Quiz
examen 4
Questions in this quiz (100)
1During preflight of a transport category aircraft that undergoes a progressive maintenance program the ELT should:
- ATested and when done, ensure the switch is selected to ARMED
- BTested by selecting 243 mhz on the radio and listening for a tone when the switch is selected to ON
- CSelectedtoARMEDandifabsolutelynecessarytotest, itshouldonlybedonebyselectingittoONforno
more than 3 seconds during ONLY the first 5 minutes of every hour
2Señalar lo que es cierto
- AEl MMEL (Master MEL) lo prepara el explotador
- BEl MEL es más restrictivo que el MMEL (Master MEL)
- CEl MEL es preparado por el explotador del avión
3Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
- AEntering instrument meteorological conditions.
- BWhen leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach.
- CCorrecting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.
4For which speed variation should you notify ATC?
- AWhen the ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
- BWhen the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.
- CAny time the ground speed changes 10 MPH.
5What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?
- ATraffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
- BEmergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport.
- CMerely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
6When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
- A500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute.
- B500 feet per minute and 1, 500 feet per minute.
- C1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.
7For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
- AFixes selected to define the route.
- BThere are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
- CAt the changeover points.
8What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No 1 receiver has VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No 2 has only VOR/Localizer capability.
- AReport the malfunction immediately to ATC.
- BContinue the flight as cleared, no report is required.
- CContinue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.
9During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should
- ANot hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
- BWait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
- CContact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
10During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?
- ASet transponder to code 1200.
- BResume normal position reporting
- CActivate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.
11During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
- ADepart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as posible to the EFC time and complete the approach.
- BDepart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.
- CDepart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach.
12Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
- ADepart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
- BDepart the holding fix at the EFC time.
- CProceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.
13Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?
- AContinue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
- BContinue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival.
- CLand at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.
14
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?- AContinue on the rout e specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highes to flast as
signed altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA. - BFly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
- CDescend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.
- AContinue on the rout e specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highes to flast as
15In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue
- ABy the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
- BThe flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
- CThe flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.
16While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under
- AVFR and land as soon as practicable.
- BVFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.
- CIFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination
17What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...”?
- AThe pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
- BClimbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
- CThe pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
18What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
- AMaintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching as signed altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level.
- BClimb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.
- CMaintain an optimum climb on the center line of the airway with out intermediate level offs until
19When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that
- AATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.
- BThe pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intensions if not off by the void time.
- CATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.
20What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
- ARead back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
- BRead back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring
verification. - CRead-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.
21Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)
- AAltitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
- BDestination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
- CClearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
22On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED--MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND--SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE--DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the
- ADeparture control frequency.
- BDestination airport and route.
- CRequested enroute altitude.
23When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
- AWhen priority has been given.
- BAny time an emergency occurs.
- CWhen the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
24Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
- ADPs, STARs, and contact approaches.
- BContact and visual approaches.
- CDPs, STARs, and visual approaches.
25What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?
- AThe pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
- BIt authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including
6,000. - CThe pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from mínimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
26A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
- AVacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.
- BClimb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.
- CUse any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.
27While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
- ANotify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
- BSquawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
- CSubmit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.
28An abbreviated departure clearance “...CLEARED AS FILED...” will always contain the name
- AAnd number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
- BOf the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
- COf the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment
2914 CFR part 1 defines VLE as
- AMaximum landing gear extended speed.
- BMaximum landing gear operating speed.
- CMaximum leading edge flaps extended speed.
3014 CFR part 1 defines VNE as
- AMaximum landing gear extended speed.
- BNever-exceed speed.
- CMaximum nose wheel extend speed.
3114 CFR part 1 defines VY as
- ASpeed for best rate of descent.
- BSpeed for best angle of climb.
- CSpeed for best rate of climb.
32Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?
- AVS
- BVS1
- CVSO
33Define Calibrated Air Speed?
- ANormal operating speed.
- BIs the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument errors, position error
- CSpeed corrected by Warm climate.
3414 CFR part 1 defines VF as
- ADesign flap speed.
- BFlap operating speed.
- CMaximum flap extended speed.
35Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?
- AVS
- BVS1
- CVSO
36Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?
- AThe never-exceed speed.
- BThe power-off stall speed.
- CThe maneuvering speed.
37If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
- A1 minute.
- B3 minute.
- C2 minute.
38To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to
- AThe current altimeter setting.
- B29.92 inches Hg and the altimeter indication noted.
- CThe field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted.
39What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator
- AIs always electric, the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-driven.
- BIndicates bank angle only, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.
- CIndicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn
and coordination.
40What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments?
- AIt is a backup in case of vacuum system failure.
- BIt is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators.
- CIt will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators.
41A Standard rate turn is :
- AA turn at a rate of 3%minat100Kts
- B(TASinKts/3o)+5
- CA turn at a rate of 3o/sec
42Magnetic dip is responsible for:
- ANortherly turning errors only in the northern hemisphere counteracted by magnetic dip
- BNothing on a commercial transport category Aircraft equipped with EFIS
- CErrors during acceleration or turns on only magnetic compasses
43Pitot static instruments are connected as follows on a high Performance aircraft:
- AAirspeed = pitot only, Altimeter = static only
- BAirspeed = pitot + static, Altimeter = static only, Vertical speed = pitot + alternate Static
- CAirspeed = pitot + static , Altimeter = static only, Vertical speed = static only
44At higher elevation airports the indicated airspeed:
- AIs the same as the TAS
- BIs higher and so is the resultant ground speed
- CRemains the same but the ground speed is faster than at lower altitude airports
45TAS is the actual speed your airplane moves through undisturbed air. As density altitude increases your TAS:
- AShould remain the same regardless
- BShould increase about 2 Kts / 1.000 Ft increment
- CShould increase for a given TAS corrected for instrument and installation error
46Pressure altitude is:
- ADisplayed when the altimeter setting is corrected for temperature at sea level
- BDisplayed when the altimeter setting is set on the QNH window
- CDisplayed when 29.92 is set on the altimeter regardless of outside temp. + pressure
47Density altitude is used for:
- AOnly for flying altitudes below 18.000 Ft.
- BCalculating TAS with 29.92 set on the Alt.
- CPerformance calculations with OAT charts
48While on the ground with the correct altimeter setting your altimeter should read:
- AWithin 100 Ft. for CAT I ILS approved airplanes
- BWithin 20 Ft. of the other altimeter
- CWithin 75 Ft. of the actual field elevation.
49If on a takeoff roll below 80 Kts. one of the airspeed indicators is under reading by exactly 30 Kts., you should:
- AContinue the take off and report to Maintenance at next stop as you still have 1 reliable ASI available
- BContinue the takeoff and consult the MEL before writing out a Maintenance report
- CReject the take off, return to the gate and report to Maintenance assuming all the delay
consequences
50Compass correction cards
- AAre not required on EFIS equipped aircraft
- BAre not required on transport category aircraft
- CMust be current and installed on all certified aircraft
51Pitch instruments are:
- AAttitude, vertical speed and altimeter
- BAltimeter, airspeed and VSI
- CAttitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed and VSI
52When performing a VOR accuracy check at a VOR test point on an airfield, the VOR can be considered serviceable if it is within _______ of the published radial:
- A2o to either side
- BNo deviations are allowed for IFR
- C4o to either side
53If a VOR check is desired and no VOT is available, the check:
- AMust be made by maintenance personnel with special equipment
- BIs not necessary for aircraft certified for CAT II ILS approaches
- CCan be made between 2 VOR ́S within the aircraft and the error must not exceed 4o
54What information does a Mach meter present?
- AThe ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound.
- BThe ratio of aircraft indicated airspeed to the speed of sound.
- CThe ratio of aircraft equivalent airspeed, corrected for installation error, to the speed of sound
55Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
- AAt standard temperature.
- BWhen the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.
- CWhen indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.
56Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
- AWhen the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
- BWhen standard atmospheric conditions exist.
- CWhen indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
57
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?- AAir temperature lower than standard.
- BAtmospheric pressure lower than standard.
- CAir temperature warmer than standard.
58Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92" Hg?
- AIn warmer than standard air temperature.
- BIn colder than standard air temperature.
- CWhen density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
59Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
- ATrue altitude at field elevation.
- BPressure al titude at field elevation.
- CPressure altitude at sea level.
60How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?
- ASet your altimeter to 29.92" Hg.
- BUse your computer to change the indicated altitude to pressure altitude.
- CContact an FSS and ask for the pressure altitude.
61How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?
- ASet the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated.
- BSet the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a station within 100 miles and correct this indicated altitude with local temperature.
- CUse your computer and correct the field elevation for temperature.
62Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg?
- ADensity.
- BPressure.
- CStandard.
63At an altitude of 6, 500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately
- A7, 500 feet.
- B6,000 feet.
- C6, 500 feet.
64The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to
- AThe field elevation.
- B29.92" Hg.
- CThe current altimeter setting.
65If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will
- ADecrease and true altitude will increase.
- BIncrease and true altitude will decrease.
- CIncrease and true altitude will increase.
66Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
- APressure altitude at sea level.
- BTrue altitude at field elevation.
- CPressure altitude at field elevation.
67Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above
- ASea level.
- BThe standard datum plane.
- CGround level.
68When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?
- AAltimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.
- BAltimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
- CAltimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
69En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?
- A715 feet.
- B1, 300 feet.
- CSea level.
70En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?
- A100 feet MSL.
- B474 feet MSL.
- C206 feet below MSL.
71Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL210?
- AIndicated.
- BPressure.
- CCalibrated.
72What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?
- ASet the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff.
- BSet the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92" Hg.
- CSet the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000
feet.
73While you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?
- A24,000 feet.
- B25,000 feet.
- C26,000 feet.
74If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter
- AOn 29.92" Hg.
- BOn the current airport barometric pressure, if known.
- CTo the airport elevation.
75The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for
- AThe cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temperatures aloft.
- BBetter vertical separation of aircraft.
- CMore accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas.
76How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
- ASet the altimeter to 29.92" Hg. With current temperatura and the altimeter indication, determine the true altitude to compare with the field elevation.
- BSet the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.
- CSet the altimeter to the current altimeter setting.The indication should be within 75 feet of the
actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.
77How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
- ASet the altimeter to the current temperature. With current temperatura and the altimeter indication, determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the field elevation.
- BSet the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.
- CSet the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the
actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.
78One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the
- AAbility to resist precession 90° to any applied force.
- BResistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
- CDeflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
79If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator
- AShould immediately show straight-and-level flight.
- BWill show a slight skid and climb to the right.
- CMay show a slight climb and turn.
80As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a
- AFull bar width on the attitude indicator.
- BHalf bar width on the attitude indicator.
- CTwo bar width on the attitude indicator.
81Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
- AThe horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.
- BThe horizon bar vibrates during warmup.
- CThe horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup.
82What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
- AThe horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.
- BThe miniature airplane should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.
- CThe horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes
83During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight-and-level flight from a 180° steep turn to the right?
- AA straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
- BThe miniature aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left.
- CThe miniature aircraft would show a slight descent and wings-level attitude.
84Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a
- A180° turn.
- B270° turn.
- C360° turn.
85When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
- AClimb.
- BDescent.
- CRight turn.
86When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
- ALefft turn.
- BClimb.
- CDescent.
87While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
- AAttitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
- BVertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.
- CAttitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.
88While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
- AAttitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb.
- BAttitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
- CAirspeed indication reaches 160 knots.
89Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn – and – slip indicator to determine if the
- ANeedle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon
- BNeedle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid
- CBall will move freely from one end of the tube of other when the aircraft is rocked.
90What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?
- AThe miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered.
- BThe miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.
- CBoth the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.
91What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?
- AThe ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.
- BThe needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the ball remains centered.
- CThe ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered.
92What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
- ARate of roll and rate of turn.
- BAngle of bank and rate of turn.
- CAngle of bank.
93What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
- ARate of roll and rate of turn.
- BDirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
- CIndirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
94What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
- AIndirect indication of the bank attitude.
- BDirect indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn.
- CQuality of the turn.
95Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?
- AAttitude indicator
- BHeading indicator or magnetic compass.
- CBall of the turn coordinator.
96What force causes an airplane to turn?
- ARudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.
- BVertical lift component.
- CHorizontal lift component.
97The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon
- AThe horizontal lift component.
- BThe vertical lift component.
- CCentrifugal force.
98When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?
- ADecrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack.
- BIncrease the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.
- CIncrease the angle of attack.
99During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?
- ACentrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
- BCentrifugal force is grater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
- CCentrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is decreased.
100What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?
- AHorizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force.
- BHorizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
- CCentrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.
Information
- Description
- Quiz on examen 4, created by Andres Felipe Londono on 05/11/2016.
- Author
- Andres Felipe Londono
- Language
- Español
- Views
- 14
- Tags
- Rating
- No ratings yet Rate this quiz