Quiz
4T051A CDC Test part 2
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Fragen in diesem Quiz (120)
1Each step in the synthesis of thyroid hormones is regulated by the pituitary hormone...
- Atriiodothyronine.
- Btetraiodothyronine.
- Cthyroid releasing hormone.
- Dthyroid stimulating hormone.
2When collecting samples for thyroid testing, remember that although plasma samples may be used, these samples...
- Aare only stable for 24 hours.
- Bmust be separated immediately.
- Ctend to form fibrin clots after freezing and thawing.
- Dwill have a tendency to increase all chemical reaction times.
3Pituitary hormones are classified based on...
- Athe ability to produce insulin.
- Bthe activity in the presence of steroids.
- Ctheir interaction with other hormones.
- Dthe portion of the gland they are secreted from.
4In addition to promoting protein synthesis in young mammals, growth hormone (GH) also promotes...
- Afat storage.
- Bskeletal growth.
- Cglucose metabolism.
- Dimunoglobulin production.
5An adrenomedullary hormone that facilitates the generation of energy in response to fear, anger, or aggression is...
- Aepinephrine.
- Bgonadotropin.
- Cadrenocorticotropin.
- Dprolactin corticotropin.
6The tracking of a patient's drug concentration is known as...
- Apharmacology.
- Bcollecting a peak.
- Csteady state monitoring.
- Dtherapeutic drug monitoring.
7The phenomenon that occurs when the liver metabolizes a drug before it gets into the systemic circulation is kn own as the...
- Adrug half-life.
- Bdrug digression.
- Cfirst-pass effect.
- Dhepatic inversion.
8The difference between a peak and a trough sample is the...
- Atrough is drawn while fasting.
- Btrough is drawn just after a dose is given.
- Cpeak is drawn just before a dose is given.
- Dpeak is drawn at a drug's maximum absorption.
9When monitoring antipsychotic drugs, one of the most commonly observed requests is for...
- Asodium.
- Blithium.
- Cbicarbonate.
- Dphenobarbital.
10When ingested, the principle action of ethanol is...
- Ato lower blood glucose.
- Bto cause anxiety and paranoia.
- Cthe depression of the central nervous system.
- Dthe heightening of reflexes and mental processes.
11Which one of the following statements best illustrates a reason for a legal blood alcohol case to be dismissed?
- APhysician determined the state of intoxication.
- BSample was collected using a non-alcoholic skin cleanser.
- CTechnician did not follow laboratory operating instructions.
- DEquipment was recently calibrated and all quality control results verified.
12When an intoxicated patient refuses to have his or her blood drawn for an alcohol test, who can authorize the sample collection anyway?
- ALaboratory technician.
- BAttending health care provider.
- CAny member of the security forces squadron.
- DCompetent authority, usually with the advice of the Staff Judge Advocate.
13What can cause a low ethanol result in a patient who is obviously intoxicated?
- AReagent pack was just opened.
- BThe patient had mixed his or her drinks.
- CPatient drank isopropanol, and you performed an enzymatic ethanol test.
- DPatient has had so much alcohol to drink that the analyzer cannot run effectively.
14The problem with initial clinical findings in patients who have overdose on acetaminophen is the...
- Ainitial findings require stomach-pumping.
- Bpatients will dehydrate, making sample collection difficult.
- Cpatients usually vomit digested tablets, which cannot be counted.
- Dinitial findings are mild, and do not indicate the degree of hepatic damage.
15When testing for an overdose of aspirin, you are actually...
- Aestablishing a baseline level.
- Bperforming reverse comparison testing.
- Ctesting for the metabolyte, salicylate, and not the original drug.
- Ddetermining whether or not the patient will require an antidote
16Treatment for salicylate intoxication is aimed at preventing further absorption of the drug. This is accomplished by...
- Athe administration of the antidote.
- Bdrinking a mild base to offset the acid.
- Cdrinking vegetable oil to line the stomach.
- Dinducing vomiting or by giving activated charcoal.
17The effects of poisons are either...
- Alocal or remote.
- Bacute or chronic.
- Clocal or systemic.
- Dintracellular or extracellular.
18Improper use of insecticides can lead to significant exposure to...
- Anitrogen.
- Bheavy metals.
- Ccarbon monoxide.
- Doxygenated compounds.
19The threshold levels for positive codeine and morphine, in urine drug testing programs, are usually adjusted to take into account the...
- Apossibility of a prescription.
- Bnatural secretion of these items by the body.
- Cconsumption of poppy seeds in breads, cakes, and muffins.
- Dexposure of an individual to marijuana smoke at a rock concert.
20It has been theorized that cancer is a multi-stage genetic process. Which of the following represents the stages in the correct sequence?
- ASelection of successful growing mutant cells, chromosome breakdown, DNA damage.
- BDNA damage, chromosome breakdown, selection of successful growing mutant cells.
- CSelection of successful growing mutant cells, DNA damage, chromosome breakdown.
- DDNA damage, selection of successful growing mutant cells, chromosome breakdown.
21Which of the following carcinogens could cause the initial change to the cellular DNA during the cancerous process?
- AViruses.
- BRadiation.
- CChemicals.
- DAll of the above.
22Which of the following types of tumor are generally more aggressive and have a poorer prognosis?
- AWell differentiated.
- BPoorly differentiated.
- CModerately differentiated.
- DModerately well differentiated.
23Which of the following is not a suggested criterion for the idea tumor marker?
- ABe specific to the tumor studied and commonly associated with it.
- BBe easy and inexpensive to measure in readily available body fluid.
- CBe non-specific to the tumor studied and commonly associated with it.
- DHave stable plasma levels, urine levels, or both, not subject to wild fluctuation.
24The common measurements used in microscopy are...
- Amillimeter and nanometer.
- Bmillimeter and centimeter.
- Cmicrometer and nanometer.
- Dmicrometer and centimeter.
25Which statement best describes simple and compound microscopes?
- ASimple microscopes use light principles; compound microscopes use electronic principles.
- BSimple microscopes use electronic principles; compound microscopes use light principles.
- CSimple microscopes contain a group of diverse lenses; compound microscopes contain a single lens.
- DSimple microscopes contain a single lens; compound microscopes contain a group of diverse lenses.
26Which term is described as "light whose rays have been bent out of their original course by passing through a transparent membrane"?
- ADiffused.
- BReflected.
- CRefracted.
- DDeflected.
27All of the following are examples of basic lens shapes except...
- Aflat.
- Bconvex.
- Cconcave.
- Dcompound.
28The resolving power of microscope lenses is its ability to...
- Agather light.
- Bprevent aberrations.
- Cprovide illumination.
- Ddistinguish fine details and structures.
29The magnification system of a microscope includes...
- Acondenser and eyepieces.
- Bobjectives and eyepieces.
- Ccondenser and illuminator.
- Dobjectives and illuminator.
30What component concentrates, directs, and focuses the path of light onto the object under examination?
- ACondenser.
- BInternal light.
- CIris diaphragm.
- DField diaphragm.
31What is the total magnification of an object when the objective power is 20X, and the eyepiece power is 10X?
- A10X.
- B20X.
- C200X.
- D2,000X.
32Markers (grids, scales, etc.) used for measuring objects are placed on the...
- Aobjective.
- Bcondenser.
- Ciris diaphragm.
- Deyepiece diaphragm.
33To enhance light absorption and contrast of objects in brightfield microscopy,
- Ause oil.
- Bstain the objects.
- Cadjust the condenser.
- Dincrease the light intensity.
34Which step is incorrect when using an oil objective?
- APass a dry objective through the oil.
- BFocus initially using the 10X object.
- CPlace an oil drop on the object above the light beam.
- DMove the oil objective into place and focus using the fine adjustment knob.
35Which microscopic method is useful in examining unstained microorganisms suspended in fluid?
- ADarkfield.
- BBrightfield.
- CFluorescence.
- DInterference-contrast.
36The detailed examination of internal structures in living cells and microorganisms as they move and change shape can be accomplished by using...
- Adarkfield microscopy.
- Bphase-contrast microscopy.
- Cscanning electron microscopy.
- Dtransmission electron microscopy.
37Which microscopic method allows the study of fine details and ultra structures, and what is its principle?
- APhase-contrast; use of electron beams.
- BElectron microscopy; use of electron beams.
- CPhase-contrast; use of variations in refractive index and light intensity.
- DElectron microscopy; use of variations in refractive index and light intensity.
38Which human body requirement is critical because most of the chemical activities take place in this medium?
- AFood.
- BWater.
- CEnvironment.
- DAir (oxygen).
39All of the following are activities of metabolism except...
- Anutrition.
- Bsythesis.
- Ccellular respiration.
- Dinternal temperature.
40The automatic tendency of the human body to maintain a relative constant internal environment is known as...
- Ahemostasis.
- Bhomeostasis.
- Cphysiological dynamics.
- Dpsychological dynamics.
41When discussing the various levels of organization of the human body, atoms of hydrogen and oxygen combining to form water best illustrates the...
- Aorgan level.
- Bcellular level.
- Cchemical level.
- Dorganism level.
42Which body system transports material from one area of the body to another and helps defend the body against disease?
- ASkeletal.
- BNervous.
- CCirculatory.
- DRespiratory
43Which statement best describes the homeostasis function of the endocrine system?
- AControls body temperature.
- BPasses on all genetic codes for cells.
- CMaintains calcium levels and cellular elements in blood.
- DRegulates metabolic activities and blood levels of various substances.
44The purpose of the ureters is to...
- Adrain urine from the bladder.
- Bprevent the flow of urine from the bladder.
- Creabsorb nutrients from metabolism for later use by the body.
- Dtransport urine produced in the kidneys to the bladder for storage.
45As the urinary bladder begins to fill, the muscular wall...
- Abecomes firm.
- Bstats peristalsis.
- Cbecomes thinner.
- Dstarts urinary contraction
46The tube-like structure that drains urine from the bladder and conveys it to the outside of the body is the...
- Aurethra.
- Bureter.
- Cinternal sphincter.
- Dexternal sphincter.
47What are the two main regions within the kidney covering, and where are they positioned?
- AMedulla - inner region; cortex - outermost region.
- BMedulla - outermost region; cortex - inner region.
- CProximal convoluted tube - inner region; loop of Henle - outermost region.
- DProximal convoluted tube - outermost region; loop of Henle - inner region.
48The basic functional unit of the kidney is the...
- Acortex.
- Bmedulla.
- Cnephron.
- Drenal column.
49The combination of the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule is often called a...
- Amajor calyx.
- Bminor calyx.
- Ccapillary bed.
- Drenal corpuscle.
50Kidney tubules are divided into three sections: the proximal and distal convoluted tubules, and the...
- Aloop of Henle.
- Brenal corpuscle.
- Cefferent arteriole.
- Dafferent arteriole.
51The kidney receives its blood supply from the...
- Arenal vein.
- Brenal artery.
- Cabdominal vein.
- Dabdominal artery.
52Nephrons can generally be subdivided into two fluid circuits that are known as the...
- Adistal and proximal circuits.
- Bblood and the filtrate (urine) circuits.
- Cafferent and the efferent arteriole circuits.
- Dsystemic and diastolic pressure circuits.
53The two processes the kidney uses to produce urine are...
- Afiltration and excretion.
- Bsecretion and excretion.
- Cfiltration and reabsorption.
- Dsecretion and reabsorption.
54As glomerular filtrate begins to move along the tubular system of the nephron, the process of reabsorption takes place in the...
- Atubules.
- Brenal corpuscle.
- Cafferent arteriole.
- Defferent arteriole.
55What kidney disorder or disease is characterized by a sudden, serious decrease in kidney function that may be fatal?
- APyelonephritis.
- BHydronephrosis.
- CAcute renal failure.
- DChronic renal failure.
56Which kidney disease is the most common and usually occurs after a streptococcal infection?
- AUremia.
- BPyelonephritis.
- CHydronephrosis.
- DAcute glomerulonephritis.
57Which disorder results from fluid-containing sacs destroying functional kidney parts and how is it treated?
- APtosis; surgical removal.
- BPolycystic; surgical removal.
- CPtosis; dialysis or kidney transplant.
- DPolycystic; dialysis or kidney transplant.
58Which one of the following is an inflammation of the bladder and in whom is it most frequent?
- ACystitis; men.
- BUrethritis; men.
- CCystitis; women.
- DUrethritis; women.
59When performing urinalysis testing, all of the following are correct except...
- Aensuring correct patient identification.
- Binforming the patient about the procedure(s).
- Ctreating the urine specimen as if it was infectious.
- Dwearing personal protective equipment when handling urine specimens.
60The first step toward reporting accurate and reliable urinalysis results is...
- Acollecting a proper specimen.
- Bannotating time of collection.
- Cperforming confirmatory procedures on all positive tests.
- Dmeasuring total urine volume on 24-hour urine specimens.
61Which specimen is generally the most concentrated and preferred for microscopic examination?
- ACatheter.
- BRandom.
- CFirst-morning.
- DDouble-voided.
62Which specimen is required for measuring the total amount of solutes excreted during a day?
- ARandom.
- B24-hour urine.
- CFirst-morning.
- DDouble-voided.
63Which one of the following is not a type of urine specimen?
- ATimed.
- BRandom.
- CClean-catch.
- DFirst-morning.
64To guarantee specimen integrity and suitability, inspect the specimen for all the following except...
- Aadequate volume.
- Bcontamination with bacteria.
- Cage, <2 hours old if not preserved.
- Dcorrect patient information on slip and container label.
65If the urine specimen for routine analysis cannot be analyzed within 2 hours,
- Afreeze the sample.
- Brefrigerate the sample or use chemical preservatives.
- Chave the patient come back in 2 hours and recollect the sample.
- Dcall the health care provider for permission to discard the sample.
66Refrigeration of urine samples is adequate for most chemical components except...
- Aprotein and glucose.
- Bbilirubin and glucose.
- Cprotein and urobilinogen.
- Dbilirubin and urobilinogen.
67Refrigeration of urine samples can precipitate out...
- Auric acid crystals that obscure microscopic examinations.
- Buric acid crystals that obscure macroscopic examinations.
- Camorphous urates and/or phosphates that obscure microscopic examinations.
- Damorphous urates and/or phosphates that obscure macroscopic examinations.
68The best statement describing the abilities of most renal function tests is they can...
- Adifferentiate between localized and generalized damage.
- Bdifferentiate between temporary and permanent malfunction.
- Creveal primary and secondary deformity and what goes on inside the kidney.
- Dreveal only whether or not dysfunction is present and a rough estimate of its severity.
69The theoretical concept defined as the volume of plasma from which a measured amount of substance can be completely eliminated into the urine per unit of time is the...
- Aclearance.
- Burine concentration.
- Cplasma concentration.
- Dglomerular filtration rate.
70Creatinine clearance is used for assessment of glomerular filtration rate because blood and urine assays for insulin and p-aminohippuric acid are...
- Anot well correlated to each other.
- Btoo difficult to collect as a 24-hour sample.
- Ctoo difficult and time consuming to be practical in clinical laboratories.
- Dnot as sensitive as creatinine clearance procedures performed enzymatically.
71Which one of the following is the major constituent of nonprotein nitrogen substances?
- AUrea.
- BUric acid.
- CAmmonia.
- DAmino acids.
72Which of the following classifications of urea azotemia is caused by carcinoma of the bladder or ureters and kidney stones?
- ARenal.
- BPrerenal.
- CPostrenal.
- DNonrenal.
73Which of the following anticoagulants should not be used for plasma urea nitrogen procedures?
- ASodium heparin.
- BLithium heparin.
- CPotassium heparin.
- DAmmonium heparin.
74Indirect methods for urea are based on preliminary hydrolysis of urea with urease followed by some process that quantitates the...
- Apicrate ion.
- Bammonium ion.
- Cdiazine chromogen.
- Dpotassium iodide chromogen.
75Why is an individual's creatinine excretion rate relatively constant and what is its clearance an indicator of?
- ACreatinine produced is not proportional to muscle mass; RPF.
- BCreatinine produced is not proportional to muscle mass; GFR.
- CDietary intake of creatinine causes only minor variations; RPF.
- DDietary intake of creatinine causes only minor variations; GFR.
76A disorder of purine metabolism which occurs when monosodium urates are deposited in and around joints, bursae, and subcutaneous tissues is known as...
- Agout.
- Btoxemia.
- Chypouricemia.
- DLesh-Nyhan syndrome.
77Which of the following uric acid methods is more specific and why?
- AUricase method; has a single or initial step of urate oxidation catalyzed by the enzyme uricase.
- BUricase method; has the availability of high-quality, low-cost preparations of the uricase bacterial enzyme.
- CPTA method; because it uses spectrophotometric wavelengths of 650 to 700 nm to real the tungsten blue reaction.
- DPTA method; because it relies on the development of a blue reaction (tungsten blue) as PTA is reduced by urate in an alkaline medium.
78Where does ammonia conversion to urea take place, and why is it so important?
- ALiver; because of its renal toxicity.
- BIntestines; because of its renal toxicity.
- CLiver; because of its central nervous system toxicity.
- DIntestines; because of its central nervous system toxicity.
79Falsely elevated ammonia results may be due to all of the following except...
- Apoor venipuncture.
- Bsmoking by the technician.
- Ccontamination of specimen by the laboratory atmosphere.
- Dplacing the specimen immediately on ice after the venipuncture.
80Normal amino acid metabolism starts in the...
- Aliver.
- Bblood.
- Ckidneys.
- Dintestines.
81Primary aminoaciduria and aminoacidemia is due to...
- Aan inherited enzyme defect.
- Bprotein-energy malnutrition.
- Cgeneralized renal tubular dysfunction.
- Dprotein intake above normal requirements.
82What test is used for neonatal screening for PKU and what microorganism does it usually incorporate into the agar medium?
- AGuthrie test; Bacillus cereus.
- BGuthrie test; Bacillus subtilis.
- CBerthelot's test; Bacillus cereus.
- DBerthelot's test; Bacillus subtilis.
83Which of the following urine volume terms is associated with a decreased urinary output of less than 500 ml in a 24-hour period?
- AAnuria.
- BOliguria.
- CPolyuria.
- DHypouria.
84The chief or major pigment found in normal urine is...
- Aurobilin.
- Burochrome.
- Curoerythrin.
- Durobilinogen.
85"Visible particulate matter is present and newspaper print is blurry if viewed through the specimen: is a description of the appearance term...
- Ahazy.
- Bclear.
- Ccloudy.
- Dturbid.
86Specific gravity is the...
- Ahydrogen activity of a solution.
- Bvelocity of light in air to the velocity of light in solution.
- Cmeasurement of the number of solute particles per unit amount of solvent.
- Dweight of a substance compared with that of an equal volume of another substance taken as the standard.
87Which of the following physical characteristic measurements is not valuable in estimating the kidney's concentrating ability?
- AOsmolality.
- BpH.
- CSpecific gravity.
- DRefractive index.
88A reducing substance, most commonly found in urine, and is the most clinically significant is...
- Apentose.
- Blactose.
- Cglucose.
- Dgalactose.
89Although the renal threshold varies from individual to individual, at what levels is the renal threshold for glucose exceeded and what is the result?
- A120-160 mg/dl; oliguria.
- B160-200 mg/dl; oliguria.
- C120-160 mg/dl; glycosuria.
- D160-200 mg/dl; glycosuria.
90Which of the following glucose procedures is a more specific test for glucose and what methodology does it employ?
- AGlucose oxidase; enzymatic.
- BBenedict's reaction; enzymatic.
- CGlucose oxidase; heavy metal reduction.
- DBenedict's reaction; heavy metal reduction.
91Which of the following interferents does not cause a false-negative or falsely lower result with the reagent strip?
- AKetones.
- BFructose.
- CAscorbic acid.
- DRefrigerated specimens.
92Which of the following chemical(s) used in the reagent strip reacts with bilirubin to form azobilirubin?
- ASodium nitroprusside.
- BTetrabromphenol blue.
- CStabilized 2,4-dicholroaniline diazonium salt.
- DDiisopropylbenzene dihydroperoxide, 3,3',5,5'-tetramethylbenzidine.
93What reagent is combined with sodium nitroprusside to enhance color differentiation in the confirmatory test for ketone bodies?
- ALactose.
- BPentose.
- CMethyl red.
- DBromthymol blue.
94Properly functioning kidneys are able to alter the specific gravity of urine in a range from...
- A1.000-1.025.
- B1.000-1.030.
- C1.003-1.035.
- D1.003-1.040
95Which of the following conditions may be a result of a transfusion reaction, severe burns, or poisoning with strong acids or mushrooms?
- AHematuria.
- BBilirubinuria.
- CMyoglobinuria.
- DHemoglobinuria.
96What is the normal pH range of freshly-voided urine and what are the indicators used in the reagent strip?
- A3.5-7.0; methyl red and bromthymol blue.
- B3.5-7.0; neutral red tetrabromphenol blue.
- C4.5-8.0; methyl red and bromthymol blue.
- D4.5-8.0; neutral red tetrabromphenol blue.
97Which one of the following conditions is probably the most significant pathological condition found in routine urinalysis?
- AKetonuria.
- BHematuria.
- CProteinuria.
- DBilirubinuria.
98Which of the following proteins is the primary protein fraction normally excreted in urine?
- AAlbumin.
- BGlobulin.
- CBence Jones.
- DTamm-Horsfall.
99Bence Jones protein may be found in all of the following except...
- Amultiple myeloma.
- Bmacroglobulinemia.
- Cmalignant lymphoma.
- Dupper urinary tract infection.
100The reagent strip method for detecting protein in urine is based on the...
- Aprotein error of indicators with bromthymol blue as the indicator.
- Bprotein error of indicators with tetrabromphenol blue as the indicator.
- Cperoxidase-like activity of protein with bromthymol blue as the indicator.
- Dperoxidase-like activity of protein with tetrabrompheno blue as the indicator.
101In the confirmatory test for urinary protein, the most commonly used precipitation procedure is the...
- Asodium sulfate method.
- Bsulfosalicylic acid method.
- Ctrichloroacetic acid method.
- Dtrichloroacetic acid with sodium sulfate method.
102In what condition is urobilinogen completely absent in the urine?
- ALiver disease.
- BBiliary blockage.
- CHemolytic disorders.
- DAll of the above.
103Why must a urine sample be fresh and protected from light before urobilinogen testing?
- AUrobilinogen is converted to urobilin upon standing.
- BUrobilinogen is converted to bilirubin upon standing.
- CBilirubin is converted to urobilin during refrigeration.
- DBilirubin is converted to urobilinogen during refrigeration.
104Which one of the following reagent strip tests are very useful in detecting asymptomatic urinary tract infections?
- ANitrite and blood.
- BProtein and blood.
- CNitrite and leukocyte esterase.
- DProtein and leukocyte esterase.
105Which of the following stains are common supravital stains used for identifying most cells and casts in urinary sediment?
- AOil red O and Sudan III.
- BGram stain and papanicolaou.
- CHansel, Wright-Giemsa, and Prussian blue.
- DSternheimer-Malbin and 0.5% Touidine blue.
106What epithelial cells in large numbers may indicate inflammatory conditions, catheterization, or a pathological process such as malignancy and how are they identified?
- ASquamous epithelial cells; by abundant, flat cytoplasm with small nuclei.
- BTransitional epithelial cells; by abundant flay cytoplasm with small nuclei.
- CSquamous epithelial cells; which are round to oval and have a large, centrally located nucleus.
- DTransitional epithelial cells; which are round to oval and have a large, centrally located nucleus.
107Which of the following urinary elements contains lipid globules and may be seen in patients with severe renal dysfunction, heavy metal poisoning, glomerular injury, or diabetes mellitus?
- AFatty cast.
- BGlitter cells.
- CRed blood cell cast.
- DRenal epithelial cells.
108What red blood cell forms may be seen in hypertonic or concentrated (high specific gravity) urine?
- ASwollen and ghost.
- BCrenated and ghost.
- CSwollen and prickly.
- DCrenated and prickly.
109The presence of bacteria is considered important and clinically significant if found with...
- Ared blood cells and protein.
- Bred blood cells and glucose.
- Cwhite blood cells and protein.
- Dwhite blood cells and glucose.
110Yeast may be confused with fat globules and...
- Ared blood cells; however, yeast are larger in size.
- Bred blood cells; however, yeast are smaller in size.
- Cwhite blood cells; however, yeast are larger in size.
- Dwhite blood cells; however, yeast are smaller in size.
111Which of the following urinary crystals is probably the most common crystal encountered in urinary sediment and in what type of urine is it found?
- AUric acid; acid.
- BUric acid; alkaline.
- CTriple phosphate; acid.
- DTriple phosphate; alkaline.
112Which of the following urinary crystals are normally found in alkaline urine?
- ATriple phosphate and calcium oxalate.
- BAmorphous urates and calcium oxalate.
- CTriple phosphate and calcium carbonate.
- DAmorphous urates and calcium carbonate.
113Which of the following urinary crystals appears as a "coffin lid"?
- ACalcium oxalate.
- BTriple phosphate.
- CAmmonium urate.
- DCalcium carbonate.
114What abnormal crystal has a silky, needle-shaped appearance and is associated with tissue degeneration or necrosis?
- ALeucine.
- BCystine.
- CTyrosine.
- DCholesterol.
115Which of the following crystals is usually flat, thin plates that can fuse into a rosette configuration and can be seen in the urine of patients with what type of condition?
- ACystine; the nephrotic syndrome.
- BCholesterol; the nephrotic syndrome.
- CCystine; inherited metabolic disorder.
- DCholesterol; inherited metabolic disorder.
116Which of the following casts is considered the prototype for all the other casts?
- AWaxy.
- BHyaline.
- CFinely granular.
- DCoarsely granular.
117Which of the following characteristics describe a finely granular cast?
- ASmall, irregular, and easy to distinguish granules.
- BLarge, irregular, and easy to distinguish granules.
- CSmall, regular, and difficult to distinguish granules.
- DLarge, regular, and difficult to distinguish granules.
118Most texts agree that the most diagnostically significant of all the formed elements found in urinary sediment is the...
- Awaxy cast.
- Bhemoglobin cast.
- Cred blood cell cast.
- Dwhite blood cell cast.
119In the United States, what parasite is most frequently encountered in urinary sediment?
- AEntamoeba coli.
- BTrichomonas vaginalis.
- CEnterobius vermicularis.
- DSchistosoma hematobium.
120Why are 24-hour urine samples collected?
- ARandom samples cannot be used for chemical analysis.
- BIt is important to know the exact amount of urine produced.
- CIt is often valuable to know the total amount of an analyte excreted during a day.
- DA random urine specimen doesn't provide enough sample for the testing of an analyte.
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- 140 Human Biology Quiz am 4T051A CDC Test part 2, erstellt von Matthew Rosti am 21/02/2016.
- Autor
- Matthew Rosti
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 2
- Schlagwörter
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