» Business Management and Strategy (30%) » Workforce Planning and Employment (17%) » Human Resource Development (19%)
» Compensation and Benefits (13%)
» Employee and Labor Relations (14%)
» Risk Management (7%)
SPHSPHR EXAM WEIGHTING BY FUNCTIONAL AREA
Slide 2
1. The four stages in the life cycles of a business are:
Recruiting, hiring, promotion, evaluation
Introduction, growth, maturity, decline
Job analysis, job design, description, job evaluation
Planning, implementing, evaluating, revision
2. The job characteristics model includes:
Implementation, attitude surveys, responses, feedback
Motivation factors and incentives
Skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, feedback
Job analysis, task significance, feedback
3. The dimensions from Hoffstede’s famous study on IBM employees are:
Power distance, individualism, masculine/feminine, uncertainty avoidance, long term orientation
Internal standards, training, quality
Management commitment, individualism, masculine/feminine, uncertainty avoidance, long term orientation
Jobs, teams, training, quality, feedback
Business Management and Strategy (30%)
Slide 3
3. The dimensions from Hoffstede’s famous study on IBM employees are:
Power distance, individualism, masculine/feminine, uncertainty avoidance, long term orientation
Internal standards, training, quality
Management commitment, individualism, masculine/feminine, uncertainty avoidance, long term orientation
Jobs, teams, training, quality, feedback
4. Which is not an example of the life cycle stages of Human Resource development?
Introduction
Growth
Middle Age
Maturity
5. The strategic role of HR Management includes:
Planning
Attainment of organizational objectives
Viewing the strategic role of HR management in the same context as financial, technological, and other resources
All of the above
Questions 3 - 5
Slide 4
Questions 6 - 5
6. Employers must consider which one of the following geographic and competitive concerns in making HR plans?
Employee resistance to geographic relocation
Organizational restructuring
Balancing work and family
Education and employment shifts
7. Human resource management is conducted to achieve_______________ goals.
management
supervisory
individual
organizational
individual and organizational
8. Which is an HR practice typical of an organization that can be defined as “prospector”?
promote from within
external staffing
less training
extensive training
b and c
Slide 5
Questions 9 - 11
9. Which of the following methods is not a mathematical method for forecasting HR demand?
simulation models
productivity ratios
estimates
statistical regression analysis
10. In the future, HR managers will have to deal with all of the following workforce changes, except.
a more racially diverse workforce
a skills shortfall among workers
an abundance of entry level workers
an older workforce
11. All of the following could be considered steps in forecasting, except:
Understanding external conditions
Projecting future staffing requirements
Projecting the supply of labor
a job analysis
Slide 6
Questions 12 - 14
12. Which one of Hefstede’s cultural dimensions describes how cultures seek to deal with the fact that the future is not perfectly predictable?
individualism/collectivism
power distance
uncertainty avoidance
masculinity/femininity
13. What is a cooperative form of doing business that relies on the talents and capabilities of both labor and management to continually improve quality and productivity?
scientific management
total quality management
continuous learning
trickle-down management
14. What is the planned elimination of large numbers of personnel designed to enhance organizational effectiveness?
merger
downsizing
consolidation
buy-out
Slide 7
Questions 15 - 17
15. The process of analyzing and identifying the need for availability of human resources so that the organization can meet its objectives is known as:
Strategic Planning
SWOT Analysis
Human Resource Planning
Organization Planning
16. A workweek in which a full week’s work is accomplished in fewer than five days is known as:
Flextime
Virtual Offices
Compressed Workweek
Telecommuting
17. A reduction in the size of an organizational workforce is known as:
Downsizing
Layoff
Outplacement
Termination
Slide 8
Questions 18 - 20
18. Development of a business strategy includes:
External scan
Internal scan
Employee dislikes
A and B
19. A unique capability in the organization that creates high value and that differentiates the organization from its competition:
SWOT
Organizational culture
Core competency
None of the above
20. What organization/industry life-cycle is high risk and entrepreneurial spirited:
Shakeouts
Embryonic
Growth
None of the above
Slide 9
Questions 21 - 23
21. What is the primary purpose of an HR audit?
To measure turnover.
To evaluate the effectiveness of an organization.
To compare results to industry standards.
None of the above.
22. In an organizational structure, what is centralization?
The degree to which decision-making authority is restricted to higher levels of management.
The degree to which decision-making authority is given to lower levels in an organization’s hierarchy.
The hierarchical division of labor that distributes formal authority and established how critical
decisions will be made.
A combination of A and C.
23. What three categories is organization development divided into?
Interpersonal, personal, executive.
Interpersonal, technological, structural.
Technological, specializations, interpersonal
Processes, structural, groupings.
Slide 10
Questions 24 - 26
24. In general, organizational development focuses on change. Which of the following are common characteristics of change?
Organizational change moves away from the familiar.
People resist having change imposed on them.
People see change as a loss of something.
All of the above.
25. What are line units?
Work groups that perform specialized services for the company (example: accounting).
Work groups that assist the specialized service departments.
Work groups that conduct the major business of the organization (example: production workers).
Work groups that assist the employee’s who perform the major business of the organization.
26. What is the goal of diversity training?
To create sensitivity.
To help people be aware of cultural differences.
To teach people to respect the rights and ideas of people who are not like them.
All of the above
Slide 11
Questions 27 - 29
27. According to the DOL (Department of Labor), which of the following is not an important characteristic of a profession?
Research
Credentialing
Opportunity for advancement
Code of ethics
28. In the strategic HR planning process, which of the following should be completed first?
Define the organizational mission
Scan the environment
Forecast internal HR supply and demand
Complete a human resource inventory
29. Succession Plans…
Examine employee flows in, up, down, across and out of the organization.
Are a snapshot of key positions and the availability of replacements from current workforce.
Anticipate managerial staffing requirements and develop high quality employees to satisfy these needs
Are used to justify the cost of developing and implementing HR programs.
Slide 12
Questions 30 - 31
30. What is the most important step of setting up an HRIS (human resource information system)?
Prepare a request for proposal.
Analyze needs
Select a system
Implement the system
31. Which of the following is not a way that a company can set up its departments?
Structural
Functional
Divisional
Customer
1. Affirmative Actions Plans are defined as:
Part of EEOC requirements
Written plans for recruiting and hiring minorities and females
Staffing plans for use with government contracts
Quota systems
2. Employment-at-will involves:
An agreement by both parties to an employment contract
Protection by collective bargaining
Termination provisions for just cause dismissals
The ability of either party to terminate the employment relationship at any time
3. A job analysis is:
Part of an Affirmative Action Plan
Produces a job description or a job specification
Required by the EEOC
Produced by a job description or a job specification
Slide 17
Questions 4 - 6
4. Which of the following describes an example of an alternative work schedule?
Job sharing
Self-directed work teams
Job rotation
Task forces
5. Which of the following is the typical method of measuring employee adherence to performance standards?
Lack of quality problems
Goal fulfillment
Participative management
Performance appraisal
6. A validity study, either predictive or concurrent, in which the predictor data are statistically correlated with the criteria of performance:
Criterion-related validity
Content validity
Concurrent validity
Construct validity
Slide 18
Questions 7 - 9
7. Sex discrimination, sexual harassment, racial/ethic discrimination, and age discrimination are all:
Offenses for which employers may be sanctioned under the Taft-Hartley Act
Examples of employment discrimination
Violations of the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor
Policies required to be included in an employer personnel policy and procedure manual
8. A job analysis includes:
Obligations to perform certain tasks
A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions
A systematic way to gather and analyze information about the content and the human requirements of jobs, and the context in which jobs are performed
A larger work segment composed of several tasks that are performed by an individual
9. Performance appraisal is another name for
360 degree feedback
Employee evaluation
Human resources management
Job design
Slide 19
Question 10 - 12
10. Which of the following is an issue addressed by the Civil Rights Act of 1991?
race norming
international employees
seniority system
consent decrees
all of the above
11. The 4/5ths rule states that:
discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market.
discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.
discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market or less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.
12. An index number giving the relationship between a predictor and a criterion variable is:
correlation coefficient
concurrent validity
content validity
predictive validity
Slide 20
Question 13 - 15
13. The Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits discrimination on the basis of:
age
disability
gender
national origin
14. A manager always hires young, women as receptionists. This is an example of:
intentional discrimination
disparate treatment
disparate impact
sexual harassment
15. FMLA requires employers having ___ employees within a ___ mile radius provide 12 weeks of protection for qualified employees.
50, 50
50, 75
100, 50
100, 75
Slide 21
Question 16 - 18
16. A job is:
A group of similar positions having common tasks, duties, and responsibilities.
A task performed by one person.
A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions.
A person’s title at a company
17. A situation that exists when protected-class members are treated differently from others is known as:
Disparate Impact
BFOQ
Business Necessity
Disparate Treatment
18. What type of rule states that discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the groups representation in the relevant labor market or less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group?
3/4ths rule
5/6ths rule
1/4ths rule
4/5ths rule
19. A person with in-dep
Slide 22
Questions 19 - 21
19. A person with in-depth knowledge and expertise in a limited area of HR:
HR generalist
HR manager
HR specialist
All of the above
20. An employee who is a citizen of one country, working in a second country and employed by an organization headquarted in a third country:
Third country national
Host country national
Expatriate
None of the above
21. Which prohibits discrimination in employment on basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin:
Executive Order 11246
Executive Order 11478
Civil Right Act of 1991
Civil Rights Act of 1964
Slide 23
Questions 22 - 24
22. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits which of the following in the workplace?
Discrimination or segregation based on race, color, national origin, religion, or gender.
Discrimination based on pregnancy, childbirth, or related conditions.
Sexual harassment.
All of the above.
23. What does the Family and Medical Leave Act allow employees to do?
To take an extra week of paid vacation.
To take a two-year leave of absence to care for an ill family member.
To take up to twelve weeks of unpaid leave during any twelve-month period in order to care for a d. family member, or to care for self due to a serious health condition.
To buy additional medical benefits.
24. Which of the following are exceptions to the definition of discrimination in the workplace?
Work-related requirements and BFOQ’s.
Seniority systems.
Preferential quota systems
All of the above.
Slide 24
Questions 25 - 27
25. What is disparate treatment?
When protected groups are intentionally treated differently from other employees.
Employees who are evaluated by different standards.
Favoritism based on a person’s hair color.
A and B
26. Individuals can prove a prima facia case of disparate treatment if they can demonstrate that they:
Belong to a minority group or are in a protected class.
Applied for a job for which the employer was seeking applicants.
Were rejected, despite being qualified.
Were rejected and the employer kept looking for people with their qualifications.
All of the above
27. What does the EEO Program require that employers do?
Keep employee medical files separate from employee personal files.
Maintain detailed records on their work force (including applicant flow).
Adjust staffing policies to fit demographic needs.
B and C.
Slide 25
Questions 28 - 30
28. What is an affirmative action program?
When an employer provides a mentoring program for minorities.
A program in which employers identify conspicuous imbalances in their workforce, and take positive steps to correct under representation of protected groups.
An effort by the employer to donate money to inner-city schools.
A program in which the employers provides tuition reimbursements for their minority employees.
29. According to the ADA, the essential job functions in a job description should be listed
In order of importance
In order of time spent on the task.
In alphabetical order
In no order at all, the ADA requires no particular order.
30. Which of the following is an example of listing all employees from highest to lowest in performance?
Forced distribution
Paired Comparison
Ranking
Structuring
Slide 26
Questions 31 - 33
31. Assuming no willful violation, what is the statute of limitations for recovery of back pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act?
Two years
Three years
Four years
Five years
32. Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act :
Prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, gender and national origin.
Applies only to government agencies
Prohibits discrimination based on sexual orientation
Prohibits employers from giving temporary preference to any underrepresented protective group
33. What agency is in charge of enforcing Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act?
NLRB
ADA Board
EEOC
Department of Justice
Slide 27
Questions 34 - 36
34. Which law regulates minimum wages, work hours for children and overtime compensation?
Norris LaGuardia Act
Taft Hartley Act
Fair Labor Standards Act
Wage Discrimination Act
35. Which document Identifies and Gives the right to work to an individual?
U.S. passport
Government I.D.
Social Security Card
U.S. Birth Certificate
36. The FLSA provides for unpaid rest breaks if the break is_____ minutes or over?
15
20
25
30
Slide 28
Questions 37 - 39
37. If the federal minimum wage is $ 5.15 an hour, but the state you live in pays $5.50 an hour. What is the minimum wage that you follow?
$ 5.15
$ 5.25
$ 5.50
You are free to decide.
38. If an employee terminates their employment, how long is the employer required to make insurance under COBRA available to the employee?
18 months
24 months
12 months
16 months
39. If a trainer develops a training program for their employer, who owns the copyright to it?
The person who prints it.
The trainer who wrote it.
The trainer and the employer.
The employer of the trainer who wrote it.
Slide 29
Questions 40 - 42
40. Which one is not a characteristic of an independent contractor?
They have a continuous relationship with the employer
Working off site
Flexibility to set their own work schedules
Furnish their own tools and training.
41. The FLSA regulates all of the following except?
Overtime pay
Employee status
Employee Retirements Plan
Record keeping and other administrative concerns
42. The Railway Labor Act covers which of the following employees?
Railroad employees only
Railroad employees and trucking employees
Railroad employees and airline employees
Railroad employees and maritime employees
Slide 30
Questions 43 - 45
43. A closed shop is a shop that
Employers refuse to hire employees who are members of a union.
Unions require employees to be union members at the time of hiring
Employers establish company-sponsored unions
Is the most frequent type of union environment in the US
44. The OSHA “general duty clause” means:
That the employer must maintain a safe work environment where no standards have been established.
The employer has the right to choose what OSHA regulations to follow as long as they use good judgment.
The employer must establish more strict health and safety guidelines than established by OSHA.
The employer has the option of following state health and safety regulations or OSHA standards.
45. What is not required to be listed on the OSHA Form 200?
Date of the injury
Employee Name
Occupation/ Department
Age of the employee
Slide 31
46. At home many employees, must a company comply with OSHA record keeping?
25
10
11
32
47. Which situation has the highest priority for an OSHA inspection?
An employee complaint of extremely long hours at work.
An employee that is exposed to loud noises.
A situation that causes 7 or more employees to be hospitalized.
An employee who complains about not enough lighting at their workstation.
48. What is the maximum penalty for a willful or repeat violation?
Up to $100,000 for each violation.
Up to $15,000 for each violation.
Up to $70,000 for each violation.
Up to $ 60,000 for each violation
Questions 46 - 48
Slide 32
49. What is the best way to avoid negligent hiring charges?
To check all references
Use psychological testing on applicants
Require drug testing
Use disclaimers
50. A job description should include all of the following except?
Essential functions of the job.
Who the position reports to.
The person who last held that job.
Minimum qualifications for that position.
51. A good MBO has all of the following except:
Obtainable goals and objectives
Goals established by boss or supervisor
Periodic review of objectives
Goals are measurable
Questions 49 - 51
Slide 33
Questions 52-54
52. In the action plan step of the performance management process, all take place except:
The employee agrees with everything said on the evaluation
Specific objectives are set for the next evaluation period
A plan is developed on how the employee will meet new objectives
A discussion on how follow up will take place
53. A progressive discipline is a:
System that fires employees on the first offense
System that is based on co-workers deciding an employee’s punishment
Series of disciplinary actions that results in more severe punishment
Where alternative dispute resolutions are used
54. Quid pro quo means:
Hostile work environment
This for that
Reasonable person
Whistle blowing
Slide 34
55. The Civil Rights Act of 1964, Title VII requires employers with ______ employees to comply with the provisions of the act:
100
75
15
50
56. Employers should respond to sexual harassment complaints with which of the following:
Policy, communications and training, plus investigation and action
Investigation, discipline procedures, and written policies
Reprimand and dismissal
Sympathy for the victim
57. The ADA states that individuals covered by the act:
Are responsible to inform the employer of their impairment
Must pay for their accommodation up to $500.00
Must be able to perform the duties of the job with accommodation
Must be able to perform the essential job functions
Questions 55 - 57
Slide 35
Questions 58 - 60
58. The duties, responsibilities, working conditions, and reporting relationships contained in a job can be found on a:
Job identification
Job posting
Job description
Job knowledge test
59. A type of interview that relies on a careful job analysis to identify the critical job requirements for each position. The interview questions focus on what the person has done in previous situations relative to the job requirements.
Situational interview
Targeted-selection interview
Panel interview
Nondirective interview
60. Which pre-employment measure could a company use to screen candidates for employment who might pose a security risk to the organization?
Polygraph test
Drug test using a blood test
Drug test using a urinalysis test
Background check with the candidate’s permission
Slide 36
Questions 61 - 63
61. The purpose of EEO laws is
to see what can be done about “glass ceiling” concerns
to counterbalance what the Congress felt was a too “employer friendly” attitude by the Supreme Court
to notify age discrimination complainants that the agency is terminating action on their cases and the complainants are then free to file civil suits
protect individuals who share certain characteristics such as race, age, and gender
62. Content validity refers to
a non-statistical approach using a work sample as a test that identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for the job being filled by a particular candidate
validity showing a relationship between an abstract characteristic and job performance
validity measured when test results of applicants are compared with subsequent performance
the extension of the validity of tests to different groups, similar jobs, or other organizations
63. Appropriate responses by employers to sexual harassment complaints include:
having a sexual harassment policy
communications and training
investigation and action
all of the above
Slide 37
Questions 64 - 66
64. A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions is referred to as:
job
task
position
duty
65. Identification of the tasks, duties and responsibilities of a job is defined as:
job specification
skill inventory
job description
performance standard
66. Which of the following is an observation method for conducting job analysis?
work sampling
interviewing
employee diary/log
a and c
Slide 38
Questions 67 - 69
67. Which of the following recruitment methods allows candidates to talk to employers about an opening without making a formal job application?
executive search firms
public employment agencies
employee referrals
career fairs
68. A systematic investigation of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities necessary to do a job is known as:
Job Analysis
Job Evaluation
Job Description
Job Specification
69. Which source of recruiting is not an example of external recruiting?
School Recruiting
Media Sources
Employment Agencies
Promotion
Slide 39
Questions 70 - 72
70. Which of the following is a condition that may exist when a person is denied an opportunity because of preferences given to protected-class individuals who may be less qualified?
Affirmative Action
Reverse Discrimination
Discrimination
Disparate Treatment
71. The best place to start a recruitment program is by conducting a ______ ?
Strategic analysis.
Demand Analysis.
Needs Analysis
Supply Analysis
72. What are the advantages to recruiting employees internally?
They bring new ideas into the organization.
It rewards good work of current employees and improves morale.
It is cost-effective.
It can result in succession of promotions.
B, C, and D
Slide 40
Questions 73 - 75
73. Which of the following is not an example of Internal recruitment strategy?
Job rotation
Job posting
Skill banks
Employee referral
74. Which of the following is an example of asking each applicant similar questions about their same skills?
Structured
Patterned
Directive
Behavioral
75. Which of the following is an example of asking applicants questions about their past behavior?
Behavioral interview
Stress interview
Non-directive
Directive
1. The three phases of training are:
Needs assessment, implementation, evaluation
Job analysis, surveying trainees, evaluation
Commitment from upper management, needs assessment, evaluation
Approach, emphasis, presentation
2. The three learning domains that influence or change behavior are:
Identification, development, education
Cooperation, sharing, evaluating
Preparing, implementing, evaluating
Skills, knowledge, attitude
3. The Hawthorne Studies focused on which of the following:
Assessing the impact of physical and environment on performance
Factors of employee’s social groups and interpersonal relationships created at the work place
Examining interpersonal behavior and credibility
Examining the factors that determine the need for achievement
4. A training technique that involves transferring trainees to different jobs to broaden their focus and to increase their knowledge is:
Job rotation
Job-instruction training
Imitative learning
Computer-assisted instruction
5. Which is not one of the six levels of learning?
Knowledge
Application
Analysis
Apprenticeship
6. Which is not one of the four criteria for evaluating training programs?
Behavior
Synthesis
Reactions
Learning
Human Resource Development (19%) 1-6
Slide 44
7. Which of the following job design practices broadens the scope of a job by expanding the number of different tasks to be performed?
Job enrichment
Division of labor
Job rotation
Job enlargement
8. An employer’s mission statement includes:
short-term needs to meet the strategic plan
a statement of purpose for what the organization values
long-term objectives
a statement of employment practices
9. Direct costs to an employer include:
costs of operating a program
costs for operating the entire department
costs for operating a unit
costs for operating a division
10. The Hawthorne Studies:
examined the personal and interpersonal behaviors in a group setting, which means that trainers should have credibility in their instruction
looked at formal and informal work groups and at factors influencing their cohesiveness and effectiveness, which means social group and interpersonal factors are of key importance to designing a training environment
assessed the impact of physical and environmental influence on employee performance, which means special notice from management may work to increase motivation
examined the factors that determine the need for achievement and explored their relationship to occupational choice which means employees view training better when they see how it helps their career development
11. Which of the following is not a type of training needs analyses?
task analyses
organizational analyses
operations analyses
individual analyses
Questions 7 - 11
Slide 45
Question 12 - 14
12. Common forms of behaviorally experienced training include all of the following except:
diversity training
in-basket training
apprenticeship
case studies/incidents
business games
13. Which of the following is not one of the four strategies used in behavior modification approach?
behavior modeling
positive reinforcement
negative reinforcement
punishment
extinction
13. Which of the following is not one of the four strategies used in behavior modification approach?
behavior modeling
positive reinforcement
negative reinforcement
punishment
extinction
14. The preparation of the employee for future responsibility, often at a different level in the organization is?
development
training
education
needs assessment
Slide 46
15. What assesses the impact of physical and environmental influence on employee performance, which means special notice from management may work to increase motivation?
group dynamics
laboratory training
Hawthorne studies
need for achievement
16. All of the following are types of a training needs analysis, except:
organizational analysis
financial analysis
task analysis
individual analysis
17. The performance of job-related tasks and duties by trainees during training is known as:
Spaced Practice
Active Practice
Massed Practice
Training Practice
18. Which is not a benefit of training?
To increase company expenses
Reduction in errors
Reduction in turnover
Attitude Changes
19. What does the acronym KSA represent:
Knowledge, skill, ability
Knowledge, social, ability
Knowledge, skills, accountability
None of the above
20. Rating all employees in a narrow band in the middle of the rating scale refers to what error:
Rater bias
Recently effect
Strictness
Central tendency
Questions 15 - 20
Slide 47
Questions 21 - 25
21. An error that occurs when a raters values or prejudices distort the rating:
Central tendency
Leniency
Raters bias
None of above
22. Mentoring is:
Ongoing and spontaneous meetings between supervisors and their employees to discuss the employee’s career goals, and to give advice.
Assigning employees to various jobs.
A developmentally oriented relationship between two individuals that involves advising, networking, and supporting.
Demonstrating new skills to the mentored individual
23. What do all four phases of the learning process have in common?
Reaction
Questioning
Results
Behavior
24. Which of the following is not an example of a type of organization according to Miles and Snow Strategy typology
Reactor
Defender
Prospector
Collaborator
25. Which of the following correctly defines training?
Skills that apply to an employees current job
Preparation of the employee for future responsibility
A generalized, individual learning experience
An attempt to modify behavior
1. In a union setting the grievance procedure is a function of:
Harassing the supervisor
Pattern bargaining
Airing gripes
Conflict resolution
2. The phases in the labor relations process are:
Recognition, negotiation, and administration
Determining the bargaining unit, collective bargaining, grievance procedures
Collection of authorization cards, elections, recognition
Collective bargaining, grievances, economic pressures
3. A union shop is one where:
Membership is required before one can be hired
Membership is optional, but dues are required
Membership is required within a specified time period after being hired
Membership is required before the next contract negotiations
4. An informal process of agreement used by the EEOC for resolving charges of discrimination
Constructive discharge
Executive orders
Conciliation
Employment-at-will doctrine
5. Legal theory that makes employers liable for the abusive acts of employees if the employer knew or should have known about the employees’ propensity for such conduct.
Age Discrimination Act
Four-fifths rule
Affirmative Action plans
Negligent hiring
6. Money provided to temporarily assist employees who are laid off through no fault of their own:
Worker’s compensation
Medicare
Perquisites
Unemployment compensation
Slide 50
7. A union shop clause states that:
Workers who take a job in a bargaining unit do not need to join the union
Workers who take a job in a bargaining unit must pay dues to the union but do not need to join
Workers must join the union before they will be considered for a job in a bargaining unit
Workers who take a job in a bargaining unit must join the union within a certain period of time
8. What is the first step that these employees must take if they no longer wish to be represented by their union?
The employees must request temporary leave from the union
The employees must request an investigation by the NLRB
The employees must inform union leaders of their dissatisfaction
The employees must request a decertification election
9. Which of the following legislation prohibits mandatory retirement based on age?
Older Worker’s Benefit Protection Act (1990)
Age Discrimination in Employment Act (1967)
Vocational Rehabilitation Act (1973)
Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (1990)
10. The Wagner Act (National Labor Relations Act) was enacted by Congress in:
1935
1936
1947
1959
Questions 7 -1
Questions 7 -10
Slide 51
11. The Labor Management Relations Act:
protects individuals from their unions with a guaranteed “bill of rights”
mandates employers maintain records on employees, pay at minimum wage, and pay one and one-half for hours worked over 40
provided workers right to organize
provides that employers may not terminate/discriminate against an employee for union involvement
12. The act which prohibits employers with 15 or more workers from discriminating in employment, public services & transportation, public accommodations, and telecom is:
Executive Order 11246
Equal Employment Opportunity Act
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
None of the above
13. A firm that requires employees who refuse to join the union to pay equivalent amounts equal to union dues and fees for the union representative services is defined as:
union shop
agency shop
closed shop
none of the above
14. The “National Labor Code” includes which of the following?
the Wagner Act
the Taft-Hartley Act
the Landrum-Griffin Act
all of the above
none of the above
15. Contract provisions to aid the union in obtaining and retaining members are referred to as:
dues checkoff
mandatory issues
permissive issues
union security provisions
none of the above
Questions 11 - 15
Slide 52
Questions 16 - 20
16. All of the following are mandatory bargaining items, except.
Holidays
Pensions
Hot cargo clauses
Employee security
17. What is the largest labor union?
National Education Assoc. (NEA)
Electrical (IBEW)
Teamsters (IBT)
Auto Workers (UAW)
18. What labor law amended the NLRA and added unfair union labor practices?
Landrum-Griffin Act
Taft-Hartley Act
Fair Labor Standards Act
Wagner Act
19. A firm that requires employees who refuse to join the union to pay amounts equal to union dues and fees for the union’s representative service is known as:
Closed Shop
Union Shop
Open Shop
Agency Shop
20. The process by which a third party assists negotiators in their discussions and also suggests settlement proposals is known as:
Arbitration
Conciliation
Mediation
Ratification
Slide 53
Questions 21 - 25
21. Which of the following is not a type of strike?
Sympathy Strike
Empathy Strike
Economic Strike
Unfair Labor Practice Strike
22. Details of an employment agreement are often spelled out in a formal:
non-piracy agreement
non-compete covenant
implied agreement
employment contract
23. A firm that requires individuals to join a union before they can be hired:
Agency shop
Closed shop
Union shop
All of the above
24. The LRMA was enacted by which of the following acts:
Landrum-Griffin Act
Taft-Hartley Act
Wagner Act
Norris-LaGuardia Act
25. A means by which disputes arising from different interpretations of a labor contract are settled by a third party:
Mediation
Grievance procedure
Grievance arbitration
A and B
Slide 54
Questions 26 - 29
26. Research has identified three psychological determinants that influence a person’s decision to join or avoid a union. What are the three determinants?
The health of the economy, desire to feel accepted, and strong beliefs about the union.
Perception of the work environment, desire to participate, and strong beliefs about the union.
The health of the economy, the perceptions of family members, and the desire to impact society.
Perception of the work environment, the perception of family members, and the feeling that its “the right thing to do.”
27. When is the NLRB authorized to conduct an election?
When a petition has been filed by an employee, an individual, a labor organization, or an employer.
When 30% or more eligible employees have sign authorization cards.
A and B.
When an employer signs a contract agreeing to a union election
28. What is a consent election?
When the regional director schedules a hearing to resolve election disputes.
An order by the NLRB to cancel the election.
An agreement between an employer and the union to waive the pre-election hearing.
None of the above
29. What is the very first step in the union decertification process?
When an employee or group of employees request a decertification.
When union members stop paying dues and attending meetings.
When the employer, the union, and the community come together to request a decertification
election.
When the NLRB sends a notice requiring a decertification election.
Slide 55
Questions 30 - 35
30. Which of the following is an example of an employee who must join the union as a condition of employment?
Union shop
Agency shop
Closed shop
Industrial shop
31. Which of the following is considered illegal?
Agency shop
Union shop
Closed shop
Hiring halls
32. Which of the following is an example of a union organizer working within the company that the union wants to unionize?
Scab
Indirect Pressure
Hand billing
Salting
33. What percent of employees must sign union representation cards to hold an election?
50%
30%
75%
25%
34. The NLRB can waive an election based on all except:
The authorization cards are clear and unambiguous
Employees’ signatures were obtained through threatening and coercing
A fair and impartial election is impossible based on the employers conduct.
The majority of the employees have signed union authorization cards.
35. In an unionized organization which group of employees are more likely to have their own bargaining unit :
Security Guards
Janitors
Electricians and other skilled employees
Unskilled laborers
Slide 56
Questions 36 - 40
36. Organizational picketing is done to:
Obtain employer recognition of the unit as a bargaining representative
Gain public support for the union and its goals
Promote employees acceptance of the union as their representative
Inform employees about what the key issues are
37. The collective bargaining agreement should guarantee specific rights to the employer except:
Rights to determine what product or services they will produce
Restrict the unions use of the company’s property for union meetings
The employer can not file charges against the union
The employer can discipline employees for “just cause”
38. Which of the following activities is a protected activity?
Picketing
Wildcat Strike
Secondary boycotts
Shutdowns
39. In the face of a strike threat, management is most interested in:
How to continue production or providing a service
Providing security for the strikers
Maintaining benefits for striking employees
Notifying the local press
40. What type of strike is unapproved by the union?
Secondary strike
Economic Strike
Lockout
Wildcat Strike
Slide 57
41. Mandatory topics of negotiation is established by:
Unions and employers
Unions
Employers
NLRB
42. Illegal subjects of negotiations include all the following except for:
Wildcat Strikes
Hot Cargo Clauses
Discipline Procedures
Closed Shop Agreements
43. Parallel or pattering bargaining is most common in what industry?
Airline Industry
Professional Sports
Heavy Manufacturing
Automotive Industry
Questions 41 - 45
44. Principled negotiations is not based on:
Separate the people from the problem
Focus on positions
Invent options for mutual gains
Insist on objective criteria
45. What reasons does an employer have to not give the union requested information?
The union requests information for non bargaining related purposes
If the cost of providing the information is prohibitive to the employer
It would violate trade secrets of the employer
The employer must provide all information requested by the union
Slide 58
46. A company that wants to change an existing collective bargaining agreement must notify the other party how many days in advance prior to the expiration of the contract?
30 days
60 days
90 days
120 days
47. What is the final step in the grievance procedure?
The Shake-Out Step between top management and top union officials
The NLRB makes a ruling
Third party determination
The local labor relations representative and the union chairperson
48. Which of the following is least likely to be used in a nonunion environment?
Open door policy
Alternative dispute resolution
Arbitration
Peer reviews
49. The governmental agency that watches over public sector labor management relations is:
NLRB
Department of Labor
Justice Department
Federal Labor Relations Council
Question 46 - 49
Slide 59
Questions 50 - 51 & Answers 1- 20
50. What law governs collective bargaining among federal employees?
Civil Service Reform Act
National Labor Relations Act
Federal Labor Relations Act
Labor-Management Relations Act
51. If an employee files a grievance who is the person that has first opportunity to solve the grievance?
Union Representative
First Line Supervisor
Labor Relations Representative
Union Shop Chairperson
1. Direct compensation includes which of the following:
Flexible benefits
Long-term incentive pay
Workers’ Compensation
Unpaid leave
2. Indirect compensation is represented by which of the following:
Social Security benefits
Short-term incentive pay
Differential pay
Merit pay
3. An audit and review of the services and costs billed by health-care providers is known as:
Procedural review
Practice analysis
Utilization review
Operational control
4. Person-based pay systems:
Pay higher performers more aggressively
Pay employees with long service more
Will not work when large numbers of professionals are employed
Pay employees for what they are capable of doing rather than the tasks they currently perform
5. Executives typically receive:
All of their direct compensation in incentives
Fewer perquisites than other employees
A higher percentage of their direct compensation in base salary than do other employees
A wider variety of compensation programs than do other employees
Slide 62
Questions 6 - 9
6. Which of the following employees must be paid overtime?
A janitor who worked 30 hours during the workweek and was also paid for 12 hours of vacation time
A vice president in charge of operations who worked 50 hours last week
A nonexempt employee who put in 45 hours last week
A dock worker who worked 40 hours, including 10 hours on Christmas
7. Which is an example of a health-related service that would be under the area of employee assistance programs?
Smoking cessation
On-the-job accident protection
Family and marital counseling
High blood pressure control
8. A compensation program should address which of the following objectives?
legal compliance with all appropriate laws and regulations
cost effectiveness for the organization
internal, external, and individual equity for employees
all of the above
9. An employee who holds a non-exempt position under the Fair Labor Standards Act:
exercises discretionary authority for independent action
uses the percentage of his or her time performing routine, manual, or clerical work
earns an annual income in excess of $100,000
none of the above
Slide 63
Questions 10 - 14
10. One strategic business reason for offering a comprehensive benefits package to employees is:
to help attract and retain employees
to beat out the competition
to decrease employer operating costs
to offer cafeteria-style health care plans to employees
11. The Davis-Bacon Act of 1931:
requires company with federal supply or service contracts exceeding $10,000 to pay a prevailing wage
deals only with firms engaged in federal construction projects valued in excess of $2,000 and requires that the “prevailing wage” rate be paid
addresses wage discrimination on the bases of sex
establishes overtime pay requirements
12. Which of the following is not one of the three main factors of the Hay system?
experience
know-how
problem solving
accountability
13. Which of the following is a legally mandated benefit?
social security
unemployment compensation
workers’ compensation
all of the above
14. What provides counseling and other help to employees having emotional, physical and other personal problems?
employee assistance programs
Drug Free Workplace Act
OSHA
wellness programs
Slide 64
Questions 15 - 20
15. Which of the following acts deals directly with discrimination in compensation?
Comparable worth
Equal Pay Act
Davis-Bacon Act
Fair Labor Standards Act
16. Which of the following is a funding feature of a health plan?
HMO coverage
PPO coverage
self-insurance
office visits
17. Total benefits cost (TBC):
is a ratio of benefit cost per employee to average number of employees
is exclusive of miscellaneous items such as education
includes staff time, overhead, processing costs
is not usually calculated because it varies so much
18. Similarity in pay for jobs requiring comparable level of knowledge, skill, and ability, even where actual job duties differ significantly is the:
Equal Pay
Pay Equity
Paycheck Fairness Act
None of the above
19. An incumbent who is paid below the range set for the job:
red-circled employee
green-circled employee
blue-circled employee
None of the above
20. Variable pay is also know as:
incentives
group pay
performance pay
B and C
Slide 65
Questions 21 - 24
21. A security benefit voluntarily offered by employers to employees who lose their job:
COBRA
Severance pay
Unemployment compensation
Supplemental Pay
22. Which of the following categories is not an example of an exempt classification?
Executive
Sales
Professional
Technical
23. The Equal Pay Act for equal work of same skills, effort, and responsibilities. Which of the following is not an exemption of this act?
Seniority
Performance
Geographic location
Overtime
24. Which of the following is an example of payment that is consistent from period to period despite the number of hours worked
Wage
Salary
Reward
Incentive
1. According to OSHA, a recordable case is one in which:
Any type of medical treatment is administered
Includes injuries where first-aid is administered
There is an occupational injury or death
Includes minor scratches, cuts, burns, or splinters
2. A MSDS is required:
When the employment facility is located in the path of hazardous material transportation
For each hazardous chemical that is used, processed, or stored
Any employee handles hazardous materials
An employee is hired into a position that is exposed to hazardous materials
3. Polygraph tests can be administered
To all employees who handle money
To guards hired for certain security firms and workers who manufacture, distribute, or have access to controlled substances
When an employee is suspected of theft or miss-conduct
To any job applicant who has signed a release
4. These standards include general requirements for all machinery to protect the operator and other employees in the machine area from hazards.
Occupational Noise Exposure
Machine Guarding
Mine Safety and Health Act
Hazard Communication
5. A leading cause of stress in the workplace is:
enhanced employee benefits
a lack of personal control in job
a reason for increased motivation in employees
one which the employee alone creates
6. Examples of wellness programs include:
smoking cessation programs
retirement planning
educational type programs (i.e. child care, aging, cancer prevention, etc.)
all of the above
7. When conducting accident investigations and completing reports, employers should:
disregard the employee’s concerns
not maintain the written report
talk to the injured person and witnesses
not complete accident investigations
Risk Management (7%) 1 - 24
Risk Management (7%) 1 - 6
Slide 68
7. When conducting accident investigations and completing reports, employers should:
disregard the employee’s concerns
not maintain the written report
talk to the injured person and witnesses
not complete accident investigations
8. Condition in which the physical well-being of people is protected is defined as:
security
health
safety
none of the above
9. Which of the following is a type of injury or illness defined by the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
lost-time or disability injuries
injury-or-illness related deaths
minor injuries
all of the above
only a and b
10. The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) was passed in:
1912
1960
1970
1986
11. What is the order in which actions should be taken to eliminate work safety problems?
time and motion studies
safety hierarchy
safety progression
safety time line
Questions 7 -11
Slide 69
Questions 12 - 17
12. What type of injury or illness is defined by OSHA?
injury or illness related death
lost-time or disability injuries
medical care injuries
all of the above
13. What type of form does OSHA use to record accidents, illness, and injures?
Form 2000
Form 200
The company is responsible for creating the form
OSHA Notification Report
14. What is the number one cause of death on the job?
Heart Attack
Stroke
Vehicle Accident
Suicide
15. Which of the following is not one of the three different approaches to effective safety management?
Organizational Approach
Engineering Approach
Human Resources Approach
Individual Approach
16. A report that list employee injuries:
OSHA Injury log
OSHA Medical log
OSHA 200 log
OSHA Safety Log
17. The proper design of the work environment to address the physical demands experienced by people:
Physical settings
Comfort zoning
Ergonomics
All of the above
Slide 70
Questions 18 - 20
18. Employees with AIDS who can perform essential functions and are not a threat to the safety of other employees are protected by which of the following acts
Fair Labor Standards Act
Equal Pay Act
Americans With Disabilities Act
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
19. Which of the following does not apply to the Drug Free Workplace Act?
Applies to employers who have contracts/grants with the government
Tobacco and alcohol are not considered controlled substances under the act
Informs employees of requirements, what actions for violations, awareness, and supervisory training
Is a recognized element under the ADA
20. Which of the following is not covered by the Employee Right to Know Act?
Employers must provide written hazard communication programs to train employees about the hazards that they may be exposed to in the workplace
Train the employees about the hazards, how exposure occurs, symptoms, treatment, what to do if exposed, and how to avoid exposure
Form a safety committee and implement safety incentive programs
Chemical manufacturers must provide a material safety data sheet to employer for every hazardous substance