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Questions in this quiz (159)
1In which stage of the business continuity planning lifecycle does an organization identify critical
business processes and assign recovery priorities?- AAnalyzing
- BEstablishing objectives
- CDesigning and developing
- DImplementing
2What is an example of an active attack on an IT infrastructure?
- AAttempt to modify information for malicious purposes
- BAttempt to copy the data from the storage system
- CAttempt to gain unauthorized access into the system
- DAttempt to gain access to the data in transit
3A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational 24x7. However, a
failure of Port 5 occurs on a particular week as follows:
- Monday = 11 AM to 12 PM
- Thursday = 7 AM to 11 AM
- Saturday = 11 AM to 1 PM
What is the availability of Port 5 in that week?- A93%
- B94.1%
- C95.8%
- D97%
4What is a benefit of implementing a virtual machine (VM) storage migration?
- ABalances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage systems
- BEnables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure
- CImproves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system
- DReduces the overall storage system capacity requirements for organizations
5How do VSANs ensure security in an IT infrastructure?
- ABy providing isolation over a shared infrastructure
- BBy authenticating a new switch that joins a fabric
- CBy limiting the number of switches in a fabric
- DBy prohibiting an unused switch port from being used
6An application generates 8400 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of
2:1.
What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 5 configuration?- A4800
- B11200
- C16800
- D22400
7An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution by retaining their legacy backup
application. They are concerned about the application servers' performance and a long backup
window during backups.
Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended to the organization?- APost-process
- BSource-based global deduplication
- CVariable-length segment and source-based
- DFixed-length block and source-based
8In a virtualized environment, which method enables a virtual machine to be rolled back in case
of a logical corruption to the virtual machine?- AVirtual volume replication
- BVM snapshot
- CStorage array volume replication
- DVM clone
9What is an accurate statement about VLANs and VSANs in an FCoE environment with an
existing FC SAN?- AA dedicated VLAN must be configured for each VSAN
- BVLANs configured for VSANs must carry regular LAN traffic
- CDefault VLAN must map to all VSANs defined in the FCoE switch
- DA minimum of four VLANs must be created to isolate VSAN traffic
10What is a characteristic of target-based inline deduplication?
- ADeduplication processing occurs on the client before backup data is sent to the backup device
- BBackup data is stored on the backup device and then deduplication is performed
- CChanges must be made in the backup software to implement deduplication
- DDeduplication processing occurs at the backup device before it is stored on the backup device
11Which Internet of Things (IoT) component is responsible for the automation of operations by
applying a force based on the dynamics of data?- AActuator
- BSwitch
- CSensor
- DGateway
12 What is a benefit of backing up data to a disk library?
- AProvides improved backup and recovery performance
- BProvides built-in portability to meet offsite requirements
- CSupports the shoe shining effect for improved backup performance
- DPre-configured and dedicated appliance is only used for backups
13 What is an accurate statement about the function of an archiving server?
- AEnables the ability to configure policies for archiving data
- BInstalls agentson the archiving storage device
- CScans the data that can bearchived on application servers
- DCreates stub files on an archiving storage device
14What determines how far back the recovery points can go in a continuous data protection
(CDP) solution?- AAmount of space that is configured for the journal
- BSize of the CDP appliance used for replication
- CSize of the source and replica volumes
- DType of write splitter used for replication
15Which capability does big data analytics provide?
- AEnabling data-driven decisions from large volumes of data
- BStoring large volumes of data without affecting availability
- CReducing the data storage capacity requirement
- DPerforming analytics using traditional tools
16Which type of LUN provides full control for precise data placement and allows an
administrator to create LUNs on different RAID sets if there is workload contention?- ATraditional
- BThin
- CJournal
- DBitmap
17Why is it important for organizations to store, protect, and manage their data?
- AReduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up.
- BRapidly develop and deploy modern applications for business improvement
- CDevelop new business opportunities by leveraging existing data
- DReduce the complexity in managing the data center environment.
18Which EMC product is a VNX array-based local replication software that creates a full volume mirror of the source?
- ASnapView Snapshot
- BSnapView Clone
- CTimeFinder/Snap
- DTimeFinder/Clone
19What is an advantage of performing cumulative backups compared to incremental backups for the same data?
- AFacilitates faster restores
- BFacilitates faster backups
- CReduces the storage space required for backups
- DEliminates the need for full backups
20When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided
into
12 data segments and 4 coding segments.
What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the
configuration?- A3
- B4
- C8
- D12
21A company's Finance department needs 200 GB of storage for their business applications.
A LUN is created with 200 GB and RAID 1 is configured to support the applications. If the cost of
storage per GB is $2, what is the chargeback cost to the department for application storage?- A200
- B400
- C800
- D1500
22Which solid state drive component performs write coalescing?
- AController
- BI/O interface
- CNon-volatile memory
- DCache
23In the event of a disk failure, which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction?
- ARAID 3
- BRAID 5
- CRAID 6
- DRAID 10
24In an archiving environment, how is a content address created in a content addressable
storage (CAS) system to store an object?- AFrom the metadata of an object.
- BBy using the logical address of the memory space
- CFrom the binary representation of an object.
- DBy using the physical address of the storage device.
25What is a benefit of a "recovery-in-place" backup approach in a virtualized data center?
- AProvides instant recovery of a failed virtual machine
- BReduces the recovery point objective
- CEliminates redundant data during virtual machine backups
- DEliminates the backup window
26Which cloud service does VMware vCloud Air provide?
- AInfrastructure as a Service
- BPlatform as a Service
- CDatabase as a Service
- DSoftware as a Service
27What is an accurate statement about Software as a Service?
- AConsumer has limited control over user-specific application configuration settings
- BConsumer has control over the operating systems and deployed applications
- CConsumer has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment
- DConsumer has limited control over select networking components, such as host firewalls
28What is an accurate statement about incremental forever backups?
- ARequires only one initial full back up
- BRequires periodic full back ups
- CBackup is not created directly from the production data
- DCopies the data that has changed since the last full back up
29Which technology is used in the media and entertainment industry to enable content-based
search activity and to create video subtitles using natural language processing?- AMachine learning
- BSocial networking
- CCloud computing
- DInternet of Things
30What accurately describes the scale-out storage architecture?
- AScales the capacity only within a single storage system
- BProvides a fixed capacity ceiling that limits scalability beyond a storage system.
- CProvides the capability to maximize its capacity by adding nodes to the cluster.
- DRestricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers.
31What is an accurate statement about a virtual tape library?
- ALegacy backup software can be used without additional modules or changes
- BPortability of physical tapes tooffsite locations is supported
- COnly sequential data access for both backup and recovery is supported
- DRegular maintenance tasks associated with a physical tape drive are required
32What is a component of an FCoE switch?
- AEthernet Bridge
- BVirtual N_Port
- CConverged Network Adapter
- DFCIP Forwarder
33Which part of the Fibre Channel (FC) frame does the label "X" represent in the exhibit?
https://cdn.goconqr.com/uploads/media/image/31472577/desktop_a2aab2d7-3a0d-484c-b248-f945e266be47.png
- AFrame Header
- BCRC
- CSOF
- DData Field
34What is an accurate statement about Platform as a Service?
- AConsumer has control over the deployed applications
- BConsumer has control over the operating system and database management system
- CConsumer has control over the programming languages and tools
- DConsumer has control over the operating system and storage
35A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for
their operations. The company has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict
service levels. In addition, the company has less critical applications such as backup and archive.
Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?- ADeploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud. - BDeploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. - CDeploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud. - DDeploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
- ADeploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
36What is an accurate statement about Governance?
- ARestrict access to certain users
- BEnsure removal of security risks
- CAuthorize policy-making decisions
- DDemonstrate adherence to polices
37Which method does an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) use to identify
intrusions by scanning and analyzing events to detect if they are statistically different from normal
events?- AAnomaly-based
- BSignature-based
- CProfile-based
- DDevice-based
38Which data center characteristic ensures that adequate resources are provided to efficiently
store and process data?- ACapacity
- BAvailability
- CScalability
- DPerformance
39An application uses ten, 15 GB devices.
A pointer-based full volume replica of the application is required.
The replica will be kept for 24 hours and the data changes by 10% every 24 hours.
How much storage should be allocated for the replication?- A15 GB
- B30 GB
- C150 GB
- D300 GB
40What is an advantage of implementing file-level virtualization in a data center environment?
- AProvides non-disruptive file mobility across NAS devices
- BAllows users the ability to only use a physical path to access files
- CProvides the capability to access files from any device
- DProvides dynamic distribution of files across NAS clients.
41In an FC SAN environment, an administrator wants to ensure that a particular switch port
cannot function as an E_Port and cannot be used to create an interswitch link. Which security
mechanism should the administrator use?- APort type locking
- BPort binding
- CPersistent port disable
- DFabric binding
42In continuous data protection (CDP) remote replication, where are the two split write I/Os of
an incoming write I/O directed?- AOne I/O goes to the local CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the production volume
- BOne I/O goes to the compute system and the other I/O goes to the production volume
- COne I/O goes to the remote CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the replica
- DOne I/O goes to the journal volume and the other I/O goes to the replica
43What accurately describes a shared pool in virtual provisioning?
- AShould contain only homogeneous disk drive types
- BSupports a single RAID protection level.
- CConsists of only a virtual storage volume.
- DShould contain only physical drives with different sizes
44An organization has several virtual machines (VMs) deployed in their data center. The VM
files are stored on a block-based storage system. The applications on the VMs are impacted during
VM backup because the backup agents on the VMs are consuming a large amount of resources.
Which alternate backup solution is recommended to address this issue?- AImage-based back
- BThree-way NDMP backup
- CTwo-way NDMP backup
- DTarget-based deduplication backup
45What enables an administrator to create device groups in an IP-SAN for restricting device
communications to a group?- AiSNS discovery domain
- BNIC teaming
- CDemilitarized zone
- DSecurity identifier
46Which technology combines NAND flash memory into a hard disk drive and is a single,
integrated device incorporating both types of storage?- ASolid-state drive
- BDual drive
- CFibre Channel drive
- DSolid-state hybrid drive
47An application generates 8400 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio
of 2:1.
What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 1/0 configuration?- A5600
- B11200
- C16800
- D22400
48 Which type of digital data consists of textual data with inconsistent formats but can be
formatted with the use of software tools?- AQuasi-structured data
- BSemi-structured data
- CMetadata
- DUnstructured data
49What is an accurate statement about a software RAID implementation?
- AUses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations
- BSupports the upgrade of RAID software on incompatible O/S
- CUses a specialized hardware controller to perform RAID calculations
- DSupports all RAID levels
50What is an advantage of the changed block tracking backup technique?
- AReduces the backup window
- BEnables restoration to any point-in-time
- CEliminates the need for data deduplication
- DIncreases backup device performance
51When implementing a full mesh topology in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN environment, what is
the effect when there is an increase in the number of switches?- AReduces the available node ports for ISL connectivity.
- BIncreases the load on the ISLs due to traffic aggregation.
- CIncreases the hop count for compute to storage traffic
- DReduces the available switch ports for node connectivity.
52What is an accurate statement about OAuth security control?
- AAllows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
- BProvides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- CEnables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
- DEnables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
53 If a company has experienced a passive attack on its IT infrastructure, how is the company's
security impacted?- AAccess to services is denied
- BAvailability of data is affected.
- CInformation privacy is compromised.
- DData is altered by an unauthorized user.
54An organization plans to deploy a new backup device in their data center. The organization
wants the new backup device to support their legacy backup software without requiring any changes
to the software. In addition, the organization wants the backup device to provide random data access
for better performance.
Which backup device should be recommended?- AVirtual tape library
- BTape-based backup appliance
- CTape library
- DOptical juke box
55What is an accurate statement about stretched VLANs?
- AReduces network bandwidth requirements during VM migration across sites.
- BRequires a change in the VMs' IP addresses to match the addressing scheme at the other sites.
- CEnables automatic modification of VLAN addresses during VM migration across sites.
- DSupports migration of VMs across sites without the need to change their network configurations.
56Which cloud deployment model allows provisioning of a cloud infrastructure only for use by a
single organization having multiple consumers?- APublic cloud
- BMulti-cloud
- CHybrid cloud
- DPrivate cloud
57What is the goal of a business continuity solution?
- AReduce the amount of investment in protecting an organization's business-related data
- BAvoid a disaster in a data protection environment to control the loss of data.
- CEnsure information availability that is required to conduct vital business operations.
- DEliminate security threats in a data protection environment for continuous access to data.
58Which layer of the OSI model provides the functional and procedural methods to transfer
data between network entities?- AData link
- BPresentation
- CSession
- DApplication
59What is an example of an availability management task in storage infrastructure
management?- ADesigning a new replication solution for data redundancy
- BPerforming trend analysis of storage space consumption
- CTracking configuration changes to storage components
- DSpecifying storage space quotas for users
60Which type of storage system is built specifically for storing fixed content?
- AContent addressed storage
- BBlock-based storage
- CFile-based storage
- DUnified storage
61What is an example of a Performance Management task?
- ASelecting an appropriate RAID type for a storage pool.
- BRemoving unused resources from a service and reassigning them to another.
- CScanning applications and databases to identify vulnerabilities.
- DPlanning and architecting data backup and replication solutions.
62Which method is used to establish a VPN connection between a primary and remote data
center to perform secure remote replication?- ASite-to-site VPN connection
- BRemote access VPN connection
- CIntra-site VPN connection
- DLong distance VPN connection
63What is a characteristic of an FC-AL implementation?
- AReserves one address for connecting an FC-SW port
- BSupports connectivity up to 15 million nodes
- CDevices can be added and removed dynamically without any impact
- DRequires at least one connectivity device
64An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and incremental back ups on the
remaining days at 9:00 AM. However, at 10 PM on Friday, a data corruption occurs that requires a
data restoration from the backup copies.
How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?- A2
- B4
- C5
- D6
65An organization plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application
requires 2 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate
9800 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 4 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 250 GB.
The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with 70 percent utilization is 90 IOPS. What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and
performance requirements given a RAID 0 configuration?- A8
- B70
- C110
- D140
66A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a
limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings.
Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?- AIncremental
- BCumulative
- CFull
- DDifferential
67Which product provides an organization with the power to search and analyze vast amounts
of data in one place and helps administrators to discover suspicious event trends?- ADell InTrust
- BDell Change Auditor
- CVMware AppDefense
- DVMware AirWatch
68What is a function of the NDMP server in an NDMP-based backup approach?
- AReads the data from the storage device and sends the data to the backup device
- BReads the data from the backup server and sends the data to the backup device
- CInstructs the NAS head to startthe backup operation
- DInstructs the backup agent on the client to send the data to the backup device
69Which file system uses a MapReduce framework to run applications and a NameNode for
managing the file system?- ANew Technology File System (NTFS)
- BHadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)
- CNetwork File System (NFS)
- DCommon Internet File System (CIFS)
70What contains the information about backup configuration and backup metadata?
- ABackup catalog
- BProxy server
- CTracking database
- DBackup image
71 In an FCoE switch, which function is provided by the Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)?
- ACommunication bridge between CEE and IP networks
- BCommunication bridge between FC and FCIP networks
- CCommunication bridge between CEE and FCIP networks
- DCommunication bridge between CEE and FC networks
72What is a benefit when a node is added to a scale-out NAS cluster?
- AIncreased cluster performance
- BReduced capital expenditure
- CSimplified cluster management
- DDecreased data duplication
73An administrator has defined a backup policy. Full backups will be performed at 8 PM every
Monday and incremental backups performed at 8 PM the remaining days. How many backup copies
are required to restore the files if they were accidentally deleted on Friday morning?- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
74What refers to an IT infrastructure's ability to function based on business expectations during
its specified time of operations?- AInformation availability
- BDisaster recovery
- CCompliance adherence
- DBusiness agility
75Which functionality does a Control layer provide in a software-defined networking
architecture?- ADefining the network behavior through various policies.
- BMaking decisions on how the packets should be forwarded.
- CEstablishing communications between the Infrastructure and Interface layers.
- DForwarding data packets based on the requirements from the Application layer.
76What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?
- ACaptures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time
- BProvides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created
- CRuns as an independent copy from the parent VM
- DProvides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time
77An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from
Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:
- Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM
- Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM
- Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM
- Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM
What is the MTTR of Port 4?- A2 hours
- B3 hours
- C28 hours
- D38 hours
78What is a benefit of using content addressed storage (CAS) as an archival solution?
- AEnsures content authenticity and integrity
- BSupports location independence using different content IDs for an object
- CProvides the ability to perform production operations on the CAS
- DEnables modification of archived data
79A customer wants 24x7 availability for a business application that uses a file system.
Which operation ensures a consistent replica of the file system?- AUnmount the file system prior to the creation of the replica
- BStop the application prior to the creation of the replica
- CFlush the file system buffers after creation of the replica
- DFlush the file system buffers before creation of the replica
80Which EMC product provides a remote replication solution for EMC VMAX3 storage systems?
- ASRDF
- BSnapSure
- CMirrorView
- DProtectPoint
81What is determined by the recovery point objective in a business continuity solution?
- AFrequency of the backup
- BType of backup devices
- CType of disaster recovery site
- DDistance between the primary and disaster recovery sites
82Why is it important for organizations to maintain a copy of data at a remote site?
- AEnsure disaster recovery
- BProvide operational recovery
- CEnsure data archiving to meet regulatory requirements
- DProvide flexibility to use stub files for production operations
83What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?
- AGenerates the file system namespace from the file contents.
- BManages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored
- CManages the storage space for all remote clients.
- DMaintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.
84In an FC SAN environment, which security mechanism prevents a switch port from being
enabled even after a switch reboot?- APort locking
- BPort type locking
- CPort binding
- DFabric binding
85 An organization plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application
requires 3 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate
2450 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 2 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 500 GB.
The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with 70 percent utilization is 90 IOPS.
What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and
performance requirements given a RAID 0 configuration?- A6
- B16
- C25
- D28
86A consumer is interested in a service that provides multiple operating systems and
programming frameworks for application development and deployment. Which recommended cloud
service model will meet these requirements?- AStorage as a Service
- BPlatform as a Service
- CInfrastructure as a Service
- DSoftware as a Service
87What accurately describes hypervisor-based continuous data protection?
- AVirtual appliance is running on a hypervisor.
- BJournal is stored in a virtual machine.
- CVirtual appliance runs on a storage system.
- DReplica volumes are created in the hypervisor.
88Which LUN expansion technique provides both capacity expansion and performance
improvement?- AStriped metaLUN
- BPartitioned metaLUN
- CVirtual metaLUN
- DConcatenated metaLUN
89 In a compute-based storage area network (SAN), what is a function of the metadata
manager?- AHolds cluster-wide mapping information and load balancing in a compute-based SAN.
- BPerforms the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client
- CProvides an interface to the software-defined storage controller.
- DControls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SAN.
90 What accurately describes virtual SAN (VSAN) trunking?
- AReduces the utilization of ISLs by removing all the ISLs configured between the FC switches.
- BIncreases the number of E_ports used for the ISLs to transfer multiple VSAN traffic
- CIncreases the complexity of managing the FC SAN with an increase in the number of ISLs.
- DReduces the number of ISLs between switches that are configured with multiple VSANs.
91What is an accurate statement about a fabric-provided MAC address (FPMA) used in an
FCoE SAN?- AFCoE switches provide MAC addresses to VN_Ports during node login
- BFC switches provide MAC addresses to VE_Ports dynamically during discovery
- CCompute systems provide MAC addresses to the VF_Ports on FCoE switches
- DBoth VF_Ports and VE_Ports obtain MAC addresses from FC switches
92 What is compromised by a passive attack on an IT infrastructure?
- AConfidentiality
- BIntegrity
- CAvailability
- DRepudiation
93What is a key advantage of cloning a virtual machine (VM)?
- AAbility to run new VMs simultaneously with the same IP address
- BReduces the time required to create multiple copies of a VM.
- CImproves the performance of an existing VM and new VMs.
- DEliminates the need to create multiple snapshots for a VM
94What is an accurate statement about a hardware RAID implementation?
- AUses a specialized hardware controller installed on a storage array
- BUses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations
- CRequires a RAID controller and operating system to be compatible
- DOffers a low-cost solution for providing disk protection
95Which product delivers virtualized or hosted desktops and applications through a single
platform?- AVMware Horizon
- BDell EMC VxRail Appliance
- CVMware NSX
- DDell PowerEdge servers
96Which Dell EMC product enables continuous protection for any PIT recovery and offers
multi-site support?- ARecoverPoint
- BAvamar
- CSourceOne
- DSRDF
97Which attack is carried out by sending a spoofing e-mail and redirecting a user to a false
website?- APhishing
- BMan-in-the-middle
- CDenial-of-service
- DRepudiation
98What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?
- APerforms both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing
- BRequires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing
- CRequires a software adapter with built-in functionality
- DEnables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling
99 In a copy on first access (CoFA) technique, when is data copied from the source to the
target?- AAll writes are issued to a location on the source
- BAll writes are issued to a location on the target
- CA read or write is issued for the first time to a location on the target
- DA read is issued for the first time from a location on the source
100An application generates 4200 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio
of 2:1.
What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 6 configuration?- A2800
- B5600
- C8400
- D11200
101Which action takes place during the login phase in an FCoE SAN?
- AVN_Ports obtain FC addresses
- BNodes locate the Fibre Channel Forwarder
- CInitialization protocol starts transporting FC data
- DVN_Port to N_Port pairing is established
102Which iSCSI host connectivity option is recommended in a CPU-intensive application
environment?- AiSCSI HBA
- BNIC with software-based iSCSI initiator
- CTCP offload eng
- DConverged Network Adapter
103A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24
hours; Monday through Friday. During a particular week, failure of component 3 occurred as follows:
-Tuesday = 8 AM to 1 PM -Thursday = 5 PM to 10 PM -Friday = 5 AM to 10 AM What is the mean time
between failures on component 3 for that week?- A5 hours
- B35 hours
- C40 hours
- D51 hours
104An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and cumulative back ups on the
remaining days. On Thursday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the
backup copies. How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
105What is signified by the "variability" characteristic of big data?
- AMeaning of the data changes constantly
- BData is generated in different formats by numerous sources
- CData change rate affects its timely analysis
- DVarying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
106 Which technique is used in Kerberos to authenticate a client-server application across an
insecure network?- ASecret-key cryptography
- BOne-way hash function
- CShared secret
- DOpenID control
107When using a bridged iSCSI connection, which components facilitate communication
between gateways?- ACompute system with iSCSI ports and the storage system with Ethernet ports.
- BCompute system with iSCSI ports and the storage system with only FC ports
- CCompute system with FC HBA ports and the storage system with only FC ports.
- DCompute system with FCoE ports and the storage system with iSCSI ports.
108Which EMC product provides automated monitoring and reporting of a software-defined
storage infrastructure?- AViPR SRM
- BSnapSure
- CAvamar
- DFAST VP
109What is a benefit of link aggregation?
- AOptimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISLs.
- BImproves ISL utilization by increasing the network traffic on a specific ISL
- CYields a higher throughput by combining two parallel ISLs into a single physical ISL.
- DSaves bandwidth by restricting traffic to a specific potentially congested ISL
110Winch Dell EMC product creates a server and IP-based SAN from direct-attached server
storage to deliver flexible and scalable performance and capacity on demand?- APowerMax
- BVxFlex OS
- CViPR Controller
- DXtremIO
111What accurately describes a software-defined architecture?
- ASupports only central management of private cloud resources using a pre-defined policy.
- BProvides a unified management platform for centralized monitoring and administration.
- CUses only converged and hyperconverged infrastructures to offer services to companies
- DProvides decentralized, manual, and policy-driven IT resource management.
112Which cloud computing characteristic enables multi-tenancy and abstracts the location of
provided resources?- AResource pooling
- BMeasured service
- CRapid elasticity
- DBroad network access
113What is an activity in the risk assessment step of risk management?
- ADetermine the likelihood of a risk
- BPlan and deploy security controls
- CContinuously observe the existing
- DIdentify the sources of threats that increase the risks
114What is an advantage of deploying a purpose-built, disk-based backup appliance in a datacenter environment?
- AEliminate the need for performing source-based deduplication.
- BConvert the capital expenditure to an operational expenditure.
- CLower the recovery time objective of an organization
- DRetain the fixed content for longer periods in the data center.
115Which component is required for a "recovery-in-place" backup approach?
- ADisk-based backup target
- BAgent-based backupclient
- CNDMP server
- DData deduplication server
116What is signified by the "variety" characteristic of big data?
- AData is generated in different formats by numerous sources
- BMeaning of the data changes constantly
- CVarying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
- DData change rate affects its timely analysis
117Which data center management process involves collating and presenting the utilization of
resources?- AReporting
- BProvisioning
- CPlanning
- DMaintenance
118What is an accurate statement about full volume replication?
- ATarget device is at least as large as the source device
- BTarget device requires only a fraction of the space used by the source device
- CTarget device is accessible only after the replication session starts
- DTarget and source devices should be on different storage arrays
119What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
- AFile system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
- BUp to four file systems can be created across the cluster
- CDistinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
- DDifferent file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
120What is an example of a security management task in a storage infrastructure?
- AConfiguring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specific LUN
- BEnforcing storage space quotas to restrict users from overprovisioning resources
- CRestricting the number of simultaneous client access to application servers
- DEnabling sending messages to a support center in the event of resource failure
121What accurately describes an attack vector in an IT infrastructure?
- ASeries of steps that must be followed in order to complete an attack
- BVarious entry points that can be used to launch an attack
- CAmount of effort required to exploit vulnerabilities in the infrastructure
- DProcess of identifying the system components under attack
122Why are organizations moving towards a modern data center implementation?
- ADevelop modern applications in the public cloud without having the right skill set in-house.
- BAbility to be agile, operate in real time, and develop intelligent products.
- CDeploy only unified and converged IT resources to reduce the management complexity.
- DReduce the cost of managing data center components by using a self-service catalog.
123What is an accurate statement about variable prefetching?
- AMany blocks that have recently been written to storage by the compute system are retrieved and
placed in cache. - BMany non-contiguous blocks that are not currently required can be retrieved from cache in
advance - CStorage system prefetches data in multiples of the original I/O request size from the compute
system. - DStorage system prefetches many non-contiguous blocks of data, with varied sizes, from cache.
- AMany blocks that have recently been written to storage by the compute system are retrieved and
124A backup administrator has defined a backup policy. The policy requires full backups to be
performed at 10 PM every Sunday and incremental backups performed at 10 PM the remaining days.
If files were accidentally deleted Wednesday morning, how many backup copies are required to
restore the files?- A2
- B3
- C4
- D5
125Which Dell EMC product is a hyper-scale storage infrastructure that provides universal
accessibility with support for object and HDFS?- AViPR Controller
- BPowerMax
- CIsilon
- DElastic Cloud Storage
126What is a benefit of deploying a multi-site storage system-based remote replication
solution?- AEnsures disaster recovery protection remains available in the event of source or remote site
failures - BProvides the capability to recover data to any point-in-time
- CRequires low network bandwidth to perform synchronous replication
- DEnables a consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures
- AEnsures disaster recovery protection remains available in the event of source or remote site
127 In an FCoE environment, which functionality provides a framework for the allocation of
bandwidth to different network traffic classes?- AEnhanced transmission selection
- BPriority-based flow control
- CCongestion notification
- DData center bridging exchange protocol
128A company is using an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) to scan and analyze intrusion events.
Which IDPS technique uses a database that contains known attack patterns?- ARole-based
- BProfile-based
- CSignature-based
- DAnomaly-based
129What is determined based on the recovery point objective in an asynchronous remote
replication?- ASize of the buffer
- BSize of the replica
- CResponse time
- DLocation of the source
130A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24
hours; Monday through Friday. During a particular week, failure of component 1 occurred as follows:
-Tuesday = 8 AM to 11 AM -Thursday = 8 PM to 10 PM -Friday = 5 AM to 9 AM What is the mean time
between failures on component 1 for that week?- A3 hours
- B37 hours
- C40 hours
- D53 hours
131What is an accurate statement about Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
control?- AEnables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
- BProvides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- CAllows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
- DEnables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
132What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
- ABackup data is sent directly from NAS to the backup device
- BBackup data is sent to the backup device through the application servers
- CA dedicated backup device is required for each NAS
- DAll NAS systems should have the same operating environment
133A company is planning to perform a cloud-based backup. They want to send their data over
a public network to a cloud backup device. Which security control mechanism helps to protect the data from an attacker?- AMulti-factor authentication
- BDemilitarized zone
- CData shredding
- DEncryption
134What is an accurate statement about Infrastructure as a Service?
- AConsumer has control over the operating systems and the deployed applications
- BConsumer only has control over user-specific application configuration settings
- CConsumer has control over network devices, compute systems, and storage systems
- D. Consumer only has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment
135What is the purpose of monitoring capacity in a storage infrastructure?
- ATracking the amount of storage infrastructure resources used and available
- BEvaluating utilization of components and identifying bottlenecks
- CTracking configuration changes to the storage infrastructure elements
- DIdentifying component failures that may lead to service unavailability
136 What is an accurate statement about a denial-of-service attack?
- APrevents legitimate users fromaccessing resources or services
- BIntentional misuse of privileges to compromise data security
- CGaining unauthorized access to a user's accounts and data
- DCaptures a user's credentials and then sends to the attacker
137Which data archiving component scans primary storage to find the files that meet the
archiving policy?- AArchive storage
- BArchive database server
- CArchive agent
- DArchive stub file
138What accurately describes an Incident in a storage infrastructure?
- AUnknown root cause of one or more disruptions to service.
- BAny event that may lead to the disruption of a service.
- CSupport request to help access an IT resource
- DAny event that may create a change in correcting a known error.
139What accurately describes the seek time of a disk drive?
- ATime taken to position the read/write head over the correct track
- BTime taken by the platter to position the data under the read/write head
- CTime taken to read a block of data from the platter
- DTime taken by the controller to service an I/O from the application
140A company plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application
requires
2 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 4500 IOPS with
a typical I/O size of 4 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 250 GB. In addition, the
maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70% utilization is 90 IOPS.
What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and
performance requirements for a RAID 0 configuration?- A8
- B40
- C50
- D70
141What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
- ABackup device can be shared among multiple NAS heads
- BEach NAS head should have a dedicated backup device
- CBackup data traverses at least three NAS heads before reaching the backup device
- DBackup is performed only when three or more NAS heads are present
142Which type of digital data has no defined format but has a self-describing structure that
enables its analysis?- ASemi-structured data
- BStructured data
- CMetadata
- DQuasi-structured data
143Which data center characteristic ensures that data is stored and retrieved exactly as it was
received?- AData integrity
- BSecurity
- CScalability
- DManageability
144Which EMC product enables management for Vblock systems?
- AUnified Infrastructure Manager
- BMirrorView
- CService Assurance Suite
- DViPR SRM
145Which technology decouples the OS, applications, and user state from a physical compute
system?- AApplication virtualization
- BStorage virtualization
- CThin client virtualization
- DDesktop virtualization
146What provides the ability to automatically relocate extents across physical storage drives
over the entire pool when new drives are added to the pool?- AStorage pool rebalancing
- BExtent relocation
- CStorage pool tiering
- DAutomated extent tiering
147What is a key advantage of implementing FCIP?
- AProvides a disaster recovery solution by replicating data across data centers.
- BEnables migration of VMs across data centers by using existing FC networks.
- CEnsures lossless transmission of FC traffic across data centers over Ethernet.
- DProvides a dedicated network for transmission of storage traffic within a data center.
148Why should a replica be consistent with its source?
- AEnsure the usability of the replica
- BReduce the need to create multiple replicas
- CEnsure the security of the replica
- DReduce the size of the replica
149What is a benefit of deploying a Defense in Depth strategy?
- AProvides additional time for organizations to detect and respond to an attack
- BEliminates the attack vector from the IT infrastructure
- CEliminates the attack surface from the IT infrastructure
- DEnables organizations to deploy a unified security solution
150What is an accurate statement about OpenID control?
- AEnables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
- BEnables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
- CProvides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- DAllows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource
owner
151What does an area ID represent in Fibre Channel (FC) addressing?
- AGroup of switch ports
- BSwitch within a group
- CPort within a group
- DGroup of switches
152An organization plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application
requires 4 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate
4900 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 8 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 500 GB.
The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70 percent utilization is 110 IOPS.
What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and performance requirements given a RAID 0 configuration?- A8
- B20
- C30
- D45
153What is an accurate statement about a hybrid cloud?
- ASupports data and application portability for load balancing between clouds
- BAllows organizations with common concerns to share the cost of deploying the cloud
- CEnables the entire cloud infrastructure to be controlled by the consumer's IT staff
- DAllows an organization to outsource the implementation of a private cloud to a cloud provider
154What is a benefit of source-based deduplication over target-based deduplication?
- ABackup processing is offloaded from the backup client
- BLess backup data is stored on the backup server
- CBackup data can be retained longer
- DOnly unique data is sent over the network to be backed up
155What is an accurate statement about hypervisor-based continuous data protection (CDP)?
- AWrite splitter is embedded in the hypervisor
- BJournal is stored in a virtual machine
- CJournal and replica use the same storage volume
- DVirtual appliance runs on a storage system
156Which benefit does the measured service characteristic provide to a cloud service provider?
- AEnables control and optimization of resource use
- BEnables cloud services to communicate with each other
- CEnables availability of specific resources depending on policy
- DEnables the reduction and/or elimination of upfront IT expenditure
157What is a function of a Fibre Channel Forwarder in an FCoE SAN?
- AApplies zoning configurations and provides fabric services
- BTransfers FCoE traffic over an FC SAN
- CEncapsulates IP packets into FC frames
- DProvides both NIC and FC HBA functionality
158What is a key objective to performing continuous replication?
- AAvoid performing data archiving.
- BReduce the RPO to near-zero.
- CReduce the deduplication ratio
- DAvoid performing data backups.
159What is an accurate statement about infrastructure discovery?
- ACreates an inventory of infrastructure components and provides information about the
components - BStandardizes on-going infrastructure management activities andassesses potential risks of the
activities - CClassifies, organizes, and analyzes all infrastructure management bestpractices stored in data lakes
- DDetects potential security attacks on a storage infrastructure and deploys specialized tools to eliminate the attacks
- ACreates an inventory of infrastructure components and provides information about the
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