Quiz
Final 1
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Questions in this quiz (200)
1A voluntary professional association for respiratory care practitioners.
- ATJC - The Joint Commission
- BCRT
- CRRT
- DAARC
- ENBRC
2The national credentialing agency for respiratory care practitioners.
- ACRT
- BRRT
- CAARC
- DNBRC
- EJCAHO
3One who successfully passes the Entry Level exam earns these credentials.
- AJCAHO
- BCRT
- CRRT
- DAARC
- ENBRC
4One who passes the Advanced Practioner level exam earns these credentials.
- AJCAHO
- BCRT
- CRRT
- DAARC
- ENBRC
5A private, voluntary association that establishes standards for accrediting institutions responsible for health care.
- ATJC- The Joint Commission
- BCRT
- CRRT
- DAARC
- ENBRC
6Freedom to decide about one's own care?
- AVeracity
- BAutonomy
- CConfidentiality
- DNonmaleficence
- EBeneficence
7Binds the patient and the health care provider to tell the truth.
- AVeracity
- BAutonomy
- CConfidentiality
- DNonmaleficence
- EBeneficence
8Privileged information, which may not be revealed without express permission.
- AVeracity
- BAutonomy
- CConfidentiality
- DNon-maleficence
- EBeneficence
9Never use treatment to injure or harm the sick.
- AVeracity
- BAutonomy
- CConfidenitaltiy
- DNonmaleficence
- EBeneficence
10Requires that the care giver actively contribute to the health and well being of the patient.
- AVeracity
- BAutonomy
- CConfidentiality
- DNonmaleficence
- EBeneficence
11Any conduct which creates a resonable apprehension of being touched in an injurous manner
- ANegligence
- BAssault
- CSlander
- DLibel
- EMalpractice
12The failure to do something that a reasonable person, guided by ordinary considerations, would do.
- ANegligence
- BAssault
- CSlander
- DLibel
- EMalpractice
13Defamation by the written word
- ANegligence
- BAssault
- CSlander
- DLibel
- EMalpractice
14Defamation by oral speech
- ANegligence
- BAssault
- CSlander
- DLibel
- EMalpractice
15Unreasonable lack of skills to fulfill professional duties
- ANegligence
- BAssault
- CSlander
- DLibel
- EMalpractice
16A predefined category of admitting diagnoses, which have a fixed rate of reimbursement
- ATherapist Driven Protocol
- BDRG
- CLicensure
- DCQI
- ECredentialing
17An ongoing process designed to detect and correct factors that interfere with the delivery of quality, cost effective health care
- ATherapist Driven Protocol
- BDRG
- CLicensure
- DCQI
- ECredentialing
18A specific algorithm used by RCPs to independently initiate and adjust therapy using guidelines established by medical staff
- ATherapist Driven Protocol
- BDRG
- CLicensure
- DCQI
- ECredentialing
19A process whereby a private agency recognizes that certain qualification have been met by an individual to work as a Respiratory Care Practitioner.
- ATherapist Driven Protocol
- BDRG
- CLicensure
- DCQI
- ECredentialing
20Permission granted by a government agency to practice an occupation
- ATherapist Driven Protocol
- BDRG
- CLicensure
- DCQI
- ECredentialing
21An approach based on the natural course of an ilness that integrates the way the products and services are used and reimbursed
- AEvidence Based Medicine
- BDisease Management
- CPatient Focused Care
- DPeer Review Organizations
22A service outside the scope of a respiratory therapist's care would be:
- APulmonary function studies
- BManaging mechanical ventilators
- CCardiopulmonary resuscitation
- DAssisting with laser bronchoscopy
- EPerforming a tracheotomy ( a surgical opening in the throat)
23Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using therapist driven protocols
- AEnsure consistency among providers
- BBetter allocation of resources
- CBetter to meet the needs of a patient's changing clinical condition
- DRequires the practitioner to remain in constant contact with the physician
- EAddresses the issue of cost containment
24The main reason thta the state requires all practicing RCPs to have a current license from the Board of Medicine
- ASo they can collect more money for the state budget
- BTo help ensure that only qualified personnel are performing patient care duties
- CTo keep a current record of the number of RCPs in Virginia
- DTo identify which programs practioners have completed their education and training
25When making your patient rounds, you have a heated discussion with a staff nurse who refuses to allow you to give a patient a STAT breathing treatment ordered until she first gives the patinet a bath. To resolve this issue, you should first notify the:
- ADoctor
- BShift supervisor
- COrdering physician
- DMedical director
- EDepartment director
26Asepsis is defined as:
- AThe absence of all living things
- BThe absence of disease producing microorganisms
- CThe absence of all forms of microorganisms
- DThe absence of only bacteria
27Sterile is defined as:
- AThe absence of all living organisms
- BThe absence of disease producing microorganisms
- CThe absence of contaminants
- DThe absence of bacteria
28Infection control strategies aim to do all of the following EXCEPT:
- ACreate barriers to transmission
- BMonitor and evaluate control procedures
- CCategorize patients at risk
- DEliminate the source of the pathogen
29A term used to describe a microorganism capable of producing disease
Bacteria- ABacteria
- BVirus
- CPathogen
- DVirulent
30Nosocomial infections are ___________ acquired infections
- ACommunity
- BHospital
- CStrictly respiratory
- DSexually
31To minimize the spread of infection, you should wash your hands for a minimum of _________ between patients.
- A15 seconds
- B30 seconds
- C60 seconds
- D2 minutes
32Most hospital acquired infections will be caused by:
- AViruses
- BFungi
- CBacteria
- DProtozoa
33Unless otherwise indicated, this type of precaution should be used for all patients.
- AStrict Isolation Precautions
- BStandard precautions
- CTransmission based precautions
- DContact precautions
34Once properly identified, viruses often respond to antibiotic therapy.
- ATrue
- BFalse
35Which types of patients are particularly susceptible to nosocomial infections?
(select all that apply)- ADiabetics
- BImmunosuppressed
- CRadiation therapy
- DSurgical
- ENon-medicated psychiatric
36Patients with artifical airways, such as a trach, are at increased risk for nosocomial infections because:
(select all that apply)- AThe normal filtration system of the upper airway is bypassed
- BContamination of the trach during routine care, such as suctioning
- CPredisposing condition, such as COPD, weakens the immune system
37The single most important method of reducing hospital acquired infections is:
- ADo not touch the patient’s nose
- BGood hand washing technique
- CDouble bagging of all respiratory equipment
- DPutting all trached patient’s in isolation
38The most difficult of all pathogens to kill are
- ABacteria
- BViruses
- CSpores
- DFungi
39Which of the following is NOT a major route of infection into the lung
- ABlood borne
- BContact
- CAspiration
- DInhalation
40A lab method used for classifying bacteria
- ABronchoscopy
- BIsolation
- CGram staining
- DSurveillance
41Protective or reverse isolation is required for all of the following types of patients EXCEPT:
- ABurn
- BTransplant
- CImmunosuppressed
- DPediatric
42When water is not available, which of the following may be used as long as hands are not visibly dirty?
- AGel containing 25% alcohol
- BRinse containing 60% alcohol
- CBleach
- DBetadine
- EHydrogen peroxide
43A Ziehl-Neelsen stain, also called an acid fast test, is used to specifically identify which organism?
- APseudomonas Aeruginosa
- BMycobacterium Tuberculosis
- CStaphylococcus
- DSpores
44Unlike airborne precautions, droplet precautions are used for infectious agents which usually do not travel beyond this distance.
- A1 foot
- B3 feet
- C6 feet
- D12 feet
45Masks, gowns, gloves and goggles are items which are considered:
- APersonal protective equipment
- BSterile attire
- CAccessory equipment
- DStandard attire
46Of the following, which type of infection is most likely to lead to death?
- ABlood
- BPulmonary
- CUrinary tract
- DSuperficial
47The most common route for the spread of nosocomial infections
- ABlood Borne
- BVector
- CContact
- DAirborne
48Of the various sources of infection within the hospital, which are NOT easily controlled?
- AStaff
- BVisitors
- CEquipment
- DPatients
49The single most important method to infection control is:
- AWearing gloves
- BWashing Hands
- CUsing standard precautions
- DIsolating patients
50One who carries a microorganism
- AHost
- BVehicle
- CGuest
- DColony
51Disease causing organisms are called:
- AGerms
- BPathogens
- CNosocomial
- DBugs
52A possible by-product of ethylene oxide sterilization is:
- APolyhydrine chlorate
- BEthylene monoxide
- CEthylene gylcol
- DSodium hypochlorite
53Of the follwoing choices, which method of cleaning is the BEST for instruments which are used to enter the body or the blood stream?
- ADetergent washing
- BHigh level disinfection
- CSterilization
- DIntermediate level disinfection
54The most difficult of all pathogens to kill:
- ABacteria
- BViruses
- CFungi
- DSpores
55What method of disinfection uses hot water immersion at 63-70 C for 30 minutes?
- AAutoclaving
- BPasteurization
- CETO
- DBroths
56What are the major consideration when using disposable equipment?
- ACost
- BQuality
- CAccesability
- DConvenience
57The preferred method fo sterilization of equipment that has been grossly contaminated with an extremely virulent (aggressive) pathogen, and is no longer of use, is which of the following?
- AETO
- BIrradiation
- CIncineration
- DAutoclaving
58An item has returned from the Central Sterile Suppy after being autoclaved. The outside processing color indicator has converted showing heat exposure. You now know:
- AThe item is sterile
- BIt has been properly exposed to gas
- CIt has been properly exposed to steam
- DIt has been properly exposed to Cidex
59Of the follwoing techniques, which is not capable of sterilization?
- APasteurization
- BETO
- CIrradiation
- DGluteradehyde
60What is the appropriate concentration of ethyl or isopropyl alcohol when used for surface disinfection?
- A40% -50%
- B50% - 60%
- C70% - 90%
- D100%
61Sterilization is achieved by various means through effecting the cells in which way(s)?
- ADenaturation
- BCoagulation
- CSurface tension reduction
- DInterference with metabolism/reproduction
62Which of the following do we depend upon to guarantee sterilization?
- ABiologic inidcator strip/capsule (Attest)
- BHeat sensitive tape
- CGas sensitive tape
- DThermo couplers
63Quality control requires use of both cylce strips (gas or steam) and biologic indicators to confirm proper processing.
- ATrue
- BFalse
64Once activated, Cidex will be fully potent for:
- A24-72 hours
- B5-7 days
- C7-10 days
- D14 days
- E28 days
65The pH range for Cidex is:
- A2.5 - 3.5
- B4.5 - 5.5
- C7.35 - 7.45
- D7.5-8.5
66Once opened, sterile fluids may be used within ___ before they should be disposed.
- A8 hours
- B12 hours
- C24 hours
- D48 hours
67The types of tests for contamination include all of the following except:
- ASwab surfaces
- BBroths
- CEthylene oxide
- DSporacidal capsules
68Which of the following steps is not part of basic equipment processing?
- AWash then rinse or surface disinfect
- BPre-soak in glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes
- CAir dry completely
- DPackage as required
69A simple disinfectant made with vinegar and water (1:3) contains which of the following?
- ACidex
- BSodium hypochlorite
- CEthylene glycol
- DAcetic acid
70"Processing by risk" means:
- ARisk to the employee must be considered
- BRisk to the equipment must be considered
- CHow the item is to be used determines the level of cleaning required
- DDetermining how long the equipment is considered useable once properly cleaned
71Alcohol is best used for:
- ASterilization
- BSurface disinfection
- CSoaking electronic equipment
- DAll of the above
72Another name for bleach is:
- ASonacide
- BSodium hypochlorite
- CEthylene glycol
- DAcetic acid
73A method which combines heat and pressure to achieve sterilization
- AAutoclaving
- BPasteurization
- CEthylene oxide
- DIonizing radiation
74Fluid and medication precautions include which of the following?
- AUse sterile fluids
- BWhenever possible, use medications that the patient has brought from home
- CUse unit dose vials
- DDispose of unused fluids immediatley after opening
75When using contact precautions, where should single patient use equipment be disposed?
- AProper trash receptacle inside the patient's room
- BInside the respiratory department
- CCentral sterile
- DAt the nurse's station
76The chemical symbol for nitric oxide gas is: [blank_start]NO[blank_end]
- ANO
77The chemical symbol for carbon dioxide gas is [blank_start]CO2[blank_end]
- ACO2
78The chemical symbol for Oxygen is [blank_start]O2[blank_end]
- AO2
79The chemical symbol for Helium gas is [blank_start]He[blank_end]
- AHe
80The chemical symbol for Nitrogen gas is [blank_start]N[blank_end]
- AN
81The color code for CO2 gas is [blank_start]Grey[blank_end]
- AGrey
82The color code for Helium gas is [blank_start]Brown[blank_end]
- ABrown
83The color code for Nitrous oxide gas is [blank_start]blue[blank_end]
- Ablue
84The color code for air is [blank_start]yellow[blank_end]
- Ayellow
85The color code for oxygen is [blank_start]green[blank_end]
- Agreen
86Our natural atmosphere contains [blank_start]21[blank_end]% oxygen
- A21
87Our natural atmosphere contains [blank_start]78[blank_end]% nitrogen
- A78
88Oxygen will explode at 100% purity
- ATrue
- BFalse
89Oxygen is produced commercially through the process of
- AFriction
- BFractional distillation of liquid air
- CFracturing liquid air
- DBreaking down water using a molecular sieve
90Taking safety into consideration, at what pressure is it recommended to change used tanks for a full tank?
- A500 psi
- B100 psi
- C200 psi
- DWhen it is completely empty
91As a safety device, if an E cylinder's internal pressure or temperature is rising to dangerous levels, the _________ will activate thereby releasing the gas safely.
- AFusible plug
- BFrangible disk
- CTeflon washer
- DGas loc seal
92If a medical gas cylinder has a "+" mark after its service pressure, it may be filled up to ___ psi.
- A2000
- B2100
- C2200
- D2440
93Standards of gas purity are set by the
- ACompressed Gas Association
- BFood and Drug Administration
- CAmerican Medical Association
- DAmerican Association for Respiratory Care
94Which organization requires color coding of gas cylinders?
- AFood and Drug Administration
- BDepartment of Transportation
- CNational Fire and Protection Agency
- DCompressed Gas Association
95The ___________________ is a safety system, for tanks larger than E, that uses threaded connections, which vary in thread number and thread angle, so that similar sized cylinders containing dissimilar gases cannot be misused.
- AAmerican Standard Safety System
- BDiameter Index Safety System
- CPin Index Safety System
- DThread Index Safety System
96The ONLY sure way to verify that oxygen is contained in a cylinder is by:
- AReading the label
- BVerifying the color code
- CAnalyzing the gas contents
- DAttaching the proper regulator
97A device that incorporates both a reducing valve and a flow device is a ________________.
- AAnalyzer
- BFlow meter
- CRegulator
- DGas loc seal
98An H cylinder of oxygen contains ________ cu ft. of gas.
- A22
- B244
- C50
- D44
99What style regulator do small size cylinders use?
- AThreaded
- BYoke style
- CThorpe
- D"Bore" style
100The safety system that applies to the valve outlets of small cylinders
- APin Index Safety System
- BDiameter Index Safety System
- CThreaded Index Safety System
- DQuick Connect Safety System
101As a safety device, if an H cylinder's internal temperature or pressure rises to dangerous levels, the _________________ will activate, thereby safely releasing the gas.
- AFusible plug
- BFrangible disk
- CTeflon washer
- DRegulator
102What is the purpose of "cracking" the tank?
- ATo test if the gas has a smell before connecting the regulator
- BTo prevent debris from entering the regulator
- CTo determine if there is a leak in the tank
- DTo test to see if the safety system is working properly
103The only accurate method to determine the contents of a liquid filled cylinder is
- ARead the pressure gauge
- BWeigh the cylinder
- CTurn the flow-meter to flush and measure how much gas comes out
- DDetermine the temperature of the gas in the tank as gas volume is affected by temperature
104If a tank is leaking after putting on a regulator, which of the following is the proper course of action?
- ACheck and tighten all connections
- BReplace the tank
- CCheck the outlet for debris
- DCheck/replace the washer
105Calculate the duration of flow from the cylinder. Your final answer must be in hours and minutes.
A full H cylinder when the flowmeter is set at 5L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder- A23 hours and 2 minutes
- B2 hours and 3 minutes
- C17 hours and 47 minutes
- D1 hour and 35 minutes
106Calculate the duration of flow from the following cylinder.
An E cylinder containing 1250 psi and the flowmeter is set at 3L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder.- A1 hour and 10 minutes
- B1 hour and 56 minutes
- C65 hours and 25 minutes
- D39 hours and 15 minutes
107Calculate the duration of flow for the following cylinder.
An E cylinder containing 1800 psi and the flowmeter is set at 2L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder.- A4 hours and 12 minutes
- B3 hours and 2 minutes
- C47 hours and 6 minutes
- D68 hours
108Calculate the duration of flow for the following cylinder.
An H cylinder containing 1200 psi and the flowmeter is set at 8L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder.- A7 hours and 51 minutes
- B3 hours and 16 minutes
- C25 minutes
- D4 hours and 35 minutes
109A patient has a nasal cannula and needs to be transported with an E cylinder that is lying flat underneath the stretcher. You would recommend using which type of flowmeter?
- AA Thorpe tube flow meter
- BAn air oxygen proportioner
- CBourdon style flow meter
- DQuick connect
110Which of the following safety systems is utilized for equipment operating at less than 200 psi to prevent misconnections to inappropriate gases?
- ADiameter Index Safety System
- BAmerican Index Safety System
- CPin Index Safety System
- DFrangible disk and fusible plug combinations
111If the outlet of a Bourdon gauge became partially obstructed creating back pressure, the indicated flow would ___________.
- AShow no flow
- BBe lower than you set
- CBe higher than you set
- DShow no change at all
112It is possible to distinguish between a single stage reducing valve and a multi-stage reducing valve by counting the number of _____________.
- AGauges
- BThreads
- CPins
- DPop-offs
113When using this type of flowmeter the ball will jump when plugged into a gas source
- ACompensated thorpe tube
- BUncompensated thorpe tube
- CBourdon gauge
- DFlowmeter calibrated to be used with Heliox
114The Bourdon gauge measures:
- ATidal Volume
- BPressure
- COxygen percentage
- DType of cylinder content
115Used as an alternative means for providing air to a patient without using an air cylinder
- AManifold
- BCompressor
- CRegulator
- DConcentrator
116The standard working pressure for medical gas equipment is ________.
- A.28 psi
- B3.14 psi
- C2200 psi
- D50 psi
- E200 psi
117The device which converts the high pressure within a cylinder to a workable pressure is a:
- AReducing valve
- BKinetic flowmeter
- CA pop-off valve
- DA zone valve
118Bulk piping alarms activate when:
- AThe system detects a drop in pressure
- BThe gas supply is completely empty
- CThe system detects an interruption in gas flow, possibly because of an obstruction
- DThe system has been tampered with
119The NFPA standard for bulk oxygen systems requires that the reserve supply be:
- AEqual to the average of one days use (24 hours)
- BA fixed bank of 75 H cylinders
- CAt least three small liquid cylinders
- D100 ft of gas per bed
120The advantage to using liquid bulk storage oxygen systems is:
- AA great deal of gas is available from a relatively small amount of liquid oxygen
- BIt is the most economical means of providing oxygen to a facility
- CIt provides a continuous oxygen supply to multiple station outlets
- DIt provides oxygen at a uniform pressure of 50 psi
121The terminal point of a piping system where equipment, such as a flowmeter, can be connected is the:
- AStation outlet
- BManifold
- CZone valve
- DMain shut off
122A device used to both reduce pressure and control the flow from a medical gas cylinder is:
- ACompressor
- BThrope tube flowmeter
- CReducing valve
- DRegulator
123The key property of helium which makes it useful as a therapeutic gas is its:
- ALow solubility
- BLow density
- CPoor conductive qualities
- DChemical inertness
124The limiting factor of a Thorpe tube flowmeter is:
- ASize
- BWeight
- CGravity
- DCost
125When using a Thorpe tube style flowmeter, where should you look to read the actual flow being delivered?
- AAt the top of ball
- BThe middle of the ball
- CAt the bottom of the ball
126This device is used to mix both air and oxygen proportionally to deliver a specific FIO2
- ACompressor
- BConcentrator
- CBlender
- DManifold system
127When oxygen is in use, which of the following items should be avoided?
- ASmoking materials
- BElectrical devices
- CFriction toys
128As a safety precaution, when oxygen is in use, a sign should be visibly posted.
- ATrue
- BFalse
129This type of alarm will sound when low pressure is sensed while using an air-oxygen proportioner:
- AShut off alarm
- BPop off alarm
- CManifold alarm
- DReed alarm
130The purpose of a pop off valve is:
- ATo whistle when gas pressure has been reduced to 50 psi
- BTo act as a safety mechanism and vent excessive gas pressure
- CTo convert high pressure to working pressure
- DTo regulate flow to the patient
131This type of valve is used Used to isolate regions during times of maintenance or for fire safety without cutting off the entire system
- AMain shut off valves
- BReed Alarms
- CZone Valves
- DCompressors
132You are called to assist in transporting a patient to radiology. The patient is currently on oxygen therapy using a nasal cannula set at 2 liter per minute. According to the nurse, the test will take exactly 2 hours. The room that will be used during the test does not have piped oxygen available. You have obtained an “E” cylinder containing 1500 psi. According to the information above, will you have enough oxygen in the tank to last during the procedure?
- ATrue
- BFalse
133Alveolar oxygen tension is determined by:
- AHow much oxygen is available to breathe
- BHow much oxygen can move across the a/c membrane
- CHow much oxygen is needed to properly resaturate red blood cells
- DVentilation
134Which symbol represents the fraction of inspired air?
- AFaO2
- BFiO2
- CPaO2
- DPAO2
135Total barometric pressure at sea level is:
- A570 mmHg
- B760 mmHg
- C100 mmHg
- D47 mmHg
136The movement of air in and out of the lungs is called:
- AVentilation
- BRespiration
- CDiffusion
- DAbsorption
137Which of the following in NOT a response to inadequate oxygen supply?
- AIncreased heart rate
- BIncreased blood pressure
- CHiccups
- DIncreased work of breathing
138When oxygen therapy is indicated, what is the role of the RT?
- ASelect the proper mode of administration
- BSelect the proper dosage
- CMonitor patient response
- DRecommend necessary changes
139An inadequate quantity of oxygen in the blood
- AHypoxemia
- BTachycardia
- CAsphyxia
- DAnemia
140This can occur when high concentrations of oxygen are used and the oxygen replaces the nitrogen in the alveoli.
- AOxygen washout
- BAbsorption atelectasis
- CHypoxic drive
- DCO2 washout
141This type of hypoxia may result from anemia, carbon monoxide poisoning or sickle cell disease
- AStagnant hypoxia
- BDysoxia
- CHypoxemic Hypoxia
- DHemoglobin deficiency
142In a "normal, healthy person", the body's main stimulus to breathe is rising levels of ____________________.
- ANitrogen
- BOxygen
- CCarbon dioxide
- DHelium
143The toxic effects of oxygen result from a combination of [blank_start]time[blank_end] and the amount of [blank_start]oxygen[blank_end].
- Atime
- Boxygen
144Assessing a patient's need for oxygen includes which of the following?
- ALab testing (ABG)
- BPulse oximetry
- CCurrent clinical condition
- DBedside assessment
145COPD patients receiving aggressive oxygen therapy are particularly at risk for:
- ARetrolental Fibroplasia
- BOxygen Induced Hypoventilation
- CPneumonia
- DStroke
146How much oxygen is in room air?
- A15%
- B21%
- C50%
- D100%
147This type of hypoxia may result from high altitude, hypoventilation or diffusion defects.
- AStagnant hypoxia
- BHemoglobin deficiency
- CDysoxia
- DHypoxemic hypoxia
148The body's first sign of hypoxemia is:
- APeripheral vasodilation
- BPulmonary vasoconstriction
- CTachycardia
- DHypotension
149How does hypoxemia affect the neurologic system?
- AConfusion
- BLethargy
- CAgitation
- DDisorientation
150Oxygen toxicity results when using a [blank_start]FiO2[blank_end] greater than [blank_start]60[blank_end]% for [blank_start]12[blank_end] to [blank_start]24[blank_end] hours
- AFiO2
- B60
- C12
- D24
151Which of the following gases primarily serves to hold the alveoli open?
- ANitrogen
- BOxygen
- CCarbon dioxide
- DWater vapor
152To prevent ROP or RLF, PaO2 should be kept between ___________.
- A50-75 torr
- B50-100 torr
- C75-100 torr
- DOver 100 torr
153A COPD patient often has chronic hypercarbia and mild hypoxemia. As a result, they rely on the _____________ to breathe
- AOxygen drive
- BHypoxic drive
- CCentral chemoreceptors
- DNitrogen washout
154For a healthy person, the normal PaO2 range while breathing room air is _____________.
- ALess than 40 torr
- B60-70 torr
- C80-100 torr
- DGreater than 100 torr
155A PaO2 of 60-70 mmHg would be considered _______________
- ANormal
- BMild hypoxia
- CModerate hypoxia
- DSevere hypoxia
156With oxygen therapy and relief of tissue hypoxia, the RCP can expect a clearer sensorium and a more alert patient.
- ATrue
- BFalse
157This type of hypoxemia does not respond to traditional oxygen therapy
- APersistent hypoxemia
- BIntermittent hypoxemia
- CRefractory hypoxemia
- DPeripheral hypoxemia
158Adjusting FiO2 gradually (5%) may minimize the risk of atelectasis
- ATrue
- BFalse
159Regardless of the risk, you should never withholds supplemental oxygen from a hypoxic patient.
- ATrue
- BFalse
160Which patient population is at risk of developing ROP/RLF
- ANewborns
- BToddlers
- CAdolescents
- DElderly
161BTPS stands for:
- ATrue
- BFalse
162
Humidity, as water vapor, is water in a ________________form.- ARelative
- BMolecular
- CHyperbaric
- DAtomic
163When a gas has a content that is equal to its capacity, what is it the relative humidity?
- A25%
- B50%
- C75%
- D100%
164When a gas is holding less than its maximum capacity, the amount of water it would take to re-saturate the gas is the :
- ADew Point
- BHumidity Deficit
- CRelative Humidity
- DIsothermic Saturation Boundary
165What is the goal for humidity therapy for the patient who has an artificial airway who is receiving medical gas therapy?
- ATo supply a water vapor saturated gas
- BTo provide cool mist therapy
- CCorrect To provide humidification and warmth at saturation levels for BTPS
- DTo increased vapor content of dry therapeutic gases and return humidity to approximate ambient levels
166If the supplemental level of humidity is greater than required by the patient, which of the
following can occur?- AHumidity deficit
- BDecreased work of breathing
- CFluid overload
- DIsothermic Saturation
167Where would you expect to find condensation?
- AInside aerosol tubing
- BOn any surface which moisture may hit
- CInside Nebulizers
- DAll of the above
168Cool humidity therapy can be used to treat which of the following?
- ACroup
- BEpiglottitis
- CPost extubation edema
- DAll of the above
169When dry secretions are rehydrated, they could potentially form ______, which could cause airway obstructions.
- AMucous plugs
- BConsolidations
- CDroplets
- DParticles
170The amount of water which can be contained in any gas is limited by its temperature.
- ATrue
- BFalse
171An expression of the percentage of water vapor compared to a saturated state.
- AAbsolute Humidity
- BRelative Humidity
- CSaturated
- DHumidity Deficit
172When a gas, at a given temperature, is holding as much water as possible, it is said to be
fully_________- AParticulated
- BPressurized
- CSaturated
- DCondensated
173Keeping the amount of humidity that a patient must contribute to a minimum will reduce the overall stress to the body.
- ATrue
- BFalse
174Which of the following is a vehicle for pathogens?
- AMolecular water in the form of humidity
- BCondensation in the from of particulate droplet
- CAll of the above
175Simple humidifiers are designed to return dry therapeutic gases to approximatley ___ relative humidity
- A25%
- B50%
- C75%
- D100%
176The primary function of the upper airway is to ________ inspired air.
- AWarm
- BHumidify
- CFilter
- DAll of the above
177Once a gas that is fully saturated at a given temperature begins to cool, the temperature at which condensation begins to form is called the:
- ADew Point
- BBoiling point
- CCritical temperature
- DHumidity deficit
178What is the main goal of humidity therapy for the patient with an intact airway who is receiving medical gas?
- ATo supply a water vapor saturated gas
- BTo increase water vapor content of dry therapeutic gases and return humidity to approximate ambient levels
- CTo chill the upper airway's mucosal membrane
- DTo provide humidification and warmth at saturation levels for BTPS
179If a gas, at a certain temperature, is holding its full potential of water vapor and is then heated, the potential to hold water vapor will
- AIncrease
- BDecrease
- CRemain the same
180In a normal individual, at what level in the airway does the inspired atmosphere each BTPS?
- ALarynx
- BRight mainstem
- CAlevolar capillary membrane
- DIsothermic Saturation Boundary
181Neonates are at greater risk of overhydration
- ATrue
- BFalse
182At the alveolar level, water vapor exerts a partial pressure of ____________ mmHg
- A37
- B44
- C47
- D50
183Water is constantly lost from the lungs and the skin through breathing and sweating.
- ATrue
- BFalse
184Which route of inhalation is more efficient for heating and humidifying inspired air?
- ANose
- BMouth
- CEither route is the same
185Which type of flow aids evaporation and allows for more moisture to be "picked up" in the gas stream?
- ALow flow
- BHigh flow
- CFlow is irrelevant
186Which of the following is NOT a hazard of humidity therapy?
- AAlteration of heat and water exchange
- BRisk of infection
- CElectrical Hazards
- DOxygen toxicity
187Unheated bubble humidifiers are intended to restore ambient humidity to approximately
______ of relative humidity.- A10% - 20%
- B25% - 35%
- C40% - 50%
- D50% - 75%
188
Which of the following techniques should be used to minimize the risk of infection when using humidity
therapy.- ASterile replacements every 24 hours
- BClose feed reservoir systems
- CUse prepackaged sterile, disposable units
- DDrain condensation away from the reservoir
- EAll of the above
189Hazards of condensation include which of the following?
- AAspiration risk
- BRisk of infection
- CDisruption of gas flow
- DPotential altering of FiO2
- EAll of the above
190The following are goals of humidity therapy EXCEPT:
- APrevent drying of mucosa
- BCompensate for a humidity deficit
- CProvide an exact FiO2 to the patient under any condition
- DTo provide cool aerosols to soothe irritated airways
191Which of the following are examples of large volume, warmed humidifiers. Choose all that apply.
- AWick style
- BBubble
- CHeat moisture ex-changer
- DCascade
192HME's are classified as _________________ humidifiers.
- AClassic
- BPatient dependent
- CActive
- DPassive
193Which of the following factors effect humidifier output?
- ASurface area
- BContact Time
- CTemperature
- DGas Flow
- EAll of the above
194If the temperature of a gas drops, the ability to hold water vapor will ___________________.
- AIncrease
- BDecrease
- CStay the same
- DUnknown
195Which of the following are disadvantages of using a heat moisture exchanger? Choose all that apply.
- ALess effective than a heated, humidified system
- BWill occlude with heavy secretions
- CDisposable
- DMust be removed when giving aerosol treatments
196Condensation or "Rain Out" is dependent on which of the following:
- AThe temperature difference from the humdifier to the patient airway
- BAmbient temperature
- CGas flow
- DLength, diameter and thermal mass of the breathing circuit
- EAll of the above
197Which type of patients require using warmed humidifiers.
- APatients with artificial airways
- BPatients with intact upper airways
- CPatients with Asthma
- DPatients who are hyperthermic
198Warmed humidifiers aim to deliver ______ body humidity.
- A25%
- B50%
- C75%
- D100%
199HME's can provide ____________ humidity
- A25%-50%
- B50% - 75%
- C60% - 90%
- D100%
200Another name for a heat moisture ex-changer is:
- AArtificial lung
- BArtificial nose
- CRe-breather
- DBriggs adapter
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- RTH110 RTH110 Quiz on Final 1, created by wch2952 on 12/10/2015.
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