Unit 2

1. 1The Equal Employment Opportunity Act applies to employers who have _____ or more employees.

   1. A50
   2. B15
   3. C10
   4. D25
2. 2Which of the following is an example of a legitimate bona fide occupational qualification?
   

   1. AThe department store feels that it is not appropriate for a man to attend to women in their fitting room, so the store only interviews women for the position.
   2. BAirlines can demonstrate that their passengers prefer female attendants, so they only hire women.
   3. CYounger, more energetic people are needed to operate amusement park rides, so only individuals under thirty are considered.
   4. DWomen are not physically strong enough to operate a roller press, so the company only considers men for the position.
3. 3The glass ceiling in a company refers to

   1. Alegal limits on executive salaries and benefits.
   2. Battitudinal and organizational barriers that prevent women from advancing.
   3. Cupper management who claim to want subordinates' input, but actually insulate themselves from feedback.
   4. Dpositions for which applicants without advanced degrees cannot apply.
4. 4If an employee requests time off for a special religious holiday, the employer should

   1. Arefuse to grant it unless it is part of a collective bargaining agreement.
   2. Bgrant it if it does not unreasonably interfere with the operations of the business.
   3. Cgrant it only if all employees are granted the same day off.
   4. Drefuse to grant it except when it is a recognized holiday.
5. 5If a federal court finds an employer guilty of discrimination it can call for all EXCEPT which of the following remedies?

   1. AElimination of the company's management team
   2. BBack pay awards
   3. CImmediate promotion of minority employees
   4. DReinstatement of terminated employees and hiring quotas
6. 6Executive Order 11246, or Order Number 4, created the _______________ to monitor compliance with the anti-discrimination provisions of the order.

   1. AEEOC
   2. BOSHA
   3. CBFOQ
   4. DOFCCP
7. 7The Supreme Court has ruled that special training programs which are designed to help a company reach its affirmative action goals for minorities and women

   1. Aare appropriate only when they comply with the four-fifths rule.
   2. Bare a required component of an affirmative action program.
   3. Care a cause of reverse discrimination and must be eliminated
   4. Dare acceptable as long as the rights of other workers are not unnecessarily impeded.
8. 8
   The Age Discrimination in Employment Act specifically prohibits discrimination against people who are ______ and older.

   1. A65
   2. B16
   3. C40
   4. D30
9. 9Which of the following BEST qualifies as "due consideration" for signing an agreement to take early retirement?
   

   1. AThe person is over the normal retirement age.
   2. BThe person is a highly-paid executive.
   3. CThe person is offered six months salary.
   4. DThe person is offered a job at another facility.
10. 10A manager suspects that a 70-year old is unable to perform a job because of reduced physical stamina. Which of the following strategies would be best for handling the problem?

    1. AProvide special incentives to induce this employee to retire
    2. BInsist that the employee retire
    3. CAssess the employee's stamina and reassign or terminate the employee if the employee fails the test
    4. DMake the employee's work so unpleasant that the employee will voluntarily quit

11. 11Who are the "otherwise qualified" who are protected by the disability discrimination laws?
    

    1. AThose who can perform all life functions
    2. BThose who are not mentally impaired
    3. CThose who are functionally literate
    4. DThose who could perform the job if special accommodations were made
12. 12Under USERRA, an employer is exempt from the requirement to re-employ an individual returning after uniformed service under all EXCEPT which of the following circumstances?

    1. AThe former employee was dishonorably discharged from the military.
    2. BThe former employee was injured during the military service and can no longer perform the duties of the previous job.
    3. CThe position held by the former employee was a temporary job in a seasonal industry.
    4. DThe employer closed the facility where the former employee was previously working.
13. 13I-9 forms require proof of identity and
    

    1. Aevidence of employment eligibility.
    2. Bproof of citizenship.
    3. Cproof of residence.
    4. Da valid Social Security number.
14. 14To secure an H-1B visa for a foreign worker, a company must
    

    1. Ademonstrate that the foreign worker will not displace a local worker.
    2. Bverify that the foreign worker has been employed abroad continuously for one year by the company.
    3. Cclassify the job as a permanent full-time position.
    4. Dshow that no workers in the United States possess the necessary skills and training to perform the job.
15. 15The purpose of long range human resource plans is

    1. Ato guide the day-to-day operations.
    2. Bto facilitate strategic business planning.
    3. Cto prepare adequate numbers of well-trained replacements.
    4. Dto see that sufficient recruiting resources are available.
16. 16The goal of strategic human resource planning is the establishment of ongoing systems that will

    1. Areplace employees with machines.
    2. Bensure the availability of skilled and competent workers.
    3. Cforecast the financial costs of future employees.
    4. Dpredict the future unemployment rate
17. 17Which of the following statements about employment forecasts is TRUE?
    

    1. AEmployment forecasts are useful even if they turn out to be inaccurate.
    2. BThe forecasts of companies in an unstable environment are generally more accurate than companies in a stable environment.
    3. CLong-term forecasts are generally more accurate than short-term forecasts.
    4. DGood forecasts must be based only upon facts, never on assumptions.
18. 18The major people responsible for the success of unit demand forecasting are

    1. Asupervisors.
    2. Bcorporate planning staff.
    3. Ctop management.
    4. Dhuman resource managers.
19. 19A computer program that simulates the business environment of an organization and forcasts future employment needs depending on alternative decisions and economic conditions is called

    1. Aa regression analysis.
    2. Bthe Delphi technique.
    3. Cwork-load analysis.
    4. Da probabilistic model.
20. 20In a turnover analysis, HR managers should be MOST concerned about turnover caused by

    1. Apromotions and transfers.
    2. Bdischarge or layoffs.
    3. Cretirement.
    4. Ddeath or disability.
21. 21The union provision of bumping allows for

    1. Aolder workers to take the jobs of younger workers during downsizing.
    2. Bhigher seniority employees to replace lower seniority employees during layoffs.
    3. Cunion leaders to countermand the instructions of supervisors.
    4. Dhigher status workers to have first choice in the scheduling of overtime hours and shifts.
22. 22After an acquisition or merger, the human resource department should
    

    1. Amaintain previous pay systems since there has already been a great deal of frustration with the change.
    2. Bforecast future employment needs.
    3. Cbuy stock in the new company.
    4. Dredesign jobs to eliminate duplicate functions and unnecessary tasks.
23. 23Conducting an HR due diligence review prior to a merger or acquisition typically provides information regarding all EXCEPT which of the following

    1. Asafety history.
    2. Bgolden parachutes.
    3. Cunion contracts.
    4. Dpending legislation.
24. 24The chief advantage of employee leasing is that it

    1. Aimproves the quality of work and commitment to the company.
    2. Bprovides fresh ideas and new creativity.
    3. Creduces the costs of employee benefits.
    4. Drelieves the company of the burden of administering HR services and record keeping.
25. 25The three major elements of a job description include identification, job summary, and

    1. Aduties and responsibilities.
    2. Btraining required.
    3. Csupervision given or received.
    4. Dknowledge and skills.
26. 26The greatest disadvantage of relying on observations when conducting a job analysis is

    1. Aemployees know they are being observed and they feel embarrassed.
    2. Bobservations are an invasion of employee privacy.
    3. Cmany vital job functions are not visible on some jobs.
    4. Dobservations cannot be objectively categorized or recorded.
27. 27The process of developing and projecting an image that defines a company as an outstanding employer is called

    1. Aemployment benchmarking.
    2. Bemployment exposition.
    3. Cemployment projection.
    4. Demployment branding.
28. 28Which of the following is the MOST important consideration in evaluating the effectiveness of a recruitment program?

    1. AYield ratio
    2. BCompa-ratio
    3. CIncidence rate
    4. DLearning curves
29. 29A policy of promoting people from within the company does all but which of the following?
    

    1. ACreates greater motivation
    2. BStimulates greater company loyalty
    3. CIncreases satisfaction
    4. DContributes greater insight and fresh ideas
30. 30Which of the following is NOT true of Internet recruiting?
    

    1. AAccepting job applications over the Internet may result in more applicants than a company can feasibly screen.
    2. BOffering only web-based options for job applications may have an adverse impact on minorities.
    3. CBecause Internet recruiting is the most cost effective, companies should limit their employment application process to the Internet and email.
    4. DMore than half of all new hires are a result of Internet-based recruiting.
31. 31Which of the following statements BEST describes how private employment agencies operate?

    1. AAll fees are charged to the new employees who are placed in a job.
    2. BAll fees are charged to the employers.
    3. CThey are financially supported by the Department of Labor.
    4. DThe fees may be charged to either the employer or the employee.
32. 32Which of the following is NOT an advantage of external hiring?
    

    1. AProvides greater diversity
    2. BImproves morale and organizational loyalty
    3. CProvides new ideas and insights
    4. DDoes not disrupt present organizational structure
33. 33If good eyesight is a necessary prerequisite for performing a job and a valid test of visual acuity is part of the selection procedure, how should this information be used?

    1. AA weighted composite should be computed with vision as one of the variables included in the equation.
    2. BThe person making the selection decision should make a clinical judgment and consider all the factors.
    3. CA multiple cut-off procedure should be used so that people with poor eyesight are immediately eliminated.
    4. DInformation about eyesight should be disregarded since it discriminates against people for no fault of their own.
34. 34An organization should collect extensive, reliable, and valid data about job applicants when

    1. Aalmost any applicant could perform acceptably.
    2. Ball applicants are roughly equal in their ability to perform.
    3. Cthey have many qualified applicants to choose from.
    4. Dthe cost of making a bad hiring decision is very high.
35. 35The BEST predictor of how people will perform in the future is
    

    1. Ahow well they did in grade school.
    2. Btheir grades in high school and college.
    3. Chow they have performed in the past.
    4. Dwhat their previous employers or work associates say about them.
36. 36An employment test is reliable if
    

    1. Asimilar scores are achieved by an employee who takes the test two or more times under similar conditions.
    2. Bthe personnel department can depend on it as a good predictor of employee performance.
    3. Cit is difficult to guess the correct answers.
    4. Dit achieves what it is intended to achieve.
37. 37When two forms of the same test are given to job applicants to test for reliability, this is known as

    1. Ainter-rater reliability.
    2. Balternate-forms reliability.
    3. Cdouble reliability.
    4. Dtest-retest reliability.
38. 38Although the EEOC will accept other forms of validity, it prefers
    

    1. Asynthetic validity.
    2. Bcontent validity.
    3. Cconstruct validity.
    4. Dcriterion-related validity.
39. 39According to the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, any selection procedure that has an adverse impact on the hiring of protected individuals is discriminatory unless
    

    1. Athe selection procedure has high reliability.
    2. Bthe selection procedure has been validated.
    3. Cthere is no evidence of discriminatory intent.
    4. Dmore than four-fifths of applicants in a protected class are successful.
40. 40If a job applicant has an obvious disability, the interviewer should
    

    1. Aexplain what reasonable accommodations the company is prepared to make.
    2. Brequire the applicant to have a medical exam.
    3. Cask about the nature and duration of the disability.
    4. Ddescribe the essential functions of the job and ask if the applicant can perform them.
41. 41According to the EEOC guidelines, which would be a legal and appropriate hiring question?

    1. AWere you dishonorably discharged from the military?
    2. BHave you ever been arrested?
    3. CDo you have preschool children who will need to be cared for?
    4. DDo you have a legal right to work in this country?
42. 42Targeted-selection interviews assume that

    1. Aputting applicants in stressful situations in the interview helps predict how they will perform in a stressful job.
    2. Bpre-determined questions and possible responses provide the best quantitative data.
    3. Cjob applicants should determine the course of the interview discussion.
    4. Dpast behavior is the best predictor of future behavior.
43. 43Tests which measure the capacity for learning are called _________ tests.
    

    1. Aaptitude
    2. Bachievement
    3. Cjob sample
    4. Dmental ability
44. 44Why did personnel testing dramatically decline after the Supreme Court's ruling in Griggs v. Duke Power Company?

    1. AThe Supreme Court decided personnel tests were illegal.
    2. BThe tests were not a good predictor of future performance.
    3. CCompanies did not know if their selection tests were valid.
    4. DApplicants didn't like taking the tests.
45. 45A procedure for selecting managers which lasts two or three days and involves a group of applicants in a variety of group and individual exercises such as leaderless group discussions and in-baskets is called

    1. Aa selection center.
    2. Bmanagerial succession training.
    3. Ca peer group review.
    4. Dan assessment center.
46. 46Which of the following has been shown to be the MOST effective method of managerial selection?

    1. AInterviews
    2. BBiographical information blanks
    3. CAchievement tests
    4. DAssessment center
47. 47The qualified privilege doctrine helps protect employers from which type of charges?
    

    1. AEEO discrimination
    2. BWrongful discharge
    3. CDefamation
    4. DReverse discrimination
48. 48When an employer uses negative information in an investigative consumer report to deny employment to a job applicant, the employer is required to

    1. Aobtain a second report from a second credit reporting agency to confirm the information.
    2. Bfurnish the applicant with a toll-free number to the agency that provided the report.
    3. Cconfirm the accuracy of the report by contacting the sources and only use the information if it can substantiate its accuracy.
    4. Dprotect the anonymity of the sources who provided the information unless ordered by a court.
49. 49Human resource managers should be MOST concerned about the legality of conducting drug tests of

    1. Aemployees who have been involved in an industrial accident.
    2. Bpublic employees who are randomly selected to participate in a drug screening program.
    3. Cemployees who are reasonably suspected of using drugs.
    4. Demployees who perform safety-sensitive jobs.
50. 50A selection error where an applicant was hired but has demonstrated poor performance is called a

    1. Afalse positive error.
    2. Bbase rate error.
    3. Cvalidity coefficient error.
    4. Dfalse negative error.

Beschreibung

Unit 2 Quiz am Unit 2, erstellt von Steven Strenkowski am 01/11/2019.

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Steven Strenkowski

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Erstellt am 1 Nov 2019 · aktualisiert am 2 Nov 2019

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