated:
- Aischemic heart disease
- Bchronic progressive hepatitis
- Cacute leukemia
- Dhemophilia A
- Ein all of these conditions
72CS Name the local treatment that can be performed to prevent post-extraction bleeding when the gingival mucosa is damaged:
- Awound suturing
- Bavoidance of alveolar curettage
- Capplication of iodoform to the alveolar wound
- Dapplication of a swab with aminocaproic acid to the alveolar wound
- Eno local treatment is applied
73CS Select the main instruments for tooth extraction:
- Aforceps
- Belevators
- Cdental forceps
- Ddental drill
- Esindesmotome
74CS Note the purpose of tooth luxation:
- Ato rupture the alveolodental ligaments and mobilize the tooth
- Bto secure the forceps more firmly on the tooth
- Cto extract the tooth
- Dto remove periapical pathological tissue
- Eto make room for inserting the elevator
75CS Indicate the early signs of luxation of the upper second molar in children:
- Arotational
- Btilting (vestibulo-oral)
- Cvertical (upward, downward)
- Dtraction
- Eall together
76CS Explain why the following is necessary for a successful tooth extraction:
- Aenlarging the alveolus to allow the tooth to be removed
- Bthe tooth crown must be intact or partially destroyed
- Cthe roots must have a sufficiently large extra-alveolar portion
- Dthe roots must not have any abnormalities in shape or orientation
- Ethere must be no periapical pathological processes
77CS Indicate in which cases special forceps are required for tooth extraction in young people:
- Aextraction of incisors
- Bextraction of canines
- Cextraction of premolars
- Dextraction of molars
- Ewisdom tooth extraction
78CS In which cases are rotational movements permitted during the extraction of primary teeth:
- Amolars
- Bsingle-rooted molars with straight roots
- Conly in the maxillary anterior teeth
- Donly in the lower maxillary incisors
- Ecanines
79CS Select the most common general complications in children during tooth extraction:
- Alipotemia
- Bsyncope
- Ctraumatic shock
- Dconvulsions
- Etachycardia
80CS Select the most common intraoperative complications during tooth extraction:
- Adental accidents (fractures, dislocations, damage to the tooth buds)
- Bsoft tissue injuries
- Cmandibular dislocation
- Ddislocation of adjacent teeth
- Etooth penetration into the airway
81CS Select the nerves where nerve damage occurs most frequently:
- Ainferior alveolar nerve
- Bnasopalatine nerve
- Cmentonary nerve
- Dlingual nerve
- Ebuccal nerve
82CS Define what post-extraction alveolitis is:
- Aa septic complication of the alveolar wound involving the walls of the alveolus
- Ba localized osteitis, in which the inflammatory process is associated with superficial necrosis of the bony walls
- Calveolar necrosis
- Do suppuration of the alveolus
- Eo a complication involving the alveolus, bone, and gingival mucosa
83CS List the complications caused by deciduous teeth:
- Agingivitis
- Bmarked tooth mobility
- Ctraumatic erosion
- Dtooth aspiration
- Eerosions on the mother's breast
84CS. Indicate which stage of intrauterine development refers to the development and formation of the face:
- AEmbryonic
- BFetal period
- COvulation period,
- DMorula stage
- EPre-embryonic period
85CS. Indicate the anatomical location of Serra-type cysts in children:
- AAlveolar process
- BLower lip mucosa
- CMucosa of the upper lip
- DDorsal surface of the tongue
- EMucosa of the hard palate.
86CS Indicate which of the listed answers may be the causes of a dermoid cyst:
- Afollowing an infection
- Bdue to proliferation
- Cunknown causes
- Dmedical radiation.
- Econgenital;
87CS. Indicate the necessary treatment for lateral cervical cysts:
- Acurettage;
- Belectrocautery
- Ccauterization with trichloroacetic acid
- D30% silver nitrate cauterization
- Eexcision.
88CS. Predict which of the following statements about the median cervical fistula are true:
- AThe occasional presence of an intrahyoid tumor diverticulum
- BIt originates from an endodermal fold of the second branchial cleft
- CMicroscopically, the wall consists of a stratified epithelium, comprising a thick layer and a Malpighian layer, with sebaceous and sweat glands present in the dermis
- DIt appears to be spontaneous, or following incomplete removal of a cyst
- EIt highlights the path through the hyoid bone and the foramen cecum
89CS. Indicate which of the following conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis of a dermoid cyst located in the floor of the mouth:
- ARanula
- BBranchial cyst
- CChronic adenitis
- DMedial mandibular cyst
- ELymphangioma
90CS. Indicate from which tissue of the jaws Ewing's sarcoma originates:
- AOsteogenic tissue
- BConnective tissue
- CBone marrow
- DFrom the periosteum
- ECartilage
91 CS. Indicate which of the sarcomas listed below is characterized by slow progression:
- AEwing sarcoma
- BFibrosarcoma
- COsteosarcoma
- DMaxillary sarcoma
- EReticulosarcoma
92 CS. Indicate which of the lymphoblastomas with manifestations in the head and neck region are frequently present in children:
- ALymphogranulomatosis
- BLeukemia
- CHemangiosarcoma
- DMononucleosis
- ELymphosarcoma
93 CS. Indicate which diseases of the oromaxillofacial region in children should be included in the differential diagnosis:
- AAcute odontogenic osteomyelitis
- BAcute purulent periostitis
- CSpecific paranasal lymphadenitis
- DAdenophlegmon
- EAcute viral stomatitis
94 CS. Indicate which clinical manifestations distinguish Hodgkin’s lymphoma from tuberculous lymphadenitis in children:
- APositive tuberculin test
- BPresence of the causative agent
- CInvolvement of regional lymph nodes near the site of infection
- DTufted lip
- EInoculation erosions of the skin
95 CS. Indicate which of the clinical signs listed in this test also correspond to malignant tumors and odontogenic infections:
- APain
- BHemorrhagic syndrome
- CGranulocytopenia
- DThrombocytopenia
- EWeight loss
96 Specify which of the tumors listed in this test are considered malignant and affect the jaws:
- AOsteosarcoma
- BLymphogranulomatosis
- CLymphosarcoma
- DLeukemia
- EMononucleosis
97Indicate which radiographic finding is characteristic of Ewing's sarcoma:
- AComb-shaped bone
- BOnion-skin pattern
- CSpicule pattern
- DMouse-eaten bone
- EHoneycomb
98CS. Name the authors who classify cleft lip and palate into two genetic groups:
- AGuțan
- BVeau
- CVilar Sancho
- DSchuchardt
- EHarkins
99CS. Describe how malignant tumors develop in children:
- Aa. aggressive growth with invasion of adjacent areas
- Bb. slow growth, with minor functional disturbances
- Cc. very aggressive growth, as in benign tumors
- Dd. growth in tandem with the child’s developmental stages
- Ee. long-term, asymptomatic growth
100CS. Indicate the general characteristics of osteosarcoma in children:
- Aa. aggressive tumor, rapid growth, bone deformities, spontaneous pain
- Bb. non-aggressive tumor, rapid growth, no significant bone deformities, rare pain
- Cc. passive tumor, slow growth, with bone deformities, no pain
- Dd. benign tumor affecting the periodontium without bone deformities
- Ee. Aggressive tumor, periodic growth, no bone deformities, intense pain
101CS. Indicate the characteristics of reticulosarcoma in children:
- Aa. it is very common with rapid growth, fever, deformities, hyperemia, edema, and elevated ESR
- Bb. It is very rarely associated with relatively slow growth, fever, deformities, edema, and high ESR
- Cc. originates in the differentiated elements of the retina
- Dd. radiologically presents with osteoproliferative lesions and thickening of the periosteum
- Ee. Teeth in the affected area are ankylosed and lack mobility
102CS. Indicate which type of bone grafting is indicated after resection of a bone segment with a malignant tumor:
- Aa. primary bone grafting
- Bb. secondary bone grafting
- Cc. repeat bone grafting
- Dd. xenogeneic bone graft
- Ee. allogeneic bone graft
103CS. Indicate the clinical signs of central sarcomas:
- Aa. with periosteal onset
- Bb. with endosteal onset
- Cc. lymphatic origin
- Dd. hematogenous onset
- Ee. with neurological onset
104CS. Which disease is Ewing sarcoma in the OMF region most commonly confused with in children:
- Aa. acute osteomyelitis
- Bb. traumatic periostitis
- Cc. sialadenitis
- Dd. lymphadenitis
- Ee. odontogenic periostitis
105CS. Indicate the clinical signs characteristic of Ewing’s sarcoma as opposed to other tumors:
- Aa. “hedgehog”-shaped radiographic appearance
- Bb. tooth mobility
- Cc. regional metastases
- Dd. radiographic appearance with increased opacity
- Ee. hemorrhagic syndrome
106CS. Indicate which of the following lesions, from a morphopathological perspective, exhibits a connective tissue stroma with numerous multinucleated cells:
- Atopical/application. Myeloplasia tumor
- Bb. Adamantinoma
- Cc. Granulomatous epulis
- Dd. Squamous cell carcinoma
- Ee. Osteogenic epulis
107CS. List the symptoms that point to a diagnosis of a median cervical cyst:
- Atopical/application. Enlargement during exertion
- Bb. Enlargement during eating
- Cc. Volume reduction upon pressure
- Dd. Displacement during swallowing along with the hyoid bone
- Ee. Adhesion to the chin
108CS. Indicate which are the most common congenital facial malformations in Pediatric Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery:
- ACongenital malformations of the external ear
- BTransverse clefts
- CMedian clefts
- DOblique clefts.
- ECleft lip and palate
109CS. State the incidence of CLP (cleft lip and palate) which varies by gender. Most publications indicate that:
- AWomen are affected more often than men
- BMen are affected more often than women
- COnly men are affected
- DOnly women are affected
- EMen and women are affected equally
110CS. Indicate which part of the facial skeleton is most commonly affected by congenital malformations in children:
- ABoth sides equally
- BThe right side
- CThe left side
- DThe midline
- EAll answers are correct
111CS. Name the period when morphostructural changes in the facial skeleton begin:
- APostnatal period
- BEmbryonic period
- CInfancy
- DPreschool period
- EEarly school age
112CS. Identify which tumor of the maxillary bones clinically manifests during the period of tooth eruption:
- Acherubism
- Binfectious periapical cysts
- Codontoma
- DPaget's disease
- EX-histiocytosis
113CS. Identify which of the following pseudotumors occur in the 8–15 age group:
- Aosteoblastoclastoma
- BLymphangioma
- Cmelanocytic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy
- Dfibrous dysplasia
- Eneurofibromatosis
114CS. Identify which of the pseudotumors listed below are characterized by gingival bleeding, localized pain, progressive tooth mobility, and the eruption of permanent teeth during early childhood:
- Aeosinophilic granuloma
- BPaget's disease
- Cfibrous dysplasia
- Dcherubism
- Emelanocytic neuroectodermal tumor of the infant
115CS. Identify which pseudotumoral lesion in children can be confused with osteomyelitis:
- Alytic osteosarcoma
- BEwing's sarcoma
- Chistiocytosis X
- Dfibrous dysplasia
- Echerubism
116CS. Identify which of the listed lesions is considered a benign odontogenic tumor of the jaws:
- Acherubism
- Bosteoblastoclastoma
- Ceosinophilic granuloma
- DEwing's sarcoma
- EHodgkin's disease
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- Quiz on Untitled, created by awsam yaqob on 03/05/2026.
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- awsam yaqob
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- Created on 3 May 2026 · updated on 11 May 2026
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