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Questions in this quiz (191)
1Typically, important strategic applications do not require traditional financial assessments.
- ATrue
- BFalse
2The governance mechanisms for dealing with support or commodity-like functions are the responsibility of senior administrative levels of the organization’s management structure.
- ATrue
- BFalse
330% of IT projects are cancelled before completion; 50-100% are over budget and 6 months late.
- ATrue
- BFalse
4Cross training refers to the permanent reassignment of IT staff to the business unit and business unit staff to IT.
- ATrue
- BFalse
5Steering committees best describes the IT governance alternative that is the formal assessment and review of IT’s contributions to business strategies and infrastructure.
- ATrue
- BFalse
6Organizational risk is the source of project risk that is related to the external environment such as the size and scope of the markets being addressed.
- ATrue
- BFalse
7In the global exporter form of international strategy, if IT is used at all, it is supported from the parent company.
- ATrue
- BFalse
8In the transnational/metanational form of international strategy, a primary governance mechanism utilized is a federated IT structure.
- ATrue
- BFalse
9In the multilocal form of international strategy, a primary governance mechanism utilized is centralized IT structure.
- ATrue
- BFalse
10A most likely function to be outsourced is project management.
- ATrue
- BFalse
11Typically, a function that is not a core competency but is a critical success factor should be implemented using a strategic alliance.
- ATrue
- BFalse
12Partnership relationships are generally short-term and influenced by the price of the service.
- ATrue
- BFalse
13To be effective, outsourcing relationships should be treated as transactional agreements.
- ATrue
- BFalse
14Each of the following is part of the selection and use of organizational processes to make decisions about how to obtain and deploy IT resources and competencies except:
- Awho makes the decisions.
- Bwhere they make the decisions.
- Cwhy they make the decisions.
- Dhow they make the decisions.
15Each of the following is most likely to be a symptom of misalignment between business and IT except:
- Ahigh turnover of IT professionals.
- Bfrequently fired IT manager(s).
- Cproductivity decrease.
- Dhigh number of sick days taken.
16Which of the following best describes the selection and use of organizational processes to make decisions about how to obtain and deploy IT resources and competencies?
- ACritical success factors
- BStrategic alignment maturity
- CIT governance
- DTechnology risk mitigation
17Typically, an organization has separate steering committees that address each of the following levels except:
- Aoperational level.
- Bknowledge level.
- Cstrategic level.
- Dtactical level.
18Each of the following is generally considered an enabler of IT-business alignment except:
- Asenior executive support for IT.
- Buse of emerging technologies.
- CIT understands the business.
- Dwell-prioritized IT projects.
19Each of the following is generally considered a symptom of poor IT governance except:
- Alate adoption of technology.
- Bbusiness units aren’t accountable to corporate IT for any technologies they deploy.
- Clack of enterprise architecture because of disagreement.
- Dlack of common sourcing policy.
20Which of the following best describes the sources of project risk that are related to the external environment?
- AMarket risk
- BTechnology risk
- COrganizational risk
- DDevelopmental risk
21Which of the following best describes the sources or project risk that are related to internal issues such as project cost, the scope of change required, and project’s fit with the firm’s capabilities?
- AMarket risk
- BTechnology risk
- COrganizational risk
- DDevelopment risk
22Every organization requires all 38 IT processes be performed for IT to deliver effective and efficient service.
- ATrue
- BFalse
23The Information Technology Management Process Overview model indicates 38 IT processes.
- ATrue
- BFalse
24The Information Technology Management Process Overview model has four levels of IT processes.
- ATrue
- BFalse
25Categorizing the IT processes into three layers enables IT management to see that the 38 processes are independent and do not overlap.
- ATrue
- BFalse
26Strategic level processes are those processes that have an intermediate or short-term impact on an organization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
27Strategic level processes are those processes that will have a long-term impact on the enterprise.
- ATrue
- BFalse
28Operational level processes are those processes that cover day-to-day functions.
- ATrue
- BFalse
29All 38 IT processes are equally important to an organization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
30The bulk of IT staff concentrates on application development and other planning tasks associated in the tactical layer.
- ATrue
- BFalse
31The bulk of IT staff concentrates on change control, distribution scheduling, and other operational level activities.
- ATrue
- BFalse
32The IT process of architecture scanning and definition is primarily concerned with implementing emerging technologies.
- ATrue
- BFalse
33The IT process of data planning is primarily concerned with determining the data needs for planned applications.
- ATrue
- BFalse
34The IT process of audit planning and management is primarily concerned with building an overall plan to ensure that agreed levels of security for systems and services are met.
- ATrue
- BFalse
35Most IT processes can always be improved and made more effective and efficient by introducing new tools and methodologies.
- ATrue
- BFalse
36The IT process of project management has generally accepted standard operating procedures.
- ATrue
- BFalse
37Each of the following is a layer of the Information Technology Management Process Overview model of IT processes except:
- Aoperational level processes.
- Bentry level processes.
- Cstrategic level processes.
- Dtactical level processes.
38The Information Technology Management Process Overview model of IT processes has
a total of ___________ processes.- A70
- B62
- C40
- D38
39Each of the following IT processes is a strategic level process except:
- Abusiness strategic planning.
- Barchitecture scanning and definition.
- Crecruiting, hiring, and retention.
- DIT strategic planning and control.
40Each of the following IT processes is a tactical level process except:
- Aarchitecture scanning and definition.
- Bapplication planning.
- Ccapacity planning and management.
- Dproject planning.
41Each of the following IT processes is an operational level process except:
- Asoftware development and upgrade.
- Bservice marketing.
- Ccapacity planning and management.
- Drecruiting, hiring, and retention.
42Which of the following best describes an operational level process?
- ATuning and system balancing
- BApplication planning
- CCapacity planning
- DArchitecture scanning and definition
43Which of the following best describes another view of the operational level processes?
- ADesign of IT architecture
- BBusiness and IT vision
- CDelivery of IS services
- DTactical level
44Feeney’s view of the major categories of IT processes is similar to the Information Technology Management Process Overview model in all of the following except:
- Athe number of IT processes that make up the model.
- BIT processes are categorized into strategic, tactical, and operational levels.
- CIT process categories are overlapping.
- Dthey both include architecture planning.
45Which of the following IT processes is the most likely to receive the largest budget?
- ASoftware development and upgrade
- BProject scheduling
- CIT strategic planning
- DApplication planning
46Which of the 38 IT processes is least likely to be considered for outsourcing?
- AIT strategic planning and control
- BSystems maintenance
- CAsset management
- DEducation/training
47Which of the following best describes the IT process of budget planning and value management?
- ABudget planning and value management is a portfolio and schedule of applications to be built or modified within a set period of time.
- BBudget planning and value management converts individual plans into financial terms and identifies how funds will be obtained and allocated.
- CBudget planning and value management is a planning process to ensure that agreed levels of compliance for systems, applications and services will continue to be met.
- DBudget planning and value management schedules and executes jobs, transactions, and data through the hardware and software to meet agreed upon service levels.
48Which of the following best describes the IT process of project assignment?
- AProject assignment defines the project scope, leadership, and business partner involvement necessary to ensure successful project completion.
- BProject assignment prepares a detailed project plan including objectives, resources, time scale, tasks, organization, and deliverables.
- CProject assignment monitors the project through its phases; conducting reviews, resolving developmental problems, and documenting its life cycle.
- DProject assignment accepts or rejects requests for changes and adjusts the detailed project plan as necessary.
49Which of the following best describes the IT process of systems maintenance?
- ASystems maintenance translates the performance status and the problem impact reports into business terms and compares them with service agreements.
- BSystems maintenance procures and modifies applications, operating systems software, other supporting software, and all related documentation within the framework of a project.
- CSystems maintenance selects, installs, removes, modifies, and upgrades information systems hardware and facilities within the framework of a project.
- DSystems maintenance corrects defects in hardware, applications, software, and facilities within the framework of a project.
50The following are all components of IT Architecture except:
- Aknowledge, information and data storage.
- Brecruiting, hiring, and retention.
- Cinterfaces.
- Dcomputer systems.
51The following are all key factors in the problem control process except:
- Afinding a temporary solution until the problem can be fixed
- Bunderstanding the problem so it can be explained to others.
- Cdetermining the problem is due to operator error.
- Dlogging and recording of the initial complaint.
52An alignment enabler is an organizational factor that should be minimized because it can hinder achieving IT-business alignment.
- ATrue
- BFalse
53Weak economic growth is an example of one of the top six inhibitors to achieving
IT-business alignment.- ATrue
- BFalse
54A mission statement is a concise, measurable statement of where the company wants
to go and what it aspires to be.- ATrue
- BFalse
55A purpose of strategic objectives is to articulate how the vision will be accomplished over an identified time period.
- ATrue
- BFalse
56An IT mission statement is a concise statement of why the IT group exists and the purpose and function it provides for the company.
- ATrue
- BFalse
57The IT strategy formulation process is best described as a sequence of activities that transforms the current alignment state to the envisioned future alignment state.
- ATrue
- BFalse
58The typical role of champion is to obtain funding and other resources needed to implement the vision.
- ATrue
- BFalse
59The “To-Be” state refers to the current state of the firm in terms of the components of the Strategic Alignment Model.
- ATrue
- BFalse
60The SWOT’s objective is to recommend strategies that ensure the best alignment
between the external environment and internal situation.- ATrue
- BFalse
61An objective of the Ansoff’s Product/Market Matrix is to help identify growth strategies for an organization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
62The primary objective of the Ansoff’s Product/Market Matrix is to identify external environmental threats to an organization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
63An objective of the market penetration strategy of Ansoff’s Product/Market Matrix model is to define new markets with innovative new products.
- ATrue
- BFalse
64Rivalry between existing firms is usually the strongest of the external environment threats.
- ATrue
- BFalse
65The threat of substitute products pertains to the likelihood of a customer being able to use a completely different product obtained from a company outside the industry.
- ATrue
- BFalse
66Commitment of senior business management is an essential component for the successful implementation of an aligned IT strategy.
- ATrue
- BFalse
67Each of the following is an enabler of IT-business alignment except:
- Asenior executive support for IT.
- BIT management lacks leadership.
- CIT understands the business.
- Dwell-prioritized IT projects.
68Each of the following represents a key element in the formulation of strategy except:
- Astrategy.
- Binhibitors.
- Cmission.
- Dvision.
69Which of the following is the best example of a strategic objective?
- ASupport worldwide information requirements and business objectives.
- BProvide competitive advantage to the company.
- CWe will drive or enable business strategies to ensure that our contributions
provide the highest value to the corporation. - DBecome #1 or #2 in every market we serve.
70According to Schein, each of the following is a sub-culture of management except:
- Aexecutive culture.
- Bengineering culture.
- Coperator culture.
- Dknowledge culture.
71According to the Strategic Alignment Model, each of the following components is concerned with the external domain of IT strategy except
- Ascope of the firm’s technology.
- Bsystemic competencies.
- CIT processes.
- DIT governance.
72Each of the following is a component of the Strategic Alignment Model except:
- AIT governance.
- Badministrative structure.
- Cfinancial structure.
- Dbusiness governance.
73Which of the following is not a component of IT Strategy within the Strategic Alignment Model?
- ATechnology scope
- BIT governance
- CSystemic competencies
- DSkills
74Each of the following is a key component of the IT Strategy Formulation Process except:
- Asystems analysis and design.
- Bstrategy alternatives analysis.
- Cperiodic review.
- D“As-Is” State of the organization.
75Each of the following is a component of the SWOT model except:
- AStrengths.
- BWeaknesses.
- COrganizations.
- DThreats.
76Each of the following is a market positioning strategy of the Ansoff Product/Market Matrix except:
- Adiversification.
- Bmarket penetration.
- Cproduct development.
- Dbest products.
77The component of the Delta model which would use IT strategies such as integrated Supply
Chain Management and Customer Relationship Management or collaborative planning and forecasting using Web technologies best describes:- Asystem lock-in.
- Bcustomer solutions.
- Cbest products.
- Dproduct economics.
78Which of the following frameworks addresses IT strategy by application prioritization and application portfolio management?
- AFramework for assessing the strategic importance of an IT system
- BCorporate goals for IT
- CSeven sources of innovation
- DBalanced scorecard
79Which of the following frameworks addresses IT strategy by examining the focus of IT in organizations relative to strategic goals and effectiveness?
- AFramework for assessing the strategic importance of an IT system
- BCorporate goals for IT
- CSeven sources of innovation
- DBalanced scorecard
80According to Porter’s Five Competitive Forces model, all of the following are considered external environmental forces except:
- Apower of suppliers.
- Bdiversification of product/market.
- Csubstitute products/services.
- Dpower of buyers.
81Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique for evaluating alternative IT strategies?
- AScenario planning
- BBalanced scorecard
- CCost and benefit analysis
- DGap analysis
82IT plans need to accommodate both the business and IT environments if IT is to be effectively aligned with the business.
- ATrue
- BFalse
83The strategic level of IT planning is focused on the external environment and making decisions about the allocation of resources for competitive advantage.
- ATrue
- BFalse
84The tactical level of IT planning is focused on the external environment and making decisions about the allocation of resources for competitive advantage.
- ATrue
- BFalse
85The tactical level of IT planning is focused on the external environment to address short-to-medium timeframe organizational responses to competitive threats.
- ATrue
- BFalse
86The operational level of IT planning is focused on day-to-day concerns of running the IT infrastructure.
- ATrue
- BFalse
87The CIO should be the owner of the business strategic planning process.
- ATrue
- BFalse
88The senior IT managers should be the owners of the IT strategy planning process.
- ATrue
- BFalse
89An ERP system, such as J.D. Edwards or SAP, best exemplifies an application in the factory category of the Application Portfolio Matrix.
- ATrue
- BFalse
90Amazon.com’s “one-click” technology best exemplifies an application in the support category of the Application Portfolio Matrix.
- ATrue
- BFalse
91New systems that have the potential to open or define new markets or radically transform how the organization competes, but have not yet proven effective, best exemplifies an application in the strategic category of the Application Portfolio Matrix.
- ATrue
- BFalse
92The ability for an application to deliver business benefits best describes the business impact dimension of application prioritization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
93The degree of difficulty for an organization to implement an application best defines the business impact dimension of application prioritization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
94According to the Application Prioritization Matrix, the most attractive applications are those that have a high business impact and a low ease of execution.
- ATrue
- BFalse
95It is best to have multiple contingency plans rather than one single plan to address potential disaster scenarios.
- ATrue
- BFalse
96Ownership and creation of a corporate recovery and management plan in many organizations is the responsibility of the CEO, CFO, COO or other business executive.
- ATrue
- BFalse
97Which of the following best describes the IT process in which the Application Portfolio Matrix and the Application Prioritization Matrix would most likely be used?
- ASystem planning
- BApplication planning
- CData planning
- DProject planning
98Each of the following IT processes may be expanded to include emerging technologies except:
- Asystem planning.
- Bapplication planning.
- Cdata planning.
- Dproject planning.
99Each of the following is a category of the Application Portfolio Matrix except:
- Aturnaround applications.
- Bwarehouse applications.
- Cstrategic applications.
- Dsupport applications.
100Enterprise Resource Planning systems such as JD Edwards and SAP best describe which category of the Application Portfolio Matrix?
- ATurnaround applications
- BFactory applications
- CStrategic applications
- DSupport applications
101Applications that are high on business impact and high on ease of execution best describes which category of the Application Prioritization Matrix?
- ALow-hanging fruit
- BMoney pits
- CMust haves
- DQuick wins
102Which of the following best describes an IT process that determines what the data needs will be for the applications that are proposed for implementation?
- ASystem planning
- BNetwork planning
- CData planning
- DProject planning
103A translation of the enterprise’s strategic goals and directions into a planned update of the enterprise’s hardware, systems software, network, and related IT infrastructure facilities in order to enable applications to meet strategic goals, best defines which of the following IT processes?
- ASystem planning
- BNetwork planning
- CData planning
- DProject planning
104Which of the following best describes an IT process that most likely results in an end product that is an agreed-upon set of architectural principles and a course of action for the firm’s telecommunications infrastructure and applications?
- ASystem planning
- BNetwork planning
- CData planning
- DProject planning
105Each of the following is a major task that must be completed when beginning to plan for recovery except:
- Aconsolidate the recovery requirements for all service agreements.
- Bdefine the business and IT recovery-operating environment.
- Cidentify variances between operating environments and agreements
- Dimprove standards in development or maintenance of data.
106Which of the following best describes the best way to start the development of an overall security plan?
- ACreate and staff a formal IT management position that is exclusively focused on information security.
- BExamine the costs of replacing systems and applications.
- CReview those operational areas that have the greatest financial impact on the firm.
- DLook at the alternative ways to keep the systems and applications going in the event of a catastrophe.
107Each of the following is a top ten factor that could trigger unethical employee behavior except:
- Agenetic disposition.
- Blittle or no recognition of achievements.
- Cefforts to balance work and family.
- Dcompany politics.
108Which of the following best describes an IT process that uses a forecast load from new projects or from the evolution of existing services which defines how resources will cover the demand?
- AManagement systems planning and monitoring
- BCapacity planning and management
- CProject management
- DSkills planning and management
109According to the Balancing IT Skills model, in developing an IT skills management plan organizations need to achieve a balance between each of the following except:
- Aleadership skills.
- Bbusiness knowledge.
- Ctechnology skills.
- Dplanning skills.
110Scientific management has proven that there is one best way to manage an organization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
111The adhocracy structure is characterized by a division of labor, hierarchical decision-making, a high degree of formal procedures and regulations, and impersonal relationships.
- ATrue
- BFalse
112Horizontal process tunnels are generally found in decentralized organizations and describe those units of the firm that have been created to focus on a particular business area in an independent fashion.
- ATrue
- BFalse
113In a machine bureaucracy organizational structure, the IT department is typically a centralized function.
- ATrue
- BFalse
114The vertical functional stovepipe is generally found in a decentralized organization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
115A major benefit of a vertical functional stovepipe is that it facilitates communication between
the different functional units.- ATrue
- BFalse
116The use of a temporary team to address an emergency is often referred to as a SWOT analysis.
- ATrue
- BFalse
117A major drawback of the matrix organization type is that the employees report to only one boss.
- ATrue
- BFalse
118A major benefit of the horizontal process tunnel is priorities are base don the needs of products and processes reaching markets, rather than having priorities set by individual functions.
- ATrue
- BFalse
119The matrix organization type typically has workers in cross-functional teams with two bosses.
- ATrue
- BFalse
120A major drawback of the federated organization structure is the redundancy that occurs due to the duplication of infrastructure.
- ATrue
- BFalse
121The adhocracy organization type is predominantly composed of permanent project-oriented work groups.
- ATrue
- BFalse
122A major benefit of the centralized IT structure is that it is responsive to individual business unit needs.
- ATrue
- BFalse
123A major benefit of the federated IT structure is that it enables both economies of scale and responsiveness to individual business needs.
- ATrue
- BFalse
124A centralized IT organization presents the best structure for enhancing strategic alignment by clarifying the relationship between IT organizations and their corresponding line organizations.
- ATrue
- BFalse
125A basic organization that is hierarchical in nature is best described as:
- Aprofessional bureaucracy.
- Bsimple structure.
- Cdivisional form.
- Dadhocracy.
126Which one of the following is the organizational infrastructure type that is most likely to be used by a family business or single proprietary business?
- ASimple structure
- BMachine bureaucracy
- CProfessional bureaucracy
- DDivisional form
127Which one of the following is the organizational infrastructure type that is most likely to be used by a doctors, lawyers, or accountants?
- ASimple structure
- BMachine bureaucracy
- CProfessional bureaucracy
- DDivisional form
128Which one of the following organizational types best describes the divisional form of infrastructure having business units such as IT, marketing, finance, and human resources?
- AHorizontal process tunnel
- BFederated
- CVertical functional stovepipe
- DMatrix
129Each of the following is considered a benefit of a centralized organizational structure except:
- Aexpertise is shared among all organizations within the firm.
- Bthere is increased communication between business units.
- Cthere are clear career paths and training programs.
- Dthere is back up because of the redundancy of skills within the work unit.
130Each of the following is considered a benefit of horizontal process tunnels except:
- Acommunication is increased dramatically because multiple groups work as a team.
- Bsharing of information and knowledge across functions is widely available.
- Cthere is great opportunity for staff to be knowledgeable about multiple aspects of the product and process.
- Dpriorities are set by individual functions rather than by the needs of products and processes reaching markets.
131Which one of the following organizational types is most likely to have an employee reporting to two bosses at the same time?
- AHorizontal process tunnel
- BFederated
- CVertical functional stovepipe
- DMatrix
132Which of the following organization types is most likely to engage in outsourcing?
- AHorizontal process tunnel
- BMatrix
- CAdhocracy
- DFederated
133Each of the following is considered a drawback of a centralized IT organization except:
- Astandards are more difficult to maintain.
- Bunresponsive to individual business unit needs.
- Clack of functional experts.
- DIT staff are technical specialists and business generalists.
134According to Schein, organizational culture is a significant force in encouraging change because cultural assumptions are easily understood.
- ATrue
- BFalse
135The change phase of Lewin-Schein’s change process involves introducing the new process through education and training.
- ATrue
- BFalse
136The Lewin-Schein basic model of the change process involves four distinct phases: freezing, unfreezing, change, and refreezing.
- ATrue
- BFalse
137The refreezing phase of Lewin-Schein’s change process is the first step to be taken because it involves getting people to abandon their original habits and procedures for getting their work done so that they are more receptive to change.
- ATrue
- BFalse
138A primary motivation for change is that people are generally altruistic, thinking that change is in the best interests of the organization as a whole.
- ATrue
- BFalse
139One of the strongest motivators for unfreezing is “pain.”
- ATrue
- BFalse
140A primary motivation for successful change is that there is a direct hierarchical order to implement the change.
- ATrue
- BFalse
141IT as a changee refers IT as the object of change, such as the change associated with IT due to a major business merger or acquisition.
- ATrue
- BFalse
142Connor’s Response to Change models propose that change occurs in both a positive cycle and a negative cycle.
- ATrue
- BFalse
143The Informed Optimism stage of Connor’s Stages of Positive Response to Change model occurs when enough time has passed and the ideas have been “tested” within and outside the organization and have received support.
- ATrue
- BFalse
144The Denial stage of Connor’s Stages of Negative Response to Change model occurs when people assume the position that the new initiative will fade away like so many others.
- ATrue
- BFalse
145The four keys to implementing change are leadership plus facilitation, get the right people involved, team building, and secure resources.
- ATrue
- BFalse
146The 80/20 rule, as applied to the management of change, requires 80% of the effort be put into making the change and 20% of the effort be put into preparing for the change.
- ATrue
- BFalse
147One key to refreezing is implementing a new reward system to reinforce the new desired behavior.
- ATrue
- BFalse
148The key to understanding transnational complexity in the management of change is to perform a thorough stakeholder analysis.
- ATrue
- BFalse
149Each of the following is a method that managers use to successfully manage an organization through a change process except:
- Ashielding the product or service during the change process.
- Blimiting the amount of change introduced to one project per year.
- Ccarefully planning the total time involved in the change process.
- Dminimizing the downtime of the people involved in the change.
150Which of the following best describes the systematic, interdisciplinary study of the design, uses and consequences of IT that takes into account their interaction with institutional and cultural contexts?
- ALewin-Schein model for managing change through IT
- BSocial informatics
- CContingency model
- DResults-driven structure
151Each of the following is a distinct phase of Lewin-Schein’s change process except:
- Aunfreezing.
- Brefreezing.
- Cfreezing.
- Dchange.
152Which of the following best describes the phase of Lewin-Schein’s change process model whereby the new process has become the norm and individuals will not revert to the original way of doing things?
- AUnfreezing
- BRefreezing
- CFreezing
- DChange
153Each of the following is considered a motivator of change except:
- Apain.
- Bseeing that one’s own job will benefit from the new processes and technologies.
- Ca new version is released.
- Da charismatic leader.
154Each of the following is an example of IT as a changer except:
- Ahardware.
- Bpersonnel.
- Cprocesses.
- Dscarcity of labor, raw materials.
155Each of the following is an example of IT as a changee except:
- Apersonnel.
- Bmergers and acquisitions.
- Ccustomer demands.
- Dscarcity of labor, raw materials.
156Each of the following is a stage of Conner’s Stages of Positive Response to Change except:
- AAcceptance.
- BCompletion.
- CInformed pessimism.
- DHopeful realism.
157Which of the following stages of Connor’s Stages of Positive Response to Change is best described as being the home stretch when participants can see the end goal in sight?
- ACompletion
- BInformed pessimism
- CHopeful realism
- DInformed optimism
158Which of the following stages of Connor’s Stages of Negative Response to Change is best described as the feeling of resentment employees have when they are helpless to change their destiny?
- ADepression
- BImmobilization
- CAcceptance
- DAnger
159Each of the following is a stage of Conner’s Stages of Negative Response to Change except:
- AAcceptance.
- BCompletion.
- CImmobilization.
- DTesting.
160Each of the following is considered one of the four overall keys to implementing change except:
- Aleadership plus facilitation.
- Bcharismatic leader.
- Cget the right people involved.
- Dteam building.
161Each of the following is a characteristic of high performing teams except:
- Aresults-driven structure.
- Bexternal support and recognition.
- Cmatrix structure.
- Dprincipled leadership.
162Each of the following are the most common reasons why people resist change except:
- Athey will experience a loss of face.
- Bthey have competing commitments.
- Cthe change will increase workload.
- Dthe change is not interesting.
163The title of Chief Information Officer may also be known as Director of Information Technology or Vice President of Information Systems as long as the roles and responsibilities are similar.
- ATrue
- BFalse
164The roles and responsibilities of the CIO require technological skills only.
- ATrue
- BFalse
165A responsibility of the Chief Information Officer is to participate in the development of corporate strategies.
- ATrue
- BFalse
166According to Ross and Feeney, there is a multi-way relationship between a CIO and the three forces of executive attitudes, dominant suppliers, and the changing application’s portfolio.
- ATrue
- BFalse
167During the mainframe era of computing, the role of the CIO was primarily that of business strategy enabler.
- ATrue
- BFalse
168During the mainframe era of computing, the role of the CIO was primarily that of operational manager.
- ATrue
- BFalse
169During the distributed era of computing, the role of the CIO was primarily that of operational manager.
- ATrue
- BFalse
170Generally, the CIO is the most senior IT executive and always reports to an executive within the financial function.
- ATrue
- BFalse
171The CIO must report to the CEO to be effective.
- ATrue
- BFalse
172As an IT manager moves up the organizational ranks, the importance of their technical skills as well as their interpersonal skills declines.
- ATrue
- BFalse
173As an IT manager moves up the organizational ranks, the importance of their interpersonal skills increases.
- ATrue
- BFalse
174At the supervisor level of the IT managerial skill mix, the importance of technical skills is primary.
- ATrue
- BFalse
175At the executive level of the IT managerial skill mix, the primary role is one of a peer manager or partner with the other executives in obtaining the organizational objectives.
- ATrue
- BFalse
176The primary focus of people who are leaders is on getting things done, not with doing things.
- ATrue
- BFalse
177Each of the following is considered a job requirement of a CIO except:
- Atechnical development of systems.
- Bdevelopment of corporate strategy.
- Cfacilitating change.
- Dmanaging external contractors, vendors, partners.
178According to Ross and Feeney, the following are all forces in influencing the CIO role and responsibilities except:
- Aexecutive attitudes.
- Bapplication portfolio.
- Cdominant suppliers.
- Dstaff attitudes.
179Which of the following best describes the primary role of the CIO during the mainframe era?
- AOrganizational designer
- BOperational manager
- CInformed buyer
- DTechnology architect
180Each of the following were major roles of the CIO during the distributed era except:
- Aorganizational designer.
- Boperational manager.
- Cinformed buyer.
- Dtechnology architect
181According to the majority of both IS and non-IS executives surveyed by Luftman and Brier, which one of the following is considered the number one qualification for a CIO?
- AKnowledge of applying IT to business
- BTechnical awareness
- CInnovation
- DGeneral business knowledge
182According to practicing CIOs, which of the following is considered the top current concern facing them?
- AInter-relationship concerns
- BLooking for a position in another firm.
- CEnhancing customer satisfaction
- DLearning new technical skills
183Each of the following views represents a perception of IT as an asset except:
- Athe CEO sees IT as having a role in the transformation of the business.
- Bthe CIO is positioned as a specialist functional manager.
- CIT thinking is subsumed within business thinking.
- DIT efforts are focused on a few key initiatives.
184Each of the following views represent a perception of IT as a liability except:
- Athe CEO sees IT as having a role in the transformation of the business.
- Bthe CIO is positioned as a specialist functional manager.
- CIT plans are made by specialists or missionary zealots.
- Dmany IT applications are under development.
185Each of the following is considered a demonstrable belief in IT by the CEO except:
- Athe CEO sends signals about the positive value of IT.
- Bthere is a core group of business priorities that drive the need for the continuous enhancement of the technology infrastructure.
- Cthere is a one-way relationship between the CEO and CIO whereby the CEO directs the CIO as to which technologies to invest in.
- Dthere is a context of change in the organization that supports the need for successful exploitation of technology.
186Each of the following is considered a nontechnology related skill that is important to a CIO’s job except:
- Afinancial skills.
- Bsystems analysis skills.
- Crelationship management skills.
- Dmarketing skills.
187Which of the following best describes the most important type of skill for executive-level IT management?
- AInterpersonal skills
- BTechnical skills
- CAdministrative and conceptual skills
- DBusiness skills
188Which of the following best describes the primary role of executive-level IT management?
- ABusiness partner
- BManager entrepreneur
- CMarketing
- DTechnical
189Which of the following best describes a management skill rather than a leadership skill
- AAligning people
- BMotivating people
- CEstablishing direction
- DProblem solving
190Which of the following best describes a leadership skill rather than a management skill?
- AAligning people
- BProblem solving
- CStaffing
- DBudgeting
191Each of the following is considered a fundamental characteristic of leadership except:
- Aa leader has willing followers.
- Ba leader has influence based on relationships.
- Cnot everyone will follow a leader’s initiative.
- Da leader focuses on doing things rather than getting things done.
Information
- Description
- Quiz on Self practice, created by Hui Shan Lee on 03/10/2016.
- Author
- Hui Shan Lee
- Language
- English
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