Politcal Science Chapter 1

Khafra Mills
Quiz by Khafra Mills, updated more than 1 year ago
Khafra Mills
Created by Khafra Mills about 6 years ago


Chapter 1 Political science mock test.

Resource summary

Question 1

President Bush stated that we live in an era of “globalization.” What does that mean?
  • We must abide by the International Criminal Court.
  • There is an increasing interdependence of citizens and nations across the world.
  • Terrorism is a threat to the “global community” and needs to be addressed by all nations.
  • We need to encourage more foreign companies to move to the United States.
  • The United States MUST be the new policemen for the world.

Question 2

3. A principle that states that each citizen has one and only one vote is a principle of
  • social equality. c. equality of opportunity.
  • political equality.
  • equality of outcome.
  • representative equality.

Question 3

“The legitimate use of force to control human behavior within specified geographic boundaries” is a definition of
  • government.
  • politics.
  • anarchism.
  • totalitarianism
  • democracy.

Question 4

4. According to Thomas Hobbes, author of Leviathan, the main purpose of government is
  • a. to protect the physical security of citizens.
  • b. to protect private property.
  • c. to promote equality of opportunity.
  • d. to promote a state of nature.
  • e. to distribute ownership of property in an equitable manner.

Question 5

5. Which political philosopher first defined the doctrine of liberalism, which linked the defense of property rights to the safeguards of individual liberties?
  • a. Thomas Hobbes
  • b. Thomas Jefferson
  • c. John Locke
  • d. Karl Marx
  • e. James Monroe

Question 6

6. The modern dilemma of government can be seen in
  • a. Oregon’s approach to assisted suicide.
  • b. Michigan’s approach to assisted suicide.
  • c. employment provisions of the 1990 Americans with Disabilities Act.
  • d. decisions leading up to the war in Iraq.
  • e. decisions to ban smoking in public building.

Question 7

7. According to “the Globalization of Nations” Chart, what is the United States’ major advantage when competing with other nations?
  • a. political engagement
  • b. technology
  • c. personal contacts
  • d. Economic Integration
  • e. All of the Above

Question 8

8. What term do we use to describe the benefits and services available to all, such as education, sanitation, roads, bridges, etc.?
  • a. global equity
  • b. community services
  • c. liberal ideals
  • d. public goods
  • e. national equity

Question 9

9. Who was the first woman to receive the honor of lying in state in the U.S. Capitol rotunda?
  • a. Rosa Parks
  • b. Barbara Jordan
  • c. Dolly Madison
  • e. Susan B. Anthony

Question 10

10. Which of the following is not one of the four freedoms Franklin Roosevelt described and fought for during his term in office?
  • a. freedom from want
  • b. freedom from fear
  • c. freedom of religion
  • d. freedom of speech
  • e. freedom of equality

Question 11

12. What is the political ideology that rejects all government action except that which is necessary to protect life and property?
  • a. liberalism
  • b. libertarianism
  • c. capitalism
  • d. anarchism
  • e. socialism

Question 12

17. What term would we use to describe a person who values order and equality more than freedom?
  • a. an anarchist
  • b. a libertarian
  • c. a communitarian
  • d. a conservative
  • e. a liberal

Question 13

18. Which of the following is not true?
  • a. Libertarians value freedom above equality.
  • b. Liberals value equality more than order.
  • c. Conservatives value freedom more than equality.
  • d. Communitarians value freedom more than order.
  • e. Libertarians value freedom over order.

Question 14

1. The economic theory that relies on the narrow pursuit of individual profit to serve the broader ends of society through an invisible-hand mechanism was first advocated by which economist?
  • a. Adam Smith
  • b. Arthur Laffer
  • c. John Maynard Keynes
  • d. Milton Friedman
  • e. supply-side economists

Question 15

2. What is the biggest problem that government has with laissez-faire economics?
  • a. Relies too much on Adam Smith’s outdated theories
  • b. Does not allow enough control to Congress
  • c. Allows too much control to the President
  • d. Has no concern for an economic depression or inflation
  • e. All of these

Question 16

3. What term is used to describe the total value of goods and services that can be produced when the economy works at full capacity?
  • a. Aggregate demand
  • b. Gross domestic product
  • c. Business cycle
  • d. Productive capacity
  • e. Economies of scale

Question 17

4. What theory advocates cutting or increasing government spending to control business cycles?
  • a. monetarism
  • b. fiscal policies
  • c. laissez-faire
  • d. nonmarket economics
  • e. supply-side economics

Question 18

5. Historically, what is the major concern of the Federal Reserve System?
  • a. inflation
  • b. economic growth
  • c. trade
  • d. government tax revenues
  • e. government spending

Question 19

6. To deal with problems of inflation and unemployment, what would monetarists rely heavily on?
  • a. The fiscal tools of Keynesian economics
  • b. Laissez-faire principles
  • c. Use of the Federal Reserve System
  • d. Supply-side economics
  • e. Government planners to determine the price and quantity of goods produced in the economy

Question 20

7. Which economic theory suggests that lowering taxes and reducing government intervention will increase productivity and yield more tax revenue?
  • a. perestroika
  • b. Keynesian economics
  • c. monetarism
  • d. supply-side economics
  • e. incremental budgeting

Question 21

8. Which of the following is not used to calculate the Consumer Price Index (CPI)?
  • a. Price of transportation
  • b. Price of shelter
  • c. Price of stocks
  • d. Price of medical services
  • e. Price of clothing

Question 22

9. Which of the following congressional committees are involved in budgeting?
  • a. Tax committees
  • b. Authorization committees
  • d. Budget committees
  • e. All of the above

Question 23

11. In addition to favoring market principles, what else do monetarists believe?
  • a. They recognize that governments can sometimes improve economic outcomes.
  • b. They recognize that government can never improve economic outcomes.
  • c. They recognize that government actions always improve economic outcomes.
  • d. They see no link between government actions and economic outcomes.
  • e. They reject the use of the market to determine prices or the supply of goods.

Question 24

12. Which of the following is the smallest component of the federal budget?
  • a. Defense spending
  • b. Foreign aid
  • c. Interest on the national debt
  • d. Income security programs
  • e. Medicare and Medicaid

Question 25

13. Who did President Bush nominate to replace Alan Greenspan as head of the Federal Reserve in 2006?
  • a. David Bolton
  • b. Dennis Hastert
  • c. Andrew Card
  • d. Ben Bernanke
  • e. None of the above

Question 26

Which of the following has historically been an example of progressive taxation
  • a. The social security tax
  • b. State sales taxes
  • c. The federal income tax
  • d. Taxes of income from sales of real estates or stocks
  • e. All of the above

Question 27

15. On the whole, American tax policies favor which group the most?
  • a. The wealthy who draw their income from capital
  • b. Middle-class workers
  • c. The poor on welfare
  • d. The working poor
  • e. The elderly

Question 28

16. Which of the following is not part of Reaganomics?
  • a. Reducing demand
  • b. Deregulation
  • c. Increased spending on the military
  • d. Tax cuts
  • e. Cuts in social programs

Question 29

17. What do we call economies in which the prices of goods and services are determined through the interaction of sellers and buyers?
  • a. nonmarket economies
  • b. market economies
  • c. mixed economies
  • d. directed economies
  • e. supply-side economies

Question 30

18. What did the Budget and Accounting Act of 1921 provide for?
  • a. Raised taxes
  • b. First tax cut in our history
  • c. Increased the money supply
  • d. Allowed President to prepare budget
  • e. Permited higher budget deficits

Question 31

19. Approximately how much did President Bush propose for outlays in the 2007 budget year?
  • a. Under $1 trillion
  • b. $1.75 trillion
  • c. $2.50 trillion
  • d. $3.25 trillion
  • e. Over $4 trillion

Question 32

20. What do we call the amount of money a government agency is authorized to spend for programs?
  • a. off-budget expenditure
  • b. tax expenditure
  • c. budget authority
  • d. budget outlay
  • e. incremental budget

Question 33

21. According to the Federal Reserve System, the wealthiest one percent of American families control almost what percent of the nation's household wealth (property, stocks, bank accounts)?
  • a. 11%
  • b. 22%
  • c. 33%
  • d. 44%
  • e. 55%

Question 34

22. Which committees of Congress are responsible for raising the revenue to run the government?
  • a. Authorization committees
  • b. Federal Reserve committees
  • c. Tax committees
  • d. Appropriations committees
  • e. Revenue committees

Question 35

23. Which economic theory relies on fiscal policies to adjust demand and thereby reduce fluctuations in the business cycle?
  • a. Laissez-faire economics
  • b. Supply-side economics
  • c. Socialist economics
  • d. Keynesian economics
  • e. Monetary economics

Question 36

24. What 1990 law established “pay-as-you-go” restrictions for the first time in Congress?
  • a. Balanced Budget Act
  • b. Budget Enforcement Act
  • c. Gramm-Rudman Act
  • d. Entitlements First Act
  • e. Spending Restriction Law

Question 37

25. What is the sixth largest expenditure of our annual budget?
  • a. Interest on our national debt
  • b. Military spending
  • c. Social Security
  • d. Income security expenditures
  • e. Medicare

Question 38

1. Which part of the Constitution outlaws the institution of slavery?
  • a. First Amendment
  • b. Thirteenth Amendment
  • c. Fourteenth Amendment
  • d. Fifteenth Amendment
  • e. Nineteenth Amendment

Question 39

2. Why are most people in America against equality of outcome?
  • a. The concept disagrees with Christianity.
  • b. Many believe it would cost too much.
  • c. Many believe that equality of outcome would sacrifice equal opportunity.
  • d. Many believe we already have it, especially with capitalism.
  • e. It goes against majoritarian beliefs of most Americans.

Question 40

3. Which Court decision upheld separate-but-equal facilities for African Americans and whites?
  • a. Plessy v. Ferguson
  • b. Brown v. Board of Education
  • c. Sweatt v. Painter
  • d. the McLaurin case
  • e. the Dred Scott case

Question 41

4. Which of the following was not a result of the civil rights movement?
  • a. increasing numbers of African Americans in public office
  • b. more African American voters
  • c. an immediate end to de facto and de jure segregation of schools
  • d. an increase in African American nationalism
  • e. legislation to reduce discrimination in employment

Question 42

5. Which of the following is one of the more common methods of discrimination forcing poor blacks to pay $1 or $2 in order to vote?
  • a. affirmative action
  • b. de jure segregation
  • c. de jure discrimination
  • d. black codes
  • e. poll tax

Question 43

6. What do we call school segregation that results from the racial patterns of neighborhood housing?
  • a. de facto segregation
  • b. de jure segregation
  • c. government-imposed segregation
  • d. separate-but-equal facilities
  • e. reverse discrimination

Question 44

7. In what state was the first test of the Brown v. Board of Education decision?
  • a. Alaska
  • b. Alabama
  • c. Georgia
  • d. Arkansas
  • e. Missouri

Question 45

9. How has the Civil Rights Act of 1866 (Section 1981) been used in recent court decisions?
  • a. to expand the scope of government protection of minorities
  • b. to restrict the scope of government protection of minorities
  • c. to reverse many gains of the civil rights movements
  • d. to expand civil rights of the disabled
  • e. to overturn affirmative action programs

Question 46

10. What did the Voting Rights Act of 1965 accomplish?
  • a. Nothing; it was declared unconstitutional.
  • b. It had little effect on African American registration, because of de facto segregation.
  • c. It didn’t do much of anything in all regions of the country.
  • d. It improved voter registration among minority groups.
  • e. Over time, it resulted in a lower turnout of African Americans voters.

Question 47

11. Which of the following were not a result President Johnson’s efforts to end discrimination?
  • a. Voting Rights Act of 1965
  • b. Civil Rights Act of 1964
  • c. Education Act of 1967
  • d. Fair Housing Act of 1968
  • e. Economic Opportunity Act of 1964

Question 48

12. Which law prohibited sex discrimination in federally aided education programs?
  • a. the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965
  • b. the Civil Rights Act of 1964
  • c. the Education Amendments Act of 1972
  • d. the Equal Rights Amendment
  • e. the Civil Rights Act of 1866

Question 49

14. Which of the following was not a success of the Black nationalist movement?
  • a. affirmative Action program
  • b. instilled pride in black history and culture
  • c. created black studies programs in U.S. colleges and universities
  • d. encouraged blacks to vote in record numbers
  • e. brought more blacks into elected office

Question 50

16. Numerous frustrated Native Americans acted out against the American Government and took matters into their own hands after decades of inaction. Which of the following was the result of Native American frustration and anger towards the American government?
  • a. the bus boycott in Birmingham, Alabama
  • b. 164 riots after the death of Martin Luther King, Jr.
  • c. record high voter registration drives
  • d. seizure of Alcatraz Island
  • e. None of these

Question 51

18. Until 1965 the laws governing U.S. immigration policy were rooted in what?
  • a. outdated Civil War quota system
  • b. separate but equal doctrine
  • c. invidious discrimination
  • d. Jim Crow laws
  • e. All of these

Question 52

19. The Supreme Court appealed to what element of the Constitution to support the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
  • a. elastic clause
  • b. commerce clause
  • c. Fifteenth Amendment
  • d. First Amendment
  • e. Nineteenth Amendment

Question 53

20. Which of the following did not advance the equality of women?
  • a. the Nineteenth Amendment
  • b. the Civil Rights Restoration Act
  • c. the Equal Pay Act of 1963
  • d. the Civil Rights Act of 1964
  • e. protective legislation

Question 54

21. Which of the following was not a method used to keep African Americans from voting?
  • a. poll taxes
  • b. literacy tests
  • c. grandfather clauses
  • d. separate-but-equal elections
  • e. minimum education requirements

Question 55

22. Which of the following is currently true about the Equal Rights Amendment?
  • a. It guarantees equal pay for equal work.
  • b. It was proposed in 1923, but not ratified until 1979.
  • c. It prohibits gender discrimination in education.
  • d. It provides a constitutional basis for affirmative action.
  • e. It was never ratified.

Question 56

23. Which of the following resulted from the strike led by Cesar Chavez against California growers in 1965?
  • a. It won better working conditions for immigrant workers.
  • b. It won better pay for immigrant workers.
  • c. It instituted national boycott.
  • d. It won better housing for immigrant workers.
  • e. All of these.

Question 57

24. With the U.S. population having grown over 300 million, our government estimates that 25% of the U.S. population will be Hispanic by what year?
  • a. 2010
  • b. 2025
  • c. 2050
  • d. 2075
  • e. 2100

Question 58

25. Which of the following does the 1990 Americans with Disabilities Act not guarantee access to?
  • a. employment
  • b. public accommodations
  • c. housing
  • d. communication services
  • e. transportation

Question 59

1. When judges interject their own values into their interpretation of cases, what are they practicing?
  • a. liberalism
  • b. conservatism
  • c. judicial restraint
  • d. judicial activism
  • e. stare decisis

Question 60

2. What do we call the power to declare acts of Congress invalid?
  • a. judicial review
  • b. judicial restraint
  • c. judicial activism
  • d. adjudication
  • e. original jurisdiction

Question 61

3. Although powerful, the Supreme Court justices can be checked through what process?
  • a. judicial activism
  • b. judicial review
  • c. executive orders
  • d. impeachment
  • e. statutory constructionism

Question 62

4. What are the Constitutional qualifications to be a U.S. Supreme Court justice?
  • a. 35 years old, American citizen and 10 years experience as a lawyer
  • b. 35 years old and American citizen
  • c. 40 years old and natural born American citizen
  • d. 40 years old and 10 years experience as a lawyer
  • e. None of these

Question 63

5. Which level of the Federal Courts System only hears NO cases of original jurisdiction?
  • a. federal district courts
  • b. federal tax court
  • c. federal appellate courts
  • d. U.S. Supreme Court
  • e. They all hear cases of original jurisdiction.

Question 64

6. Which of the following may Congress not change?
  • a. the organization of district and circuit courts
  • b. the Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction
  • c. the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction
  • d. the number of justices on the Supreme Court
  • e. the number of judges in the district and circuit courts

Question 65

7. What do we call a court case stemming from a dispute over something of value?
  • a. a crime
  • b. a civil case
  • c. stare decisis
  • d. a criminal case
  • e. plea bargaining

Question 66

8. What is the term for the bias in favor of precedents or existing decisions?
  • a. rule of four
  • b. tort
  • c. amicus curiae
  • d. judicial review
  • e. stare decisis

Question 67

9. Approximately how many new civil and criminal cases did our federal district courts get in 2004?
  • a. 100,000 or so
  • b. 225,000 or so
  • c. 350,000 or so
  • d. 475,000 or so
  • e. over 500,000

Question 68

10. On what basis are appeals made?
  • a. guilt or innocence
  • b. based on new evidence
  • c. plea bargain
  • d. rulings and procedure
  • e. amicus curiae

Question 69

11. Which of the following is true about the chief justice?
  • a. assigns all opinions
  • b. assigns opinions when voting with the majority
  • c. speaks last in conference
  • d. votes first in conference
  • e. writes all opinions issued by the court

Question 70

12. Bush v. Gore demonstrated that conservative judges may practice which of the following?
  • a. judicial activism
  • b. judicial restraint
  • c. stare decisis
  • d. the rule of four
  • e. amicus curiae

Question 71

13. Supreme Court actions to void parts of the Violence against Women Act and the Americans with Disabilities Act are examples of which power of the court?
  • a. judicial activism
  • b. judicial restraint
  • c. stare decisis
  • d. majoritarian democracy
  • e. the rule of four

Question 72

14. In what two cases can the Supreme Court hold original jurisdiction?
  • a. cases involving Government officials and Ambassadors
  • b. cases involving Ambassadors and the Death Penalty
  • c. cases of Civil Liberties and Civil Rights
  • d. cases of which a State is a party and it involves an elected official
  • e. None of these

Question 73

15. Which of the following are needed to win a seat on the federal bench?
  • a. a presidential nomination and approval by Congress
  • b. an open election and approval by Congress
  • c. a presidential nomination and approval by the House
  • d. a presidential nomination and approval by the Senate
  • e. None of the above

Question 74

17. What term do we use to describe the petitions sent to the Supreme Court for their consideration?
  • a. writs of habeus corpus
  • b. writs of certiorari
  • d. writ of amicus curiae
  • e. None of these
  • c. plea bargaining

Question 75

18. What official has the unofficial title of “the tenth justice?”
  • a. Attorney General
  • b. Speaker of the House
  • c. Chief White House Counsel
  • d. President Pro Tempore of the Senate
  • e. Solicitor General

Question 76

19. Which of the following must be true in order for a state case to come before the Supreme Court?
  • a. Appeals in the state court system must be exhausted.
  • b. It must raise a legal question.
  • c. It must receive approval from the President.
  • d. All of the above must occur
  • e. None of the above are required

Question 77

20. Who determines the docket of the U.S. Supreme Court?
  • a. the president.
  • b. the Congress.
  • c. the Supreme Court.
  • d. the Solicitor General.
  • e. the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

Question 78

21. From the “Measuring Judicial Activism” chart, which justice tended more towards activism?
  • a. Justice Rehnquist
  • b. Justice Ginsburg
  • c. Justice Breyer
  • d. Justice Thomas
  • e. Justice Scalia

Question 79

22. What is the term used to describe a justice who disagrees with a judgment?
  • a. dissent
  • b. concurrence
  • c. ex post facto
  • d. stare decisis
  • e. nolo contendre

Question 80

23. Why do federal judges have life tenure and protected salaries?
  • a. to keep them responsible to the majority of the people
  • b. to keep them responsible to the legislature that confirmed them
  • c. to keep them responsible to the executive who appointed them
  • d. to keep them independent
  • e. to keep them responsible to organized interests who appear before them

Question 81

24. What political value was directly endorsed by the Supreme Court in Brown v. Board of Education?
  • a. equality
  • b. freedom
  • c. order
  • d. judicial restraint
  • e. judicial review

Question 82

25. Which legal entity had the ability to pre-screen judicial candidates in the past, but still rates them today after their nomination?
  • a. American Civil Liberties Union
  • b. League of Women Voters
  • c. Federal Bar Committee
  • d. American Bar Association
  • e. Independent Judges Union

Question 83

The ________ is not a national political party because it does not nominate its own candidates.
  • Green Party
  • Democratic Party
  • Tea Party
  • Republican Party
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