Quiz
ISM 3 Fundamental
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Questions in this quiz (129)
1Which type of storage device does the "X" represent in the exhibit?
- AObject-based
- BBlock-based
- CFile-based
- DUnified-based
2What is an accurate statement about infrastructure discovery?
- ACreates an inventory of infrastructure components and provides information about the components
- BStandardizes on-going infrastructure management activities andassesses potential risks of the activities
- CClassifies, organizes, and analyzes all infrastructure management bestpractices stored in data lakes
- DDetects potential security attacks on a storage infrastructure and deploys specialized tools to eliminate the attacks
3Which global addressing does the REST application programming interface use for the discovery of a storage service?
- AUniform Resource Identifier
- BNamespace
- CExtensible Markup Language
- DController-provided MAC address
4A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for their operations. The company has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict service levels. In addition, the company has less critical applications such as backup and archive. Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?
- ADeploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud - BDeploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. - CDeploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud. - DDeploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
- ADeploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
5What is a benefit of using converged infrastructure for building a data center?
- AReduces the time to acquire and deploythe infrastructure
- BProvides the flexibility to purchase individual IT components
- CIntegrates existing IT components into the infrastructure
- DOffers the flexibility to change vendors and prevent vendor lock-in
6What is an accurate statement about the Common Internet File System (CIFS) protocol?
- AEnables a CIFS server to maintain connection information regarding every connected client
- BUses a Remote Procedure Call mechanism to provide access to the CIFS supported file systems
- CContains an open variation of the stateless user datagram protocol that stores information about open files
- DUses file system locking to enable users to simultaneously overwrite all metadata of a file system
7What contains the information about backup configuration and backup metadata?
- ABackup catalog
- BProxy server
- CTracking database
- DBackup image
8Which part of the Fibre Channel (FC) frame does the label "X" represent in the exhibit?
- AFrame Header
- BCRC
- CSOF
- DData Field
9Which EMC block-based storage system uses a cluster design to scale both capacity and performance?
- AXtremIO
- BIsilon
- CXtremSF
- DScaleIO
10What enables an administrator to create device groups in an IP-SAN for restricting device communications to a group?
- AiSNS discovery domain
- BNIC teaming
- CDemilitarized zone
- DSecurity identifier
11What is an accurate statement about an integrated NAS controller?
- AContains a specialized operating system dedicated to file serving
- BStripes data across multiple NAS systems for data protection
- CAbstracts and pools NAS controllers across multiple NAS systems
- DContains an FC Forwarder that is optimized for file sharing functions
12Which component of a software-defined storage (SDS) environment enables integration with external monitoring tools?
- AREST API
- BMetadata service
- CSDS web service
- DStorage agent
13Which NAS implementation requires separate management of the NAS head and the storage?
- AGateway
- BScale-out
- CUnified
- DIntegrated
14Which EMC product provides a software-defined storage platform to create a computebased storage area network?
- AScaleIO
- BXtremIO
- CIsilon
- DAtmos
15What is a benefit of a storage area network (SAN)?
- AEnables compute systems across locations to access shared storage
- BEnsures secure data transmission using only channel technologies
- CEnsures high response times without the protocol overhead
- DEnables consolidation of control and data planes in a single system
16Which lossless Ethernet functionality helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network?
- AData center bridging exchange protocol
- BEnhanced transmission selection
- CPriority-based flow control
- DCongestion notification
17What is compromised by a passive attack on an IT infrastructure?
- AConfidentiality
- BIntegrity
- CAvailability
- DRepudiation
18Which data center management process involves collating and presenting the utilization of resources?
- AReporting
- BProvisioning
- CPlanning
- DMaintenance
19What is a function of the FC-1 layer of the Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack?
- ADefines data encoding
- BProvides FC addressing
- CDefines the physical interface
- DMaps upper layer protocols to FC layers
20What is signified by the "variability" characteristic of big data?
- AMeaning of the data changes constantly
- BData is generated in different formats by numerous sources
- CData change rate affects its timely analysis
- DVarying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
21An administrator has defined a backup policy. Full backups will be performed at 8 PM every Monday and incremental backups performed at 8 PM the remaining days.
How many backup copies are required to restore the files if they were accidentally deleted on Friday morning?- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
22What is a benefit when a node is added to a scale-out NAS cluster?
- AIncreased cluster performance
- BReduced capital expenditure
- CSimplified cluster management
- DDecreased data duplication
23What is an accurate statement about OAuth security control?
- AAllows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
- BProvides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- CEnables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
- DEnables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
24An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and cumulative back ups on the remaining days. On Thursday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup copies.
How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
25What accurately describes the flow control mechanism in an FC SAN?
- ABoth transmitting and receiving ports agree on the number of buffers available during port login
- BNegotiation occurs between an E_Port and an F_Port, and between two N_Ports
- CCredit value is incremented when a frame is transmitted and decremented upon receiving a response
- DReceiver Ready (R_RDY) is sent from the receiving port if available credits reach zero
26What keeps the name server up-to-date on all switches in a fabric?
- ASW-RSCN
- BManagement server
- CZoning
- DFLOGI
27What is the purpose of monitoring capacity in a storage infrastructure?
- ATracking the amount of storage infrastructure resources used and available
- BEvaluating utilization of components and identifying bottlenecks
- CTracking configuration changes to the storage infrastructure elements
- DIdentifying component failures that may lead to service unavailability
28Which type of login is performed between an N_Port and an F_Port in a Fibre Channel SAN environment?
- AFLOGI
- BPLOGI
- CPRLI
- DWWPN
29An organization plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 2 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 9800 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 4 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 250 GB. The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with 70percent utilization is 90 IOPS.
What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and performance requirements given a RAID 0 configuration?- A8
- B70
- C110
- D140
30What is an advantage of performing cumulative backups compared to incremental backups for the same data?
- AFacilitates faster restores
- BFacilitates faster backups
- CReduces the storage space required for backups
- DEliminates the need for full backups
31How does an iSCSI initiator discover its targets?
- AInitiator sends a query to an iSNS server for a list of available targets
- BInitiator receives the iSCSI names of its targets from the primary DNS server
- CInitiator uses the data center bridging exchange protocol for the discovery
- DInitiator sends SCSI commands and the target responds by sending its name
32Which EMC product is a hyper-scale storage infrastructure that provides universal accessibility with support for object and HDFS?
- AECS Appliance
- BXtremIO
- CData Domain
- DCentera
33Which type of LUN provides full control for precise data placement and allows an administrator to create LUNs on different RAID sets if there is workload contention?
- ATraditional
- BThin
- CJournal
- DBitmap
34What is signified by the "variety" characteristic of big data?
- AData is generated in different formats by numerous sources
- BMeaning of the data changes constantly
- CVarying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
- DData change rate affects its timely analysis
35What is an accurate statement about VLANs and VSANs in an FCoE environment with an existing FC SAN?
- AA dedicated VLAN must be configured for each VSAN
- BVLANs configured for VSANs must carry regular LAN traffic
- CDefault VLAN must map to all VSANs defined in the FCoE switch
- DA minimum of four VLANs must be created to isolate VSAN traffic
36What is an accurate statement about a virtual tape library?
- ALegacy backup software can be used without additional modules or changes
- BPortability of physical tapes tooffsite locations is supported
- COnly sequential data access for both backup and recovery is supported
- DRegular maintenance tasks associated with a physical tape drive are required
37Which data structure enables two node ports to identify and manage a set of information units in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN?
- AExchange
- BSequence
- CFrame
- DDomain
38Which type of storage system is built specifically for storing fixed content?
- AContent addressed storage
- BBlock-based storage
- CFile-based storage
- DUnified storage
39Which capability does big data analytics provide?
- AEnabling data-driven decisions from large volumes of data
- BStoring large volumes of data without affecting availability
- CReducing the data storage capacity requirement
- DPerforming analytics using traditional tools
40Which EMC product provides automated monitoring and reporting of a software-defined storage infrastructure?
- AViPR SRM
- BSnapSure
- CAvamar
- DFAST VP
41Which method is used to establish a VPN connection between a primary and remote data center to perform secure remote replication?
- ASite-to-site VPN connectio
- BRemote access VPN connection
- CIntra-site VPN connection
- DLong distance VPN connection
42What is a function of the NDMP server in an NDMP-based backup approach?
- AReads the data from the storage device and sends the data to the backup device
- BReads the data from the backup server and sends the data to the backup device
- CInstructs the NAS head to startthe backup operation
- DInstructs the backup agent on the client to send the data to the backup device
43What is an activity in the risk assessment step of risk management?
- ADetermine the likelihood of a risk
- BPlan and deploy security controls
- CContinuously observe the existing risks
- DIdentify the sources of threats that increase the risks
44Which VMware product provides a network virtualization platform for a software-defined data center?
- ANSX
- BESXi
- CHorizon
- DAirWatch
45Which action takes place during the login phase in an FCoE SAN?
- AVN_Ports obtain FC addresses
- BNodes locate the Fibre Channel Forwarder
- CInitialization protocol starts transporting FC data
- DVN_Port to N_Port pairing is established
46Which capability is provided by a software-defined storage controller?
- AAbility to pool and abstract physical storage and presentit as an open storage platform
- BAbility for multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical compute system
- CMechanisms to automatically create application programming interfaces for centralized management
- DSingle self-contained package with integrated hardware and software components
47An organization has several virtual machines (VMs) deployed in their data center. The VM files are stored on a block-based storage system. The applications on the VMs are impacted during VM backup because the backup agents on the VMs are consuming a large amount of resources.
Which alternate backup solution is recommended to address this issue?- AImage-based backup
- BThree-way NDMP backup
- CTwo-way NDMP backup
- DTarget-based deduplication backup
48Which data center characteristic ensures that data is stored and retrieved exactly as it was received?
- AData integrity
- BSecurity
- CScalability
- DManageability
49Which method does an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) use to identify
intrusions by scanning and analyzing events to detect if they are statistically different from normal events?- AAnomaly-based
- BSignature-based
- CProfile-based
- DDevice-based
50What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
- AFile system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
- BUp to four file systems can be created across the cluster
- CDistinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
- DDifferent file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
51What is an accurate statement about full volume replication?
- ATarget device is at least as large as the source device
- BTarget device requires only a fraction of the space used by the source device
- CTarget device is accessible only after the replication session starts
- DTarget and source devices should be on different storage arrays
52What is an example of an active attack on an IT infrastructure?
- AAttempt to modify information for malicious purposes
- BAttempt to copy the data from the storage system
- CAttempt to gain unauthorized access into the system
- DAttempt to gain access to the data in transit
53What accurately describes link aggregation in a SAN?
- ACombines two or more parallel interswitch links into a single logical interswitch link
- BAggregates the data transmission rate of all HBA and storage system port pairs
- CConsolidates compute-to-compute traffic and storage traffic into a single interswitch link
- DReplaces multiple parallel interswitch links by a single physical interswitch link
54What accurately describes an attack vector in an IT infrastructure?
- ASeries of steps that must be followed in order to complete an attack
- BVarious entry points that can be used to launch an attack
- CAmount of effort required to exploit vulnerabilities in the infrastructure
- DProcess of identifying the system components under attack
55Which solid state drive component performs write coalescing?
- AController
- BI/O interface
- CNon-volatile memory
- DCache
56Which data center characteristic ensures that adequate resources are provided to efficiently store and process data?
- ACapacity
- BAvailability
- CScalability
- DPerformance
57In an object-based storage system, data is divided into 9 data segments and 3 coding segments using the erasure coding technique. What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by this configuration?
- A3
- B6
- C9
- D12
58What is determined by the recovery point objective in a business continuity solution?
- AFrequency of the backup
- BType of backup devices
- CType of disaster recovery site
- DDistance between the primary and disaster recovery sites
59What is a benefit of N_Port virtualization (NPV)?
- AReduces the number of domain IDs in a fabric
- BEliminates the overhead of fabric services in an FC SAN
- CEnables online expansion of virtual volumes
- DAllows an N_Port to transfer multiple VSAN traffic
60What is an accurate statement about Platform as a Service?
- AConsumer has control over the deployed applications
- BConsumer has control over the operating system and database management system
- CConsumer has control over the programming languages and tools
- DConsumer has control over the operating system and storage
61What is a benefit of deploying a Defense in Depth strategy?
- AProvides additional time for organizations to detect and respond to an attack
- BEliminates the attack vector from the IT infrastructure
- CEliminates the attack surface from the IT infrastructure
- DEnables organizations to deploy a unified security solution
62An application generates 8400 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1. What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 5 configuration?
- A4800
- B11200
- C16800
- DA.22400
63What is an accurate statement about the function of an archiving server?
- AEnables the ability to configure policies for archiving data
- BInstalls agentson the archiving storage device
- CScans the data that can bearchived on application servers
- DCreates stub files on an archiving storage device
64Which feature of an object-based storage system abstracts and provides a common view of storage independent of location to applications?
- AGlobal namespace
- BFlexible data access
- CMulti-tenancy
- DScale-out architecture
65What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
- ABackup device can be shared among multiple NAS heads
- BEach NAS head should have a dedicated backup device
- CBackup data traverses at least three NAS heads before reaching the backup device
- DBackup is performed only when three or more NAS heads are present
66What is an accurate statement about a data lake?
- AStores data as an exact or near-exact copy of the source format
- BSupports query and analysis by classifying and organizing data before storing
- CStores current and historical data in a structured format on object-based storage
- DProvides a single consistent view of data across an organization for report generation
67In an FC SAN environment, an administrator wants to ensure that a particular switch port cannot function as an E_Port and cannot be used to create an interswitch link. Which security mechanism should the administrator use?
- APort type locking
- BPort binding
- CPersistent port disable
- DFabric binding
68Which product provides an integrated IT infrastructure solution for data center deployment by combining IT resources into a single package?
- AVCE Vblock
- BEMC VPLEX
- CEMC ViPR
- DVMware vCloud
69Which benefit does the measured service characteristic provide to a cloud service provider?
- AEnables control and optimization of resource use
- BEnables cloud services to communicate with each other
- CEnables availability of specific resources depending on policy
- DEnables the reduction and/or elimination of upfront IT expenditure
70What is an example of an availability management task in storage infrastructure management?
- ADesigning a new replication solution for data redundancy
- BPerforming trend analysis of storage space consumption
- CTracking configuration changes to storage components
- DSpecifying storage space quotas for users
71An application generates 8400 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1. What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 1/0 configuration?
- A5600
- B11200
- C16800
- D22400
72Which elements are associated with an object in an object-based storage system?
- AData, metadata, object ID, and attributes
- BLUN ID, data, metadata, and object ID
- CMetadata, object ID, attributes, and file path
- DObject ID, attributes, LUN ID, and file path
73Which component of a software-defined storage (SDS) environment manages and provisions storage?
- ASDS controller
- BREST API
- CSDS web service
- DStorage agent
74What is a benefit of deploying a multi-site storage system-based remote replication solution?
- AEnsures disaster recovery protection remains available in the event of source or remote site failures
- BProvides the capability to recover data to any point-in-time
- CRequires low network bandwidth to perform synchronous replication
- DEnables a consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures
75An organization plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 4 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 4900 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 8 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 500 GB. The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70 percent utilization is 110 IOPS.
What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and performance requirements g given a RAID 0 configuration?- A8
- B20
- C30
- D45
76What is an accurate statement about the application presentation technique of application virtualization?
- AApplication executes remotely and its user interface is transmitted to the client
- BApplication is downloaded in portions onthe client for local execution
- CApplication executes on the client without the use of a locally-installed agent
- DApplication is converted into a standalone package that directly executes on the client
77What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?
- ACaptures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time
- BProvides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created
- CRuns as an independent copy from the parent VM
- DProvides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time
78Why should a replica be consistent with its source?
- AEnsure the usability of the replica
- BReduce the need to create multiple replicas
- CEnsure the security of the replica
- DReduce the size of the replica
79Which fabric login type enables two N_Ports to exchange service parameters to establish a session?
- APLOGI
- BPRLI
- CFLOGI
- DWWPN
80What is a function of the orchestration layer in a data center infrastructure?
- AProvides workflows for automated execution of management tasks
- BAggregates physical infrastructurecomponents into resource pools
- CMeasures the consumption of IT resources byvarious services
- DDecouples an operating environment from the underlying hardware
81Which technique is used in Kerberos to authenticate a client-server application across an
insecure network?- ASecret-key cryptography
- BOne-way hash function
- CShared secret
- DOpenID control
82In continuous data protection (CDP) remote replication, where are the two split write I/Os of an incoming write I/O directed?
- AOne I/O goes to the local CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the production volume
- BOne I/O goes to the compute system and the other I/O goes to the production volume
- COne I/O goes to the remote CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the replica
- DOne I/O goes to the journal volume and the other I/O goes to the replica
83What maps the logical path of a file system to its physical path in a file-level virtualization implementation?
- AGlobal namespace
- BRemote procedure call
- CDistributed file system
- DCache coherency
84Which fabric login type occurs between two N_Ports to exchange FC-4 upper layer protocol-related parameters?
- APRLI
- BFLOGI
- CPLOGI
- DWWNN
85An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and incremental back ups on the remaining days at 9:00 AM. However, at 10 PM on Friday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup copies.
How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?- A2
- B4
- C5
- D6
86What is an accurate statement about a logical volume in a compute system?
- ACan span across multiple physical volumes
- BCan only be created froma single physical volume
- CMust be created across multiple volume groups
- DAllows multiple file systems to run concurrently
87Which type of fabric topology does the exhibit represent?
- APartial mesh
- BFull mesh
- CSingle core-edge
- DDual core-edge
88An organization plans to deploy a new backup device in their data center. The organization wants the new backup device to support their legacy backup software without requiring any changes to the software. In addition, the organization wants the backup device to provide random data access for better performance.
Which backup device should be recommended?- AVirtual tape library
- BTape-based backup appliance
- CTape library
- DOptical juke box
89What accurately describes the seek time of a disk drive?
- ATime taken to position the read/write head over the correct track
- BTime taken by the platter to position the data under the read/write head
- CTime taken to read a block of data from the platter
- DTime taken by the controller to service an I/O from the application
90What is an accurate statement about a hardware RAID implementation?
- AUses a specialized hardware controller installed on a storage array
- BUses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations
- CRequires a RAID controller and operating system to be compatible
- DOffers a low-cost solution for providing disk protection
91What is an accurate statement about incremental forever backups?
- ARequires only one initial full back up
- BRequires periodic full back ups
- CBackup is not created directly from the production data
- DCopies the data that has changed since the last full back up
92What is an accurate statement about a denial-of-service attack?
- APrevents legitimate users fromaccessing resources or services
- BIntentional misuse of privileges to compromise data security
- CGaining unauthorized access to a user's accounts and data
- DCaptures a user's credentials and then sends to the attacker
93What is a function of the metadata manager in a compute-based storage area network (SAN)?
- AControls load balancing and data migration in a compute-based SAN
- BProvides an interface to the software-defined storage controller
- CControls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SAN
- DPerforms the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client
94A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24 hours; Monday through Friday. During a particular week, failure of component 3 occurred as follows:
Tuesday = 8 AM to 1 PM
Thursday = 5 PM to 10 PM
Friday = 5 AM to 10 AM
What is the mean time between failures on component 3 for that week?- A5 hours
- B35 hours
- C40 hours
- D51 hours
95What is determined based on the recovery point objective in an asynchronous remote replication?
- ASize of the buffer
- BSize of the replica
- CResponse time
- DLocation of the source
96Which type of digital data has no defined format but has a self-describing structure that enables its analysis?
- ASemi-structured data
- BStructured data
- CMetadata
- DQuasi-structured data
97In an object-based storage system, data is divided into 10 data segments and 4 coding segments using the erasure coding technique. What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by this configuration?
- A4
- B6
- C10
- D14
98What is an accurate statement about a fabric-provided MAC address (FPMA) used in an FCoE SAN?
- AFCoE switches provide MAC addresses to VN_Ports during node login
- BFC switches provide MAC addresses to VE_Ports dynamically during discovery
- CCompute systems provide MAC addresses to the VF_Ports on FCoE switches
- DBoth VF_Ports and VE_Ports obtain MAC addresses from FC switches
99What provides the ability to automatically relocate extents across physical storage drives over the entire pool when new drives are added to the pool?
- AStorage pool rebalancing
- BExtent relocation
- CStorage pool tiering
- DAutomated extent tiering
100What is an accurate statement about Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) control?
- AEnables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
- BProvides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- CAllows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
- DEnables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
101What is a benefit of link aggregation in a SAN?
- AProvides a higher throughput than a single interswitch link can provide
- BDistributes the network traffic across all virtual SANs, ensuring even virtual SAN utilization
- COptimizes performance by consolidating all interswitch links into a single physical link
- DProvides the flexibility to deploy the same interswitch links for both FC and iSCSI traffic
102What is a benefit of implementing the server flash caching technology in a storage environment?
- AProvides performance acceleration for read intensive workloads
- BReduces the number of storage systems in a data center
- CEliminates the need for cache on a storage system
- DImproves the network performance during peak workloads
103To improve performance, which EMC product allows a PCIe flash card to be deployed in a compute system?
- AXtremSF
- BXtremCache
- CScaleIO
- DXtremIO
104What is an accurate statement about the application streaming technique of application virtualization?
- AApplication is downloaded in portions on the client for local execution
- BApplication executes remotely and its user interface is transmitted to the client
- CApplication executes on the client without the use of a locally-installed agent
- DApplication is converted into a standalone package that directly executes on the client
105Which process groups multiple physical drives and presents them to a compute system as a single logical volume?
- AConcatenation
- BPartitioning
- CStriping
- DOrchestration
106Which data access method enables a compute system to access a file system that resides on a storage system?
- AFile-based
- BBlock-based
- CObject-based
- DSector-based
107What is an advantage of the changed block tracking backup technique?
- AReduces the backup window
- BEnables restoration to any point-in-time
- CEliminates the need for data deduplication
- DIncreases backup device performance
108What does the transformation of an operating model for third platform adoption involve?
- AProvisioning IT resources through a self-service portal
- BEstablishing new roles and responsibilities to manage IT services
- CAdopting virtualization technologies to enable automation
- DBuilding new technical and business skills in the IT staff
109What is an accurate statement about remote desktop services?
- AOperating system and applications hosted on a remote compute system are shared by multiple users
- BUsers are provided dedicated virtual machines running operating system and applications, and hosted on a client system
- CUsers have the flexibility to install applications and modify operating system settings on the remote compute system
- DUsers' interface of the remote desktop is transmitted to the client without the use of a remote display protocol
110What is an accurate statement about Infrastructure as a Service?
- AConsumer has control over the operating systems and the deployed applications
- BConsumer only has control over user-specific application configuration settings
- CConsumer has control over network devices, compute systems, and storage systems
- DConsumer only has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment
111What refers to an IT infrastructure's ability to function based on business expectations during its specified time of operations?
- AInformation availability
- BDisaster recovery
- CCompliance adherence
- DBusiness agility
112How do VSANs ensure security in an IT infrastructure?
- ABy providing isolation over a shared infrastructure
- BBy authenticating a new switch that joins a fabric
- CBy limiting the number of switches in a fabric
- DBy prohibiting an unused switch port from being used
113What is a benefit of block-level storage virtualization?
- AEnables the online expansion of virtual volumes
- BEnhances performance by limiting the RSCN traffic
- CImproves security through logical segmentation of block storage devices
- DIncreases scalability through separation of FC addresses across VSANs
114In which stage of the business continuity planning lifecycle does an organization identify critical business processes and assign recovery priorities?
- AAnalyzing
- BEstablishing objectives
- CDesigning and developing
- DImplementing
115Which EMC product provides a software-defined platform that supports both block and file storage services?
- AViPR Controller
- BScaleIO
- CElastic Cloud Storage
- DXtremIO
116What is a benefit of application virtualization?
- AAvoids conflicts between different versions of the same application
- BEnables an application to directly access a LUN on a storage system
- CRuns applications without requiring the use of cache memory
- DPresents more memory to an application than is physically available
117A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights,Monday through Friday evenings.
Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?- AIncremental
- BCumulative
- CFull
- DDifferential
118What is a characteristic of software-defined networking?
- AAbstracts and separates the control plane from the data plane
- BData plane sends instructions to the controlplane to handle network traffic
- CController in network switchestakes over data plane functions
- DExternal software combines both data plane and control plane functions
119What is a benefit of implementing a virtual machine (VM) storage migration?
- ABalances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage systems
- BEnables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure
- CImproves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system
- DReduces the overall storage system capacity requirements for organizations
120What improves the performance of multi-threaded large block I/O workloads on a solid state drive?
- AParallel I/O channels
- BI/O coalescing
- CNative command queuing
- DHigh capacity RAM cache
121Which EMC product enables management for Vblock systems?
- AUnified Infrastructure Manager
- BMirrorView
- CService Assurance Suite
- DViPR SRM
122What is a benefit of using content addressed storage (CAS) as an archival solution?
- AEnsures content authenticity and integrity
- BSupports location independence using different content IDs for an object
- CProvides the ability to perform production operations on the CAS
- DEnables modification of archived data
123A service provider is offering cloud services to Enterprise P and Enterprise Q.
Which cloud deployment model does the exhibit represent?
- AExternally-hosted private cloud
- BOn-premise community cloud
- CPublic cloud
- DExternally-hosted community cloud
124What is an accurate statement about hypervisor-based continuous data protection (CDP)?
- AWrite splitter is embedded in the hypervisor
- BJournal is stored in a virtual machine
- CJournal and replica use the same storage volume
- DVirtual appliance runs on a storage system
125What is an accurate statement about a virtual desktop infrastructure?
- AEach user is provided a dedicated desktop VM with its own operating system and applications
- BOperating system and applications hosted on a client system are shared by multiple users
- CEach user has an individual desktop session on the remote compute system in which applications execute
- DOperating system and applications on the remote desktop are downloaded on the client for local execution
126Which operation is performed by a scale-out NAS cluster when clients send data to the cluster?
- AData is divided and stored on multiple nodes in parallel
- BData is consolidated into a block and then stored on the NAS head
- CData is evenly distributed to every file system in the cluster
- DNAS file system and cluster grow dynamically to store the data
127Why is it important for organizations to maintain a copy of data at a remote site?
- AEnsure disaster recovery
- BProvide operational recovery
- CEnsure data archiving to meet regulatory requirements
- DProvide flexibility to use stub files for production operations
128Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit?
- AX is an F_Port and Y is an E_Port
- BX is an F_Port and Y is a G_Port
- CX is a G_Port and Y is an N_Port
- DX is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port
129Which technique protects the data in cache from power failures?
- AVaulting
- BMirroring
- CCache tiering
- DIdle flushing
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