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Examen 6
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Questions in this quiz (94)
1Where would a pilot find the type of engine oil a specific aircraft uses
- ADo not even look, call maintenance
- BIn the approved Airplane Operating Manual (AOM) or similar
- CIn the Certificate of Airworthiness (Powerplant subsection)
2If during a preflight a pilot sees that a tire is showing just a thread of canvass, he should:
- Aonsult with a maintenance technician
- BConsult the limits / tolerances in the approved AFM.
- CLook it up in the Maintenance section of the company’s Operations Specifications
3If at an airport JET A or Jet B type fuels are not available for your aircraft, would you:
- ATop it up with 100/130 LL Avgas not to exceed a 50% ratio
- BLook in the Flight / Maintenance Manual for alternate fuels
- CNot use any other fuel than JET A or Jet B
4Modern aircraft are usually pressurized in flight by using:
- ABleed air tapped off from usually the compressor section of the engine
- BAuxiliary Power Units which are installed for this purpose primarily
- CPressure controlled bleed air tapped off usually from the last stage turbine section of the engine
5At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?
- ABelow .75 Mach.
- BFrom .75 to 1.20 Mach
- CFrom 1, 20 to 2, 50 Mach
6How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?
- AImmediatly after ground contact.
- BImmediatly prior to touchdown.
- CAfter applying maximum wheel braking.
7What characterizes a transient compressor stall?
- ALoud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.
- BSudden loss of thrust accompanied by loud whine.
- CIntermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversal take place.
8What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?
- AStrong vibrations and loud roar.
- BOccasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.
- CComplete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.
9In turbine engine jargon, a Hot Start is when:
- AThe outside air temperature is above ISA + 45o C
- BThe EGT rises rapidly before the N1/N2N/3 reach sufficient speed and the engine is about to exceed limitations
- CTheITT/EGT rises rapidly and exceeds limitations before sufficient turbine/compresso rrotation is obtained
10Turbine engines can deliver reverse thrust by.
- ABringingtheenginefromforwardthrustintoamomentarystop(stationary)thenspooledupintor eversethrust.
- BIt is merely accelerated as the exhaust is redirected forward
- CStarting the engine in the opposite direction of normal forward thrust.
11What other term is used to classify a “Turboprop Engine”:
- APropjet
- BFanjet
- CTPE (Turbocharged Propeller Engine)
12Approximately in what percentage do turboprop engines deliver thrust via the Propeller Vs turbine exhaust:
- A100% propeller - 0% turbine exhaust
- B75% propeller - 25% turbine exhaust
- C20% propeller - 80% turbine exhaust
13High-bypass ratio turbine engines can be compared in operating principle to
- AA turboprop engine with 200 or more small propeller blades
- BA regular jet engine with afterburner
- CA simple scramjet engine
14A regular gas turbine type engine’s performance is most affected by:
- AAmbient pressure and humidity
- BAmbient temperature and pressure
- CMostly humidity in the air Vs ISA conditions
15If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in:
- ALbs of thrust
- BESHP (equivalent shaft horse power)
- CAlso SHP
16What is the prime advantage of a fuel injected engine Vs a carburetor type:
- AA fuel injector better atomizes the fuel for optimum performance
- BA fuel injector is better because it can be adjusted on wing.
- CA fuel injector is less expensive because it does not need carburetor de-icing
17Turbine engines have a compression ratio of say 20:3 just like normal internal combustion engines do, this ratio on turbine type engines is:
- AAir pressures at the intake Vs the exhaust stage
- BAir pressures at the combustor stage Vs the turbine stage
- CAir pressures at the turbine Vs the exhaust stage
18Turbine engines have a compression ratio just like internal combustion engines
- ATrue
- BFalse
- CImpossible since turbine engines do not have pistons
19Constant speed propellers operate the same on an internal combustion engine as they do on most turboprop engines because they both
- AUse a hydraulic oil system to feed an over speed solenoid
- BUse engine oil and a propeller governor to maintain a given RPM set by the pilot
- CUse a propeller governor and turbine/turbocharger air to pneumatically control the engine RPM in flight
20With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
- AHelicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation.
- BThe vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast.
- CVortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behin dinamanner similar to wing
tip vortices generated by airplanes.
21When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
- AStay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
- BStay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.
- CStay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind
22To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
- APast the point where the jet touched down.
- BAt the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.
- CApproximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
23Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
- AMake sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
- BSlow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
- CMake sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
24During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
- ABeing airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
- BMaintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.
- CExtending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
25During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the
- AAmount of trim required to relieve control pressures.
- BHeading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.
- CPower and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.
26How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
- AThe nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
- BThe other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
- CThere will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
27What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
- ACurrent reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.
- BAltimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.
- C29.92 Inches Hg.
28When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.
- A30.50
- B31.00
- C32.00
29After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot
- AReceives an amended clearance or has an emergency.
- BIs operating VFR on top.
- CRequests an amended clearance.
30When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations should include
- ATurning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing.
- BSelecting a landing area close to public access, if possible.
- CLanding without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touchdown.
31After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include
- APlanning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area.
- BManeuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road.
- CTurning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing.
32What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?
- ARisk management, stress management, and risk elements.
- BPoor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment.
- CAntiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do
it).
33Light beacons producing red flashes indicate
- AA pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling.
- BObstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation.
- CEnd of runway warning at departure end.
34When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME hazardous attitude?
- AIt won't happen to me. It could happen to me.
- BNot so fast. Think first.
- CFollow the rules. They are usually right.
35The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by
- AA total disregard for any alternative course of action.
- BGenerating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and that may lead to a mishap.
- CImposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions.
36Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include:
- ADeficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations.
- BPeer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and operating without
adequate fuel reserves. - CPerformance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems.
37An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves
- ATaking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.
- BUnderstanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.'
- CObtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.
38Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by
- ATaking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes.
- BEarly recognition of hazardous thoughts.
- CRedirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
39What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?
- ADealing with improper judgment.
- BRecognition of hazardous thoughts.
- CRecognition of invulnerability in the situation.
40What does good cockpit stress management begin with?
- AKnowing what causes stress.
- BGood life stress management.
- CEliminating life and cockpit stress issues.
41The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction?
- AThose reservation rules do not apply to this flight.
- BThe pilot can't help it that the passengers are late.
- CIf the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time.
42
While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction?- AIt's too late to fix it now.
- BHe can handle a little problem like this.
- CWhat is the worst that could happen.
43Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to
- AAssume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority.
- BPromote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior.
- CComplete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the 'right stuff.'
44While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction?
- AHe is not too concerned, everything will be alright.
- BHe flies a little closer, just to show him.
- CHe quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision.
45To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must
- ACondition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.
- BBe aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying.
- CAvoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle cockpit responsibilities.
46A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction?
- AHe can't wait around to de-fuel, they have to get there on time.
- BWell, nobody told him about the extra weight.
- CWeight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by the FAA.
47Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?
- AEstimate.
- BEliminate.
- CEvaluate.
48Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?
- AIdentify.
- BDetect.
- CEvaluate.
49The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are:
- ADetect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.
- BDetermine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate.
- CDetermine, evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate.
50Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a
- AMentalprocessofanalyzingallinformationinaparticularsituationandmakingatimelydecisiononwhat action to take.
- BSystematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best
course of action for a given set of circumstances. - CDecision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.
51The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot
- AIdentifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.
- BDeveloping the 'right stuff' attitude.
- CMaking a rational evaluation of the required actions.
52The 'taxiway ending' marker
- AIdentifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
- BIndicates taxiway does not continue.
- CProvides general taxiing direction to taxiway.
53On a runway equipped with a precision approach, the touch down zone markings are located:
- AAt the end of the 3.000 Ft. TDZ
- BDepends if it’s a CAT I, II or III ILS runway
- C500 Ft from the beginning of the runway
54The area before a displaced threshold may be used:
- AOnly in emergencies
- BFor taxiing and landing rollout only
- CFor taxiing, take off and landing rollout
55A red background sign with white lettering denotes:
- AWarning positions for Non commercial or VFR aircraft
- BInstructions for military aircraft only
- CAn entrance to a runway a critical area or an area prohibited to aircraft
56A runway incursion is:
- ANot possible at airports with separate tower, ground and ramp controllers
- BA serious offence punishable to non licensed ground vehicle drivers
- CAny occurrence that creates a collision hazard on a runway
57On a PAPI you are on a correct glide path if:
- AYou see 2 white lights next to 2 red lights on the R side of the runway
- BYou stay within the standard 3o glide path
- CYou see 2 white lights on the outside and 2 red lights close to the left margin of the runway
58Runway center line lights are:
- AWhite and green
- BWhite and spaced every 25 Ft except for the last 500 Ft which are red
- CRed for the last 1.000 Ft of the runway
59Airlines may not operate aircraft in uncontrolled airspace:
- ATrue, Passenger carrying flights must always be operated in class A, B or C airspaces
- BFalse, It is allowed if the airline has foreign registered aircraft operating in Colombia
- CFalse, it is allowed so long as the OPS SPECS say so
60If you are cleared to a VOR on a descent from Fl. 190 to 9.000 Ft. and your IAS is 279 Kts, when at the VOR:
- AYou must slow down to 200 Kts
- BYou are legal since you did not exceed 280 Kts
- CYou are illegal unless specifically authorized by ATC
61On an approach to an airport, you have been advised you are in radar contact and are vectored for the approach, the controller asks you fly slightly below the MEA, you should:
- ANot obey, since you may be in or encounter clouds
- BObey to all instructions since you were advised to be in radar contact
- CObey so long as you are not asked to fly below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude in IMC
62Intersection take offs are:
- ANot allowed for passenger flights
- BNot allowed in Colombia for foreign registered aircraft
- CAllowed under dry pavement conditions only
63When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes
- AThe unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil
- BAll usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage.
- CAllusablefuelandoil, butdoesnotincludeanyradioequipmentorinstrumentsthatwereinstalledbysomeone other than the manufacturer.
64If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at the
- ACenterline of the main wheels.
- BNose, or out in front of the airplane.
- CCenterline of the nose or tailwheel, depending on the type of airplane.
65The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods?
- ADividing total arms by total moments.
- BMultiplying total arms by total weight
- CDividing total moments by total weight.
66Automated flight decks or cockpits
- AEnhance basic pilot flight skills.
- BDecrease the work load in terminal areas.
- COften create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits
67Identify REIL.
- AAmber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
- BGreen lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway.
- CSynchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
68What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
- ALights are closed together and easily distinguinished from surrounding lights.
- BAmber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for caution zone.
- CAlternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of the runway for caution zone.
69What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?
- ARow of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white and green.
- BRow of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white.
- COne light projector with two colors; red and white.
70You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when
- AThe aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign.
- BThe flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.
- CAll parts of the aircraft hace crossed the hold line.
71What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?
- A-5°C.
- B-15°C.
- C+5°C.
72What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet?
- A-10°C.
- B-15°C.
- C-25°C.
73W hat are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
- A15°C and 29.92" Hg.
- B59°F and 1013.2" Hg.
- C15°C and 29.92 Mb.
74The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on
- APressure/density altitude.
- BCabin altitude.
- CTrue altitude.
75What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance?
- AAs air density decreases, thrust increases.
- BAs temperature increases, thrust increases.
- CAs temperature increases, thrust decreases.
76With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use
- AAileronpressureintothewindandinitiatethelift-offatanormalairspeedinbothtailwheelandnosewheel- type airplanes.
- BRight rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle- and conventional-gear airplanes.
- CRudderasrequiredtomaintaindirectionalcontrol, aileronpressureintothewind, andhigherthannormal
lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type airplanes.
77When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason?
- AIncrease the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.
- BDecrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane.
- CIncreasetheairspeedslightlyabovenormalapproachspeedtopenetratetheturbulenceasquickl yaspossible.
78A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is
- AMaintaining a safe airspeed.
- BLanding directly into the wind.
- CTurning back to the takeoff field.
79Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?
- AA power-on approach and power-on landing.
- BA power-off approach and power-on landing.
- CA power-on approach and power-off landing.
80A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the
- ADirection of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway.
- BDirection of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.
- CDownwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift.
81What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?
- AIncreases takeoff speed.
- BIncreases takeoff distance.
- CDecreases takeoff distance.
82At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed
- AWill be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster.
- BWill be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged.
- CShould be increased to compensate for the thinner air.
83Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?
- ASudden decrease in the headwind component.
- BTailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.
- CSudden increase in a headwind component.
84Which INITIAL cockpit indicatons should a pilot be awere of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?
- AIndicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases.
- BIndicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases.
- CIndicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
85Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed?
- AIncreasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.
- BIncreasing tailwind and headwind.
- CDecreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
86Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?
- ADecreasing headwind or tailwind.
- BDecreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
- CIncreasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
87What is the recommended technique to counter a loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?
- ALower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed.
- BAvoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed", and apply maximum power.
- CMaintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.
88What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
- ATwo minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
- BOne microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
- CSeldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation
89Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?
- AWhen constant pressure charts show a 20-knot isotaches less than 60 NM apart.
- BWhen constant pressure charts show a 60-knot isotaches less than 20 NM apart.
- CWhen a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
90Which is the definition of "severe wind shear"?
- AAny rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted.
- BAny rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15
knots or vertical speed changes greater tan 500 ft/min - CAnychangeofairspeedgreaterthan20Knotswhichissustainedformorethan20secondsorverticalspeed changes in excess of 100ft/min.
91What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?
- ALight and variable.
- BWind shear.
- CFrontal passage.
92Which INTIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be awere of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?
- AAltitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.
- BAltitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
- CAltitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
93Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as fas as
- A1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain.
- B5,000 feet above the tropopause.
- C100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.
94What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)
- AExtend flaps to decrease wind loading.
- BExtend gear to provide more drag and increase stability.
- CAdjust airspeed to that recomended for rough air.
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- Quiz on Examen 6, created by Andres Felipe Londono on 09/11/2016.
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- Andres Felipe Londono
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