Quiz
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT SYSTEM
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Questions in this quiz (50)
1The Automatic flight sistem (AFS) is designed to :
- AAssist the pilot in flying the aircraft within the normal flight envelope
- BEnhance safety
- CHelp the flight crew in the management of an optimized flight profile
- DAll of the above.
2 The AFS includes the three following functions: The AFS includes the three following functions:
- AFlight Guidance (FG), Flight Envelope (FE), Flight Management (FM)
- BFlight Guidance (FG), Flight Recorder (FR), Flight Management (FM)
- CFlight Envelope (FE), Flight Recorder (FR), Flight Maintenance (FM)
- DFlight Guidance (FG), Flight Recorder (FR), Flight Maintenance (FM)
3The objective of the Flight Guidance (FG) function is to provide…
- Ato control all the flight surfaces
- BLateral and vertical guidance, including speed/Mach control
- Cto be aware of the plane limitations
- DNone of the above
4The FG function provides guidance modes and guidance systems like:
- AAutothrust (A/THR)
- BFlight Director (FD)
- CAutopilot (AP)
- DAll of the above.
5 Each Primary Flight Control and Guidance Computer (PRIM) computer hosts:
- Athe Flight Control (F/CTL) function, the Flight Guidance (FG) function and the Flight Envelope
(FE) function - Bthe Flight Management (FM) function, the Flight Guidance (FG) function and the Flight Envelope
(FE) function - Cthe Flight Data Recorder (FDR) function, the Flight Management (FM) function and the Flight
Envelope (FE) function - Dthe Flight Control (F/CTL) function, the Flight Data Recorder (FDR) function and the Flight
Management (FM)
- Athe Flight Control (F/CTL) function, the Flight Guidance (FG) function and the Flight Envelope
6 The priority to be the master PRIM is:
- APRIM 1, PRIM 2, and PRIM 3
- BPRIM 1, PRIM 3, and PRIM 2.
- CPRIM 3, PRIM 1, and PRIM 2
- DIt doesn’t matter
7How many Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDCs) has the A400M?
- A1
- B2
- C4
- DDepends of the model
8 The FCDC interfaces also the FG and the FE functions with:
- AThe PRIM 1 and the PRIM 2
- Bthe Flight Control (F/CTL) function
- CThe Flight Warning System (FWS) and The Aircraft Integrated Monitoring and
Diagnostic System (AIMDS). - DThe Flight Director (FD
9 Which one of the AFS CP control areas is not present on the plane?
- ASpeed/Mach control area
- BLateral guidance area
- CPropeller control area.
- DGuidance systems area (AP, FD, and A/THR)
10Whats the difference if you pull or puss a button on the ACS CP CONTROL AREA?
- Aa = Selected Mode, b = Managed Mode.
- BManaged Mode, b = Seelected Mode
11What do we have in the spaces A and B represented on the FMA
- AA = Lateral guidance Modes, B = Guidance systems engagement status
- BA = Vertical guidance Modes, B = Apch Capability decision height / Altitude.
- CA = Vertical guidance Modes, B = A/THR Modes
- DA = Lateral guidance Modes, B = A/THR Modes
12 Which one of these statements is not true about the AP functions:
- AControls the vertical trajectory or speed/Mach
- BControls the lateral trajectory or bank angle
- CStabilizes the aircraft around its center of gravity
- DCoordinates with the Speed Brake
13With AP (1 or 2) engaged, the Master PRIM will always be the PRIM 1 by default. true
or false?- ATrue
- BFalse
14 On A400M the AP engagement is always manual. Which of these conditions is not
true, if you want to set the AP.- AAircraft in flight for more than 5 s out of the ground effect law, or in flight for more than
10 s - BAircraft attitude and speed within the limits defined for AP engagemen
- CAP1 or AP2 pb pressed on the Automatic Flight System Control Panel (AFS CP)
- DNone of the above are true.
- AAircraft in flight for more than 5 s out of the ground effect law, or in flight for more than
15 Only FD1 has a backup in case of PRIM 1 failure. True or false?
- ATrue
- BFalse
16The AP disengages automatically:
- AAfter any sidestick or rudder input
- BIf flight parameters go out of the normal range
- CIn case of AP failures
- DAll of the above.
17The A/THR has two control modes associated to the vertical guidance mode
selection:
- Speed/Mach mode, or
- Power mode, such as Thrust Maximum Climb (THR MCL)- ATrue
- BFalse
18 The A/THR pb on the AFS CP is the recommended one for a normal A/THR disengagement.
- ATrue
- BFalse
19 Select the False sentence related when a not voluntary A/THR disengagement occurs:
- AThe MASTER CAUTION comes on
- BThe SC aural alert sounds every 30 s until thrust levers are moved
- CA THR LK flashing message appears on the FMA
- DAmber ECAM alerts AUTO FLT A/THR OFF and ENG POWER LOCKED trigger
20The FE computations take into accoun
- AAircraft performance selection (Normal Operating Standard (NOS), Reduced Operating
Standard (ROS) and Military
Operating Standard (MOS)) - BFlight phases
- CAircraft parameters (speed, bank angle, angle-of-attack, etc.)
- DAll of the above.
- AAircraft performance selection (Normal Operating Standard (NOS), Reduced Operating
21The A/THR pb on the AFS CP is the recommended one for a normal A/THR disengagement.
- ATrue
- BFalse
22When the FD is OFF, none of the lateral and vertical guidance modes can be engaged
- ATrue
- BFalse
23In high lift configuration VMAX is VLE/MLE
- ATrue
- BFalse
24 In Logistical Normal flights in clean configuration, with cargo door and ramp closed, G load is
automatically limited to:- A+2,5 G and 0 G
- B+2,25 G and -1 G
- C+2,5 G and -1 G.
- DNone of the above
25The load factor protection is available:
- Ain normal law only
- Bin normal law and alternate law protection degraded
- Cin normal and alternate flight control laws.
- DNone of the above
26Select the FALSE statement about the availability of the reactive windshear protection:
- AAt takeoff, from 50 ft RA or 3 sec after liftoff up to 1 300 ft RA
- BAt landing, from 1 300 ft RA down to 50 ft RA
- CIt is inhibited if the aircraft is in clean flaps configuration
- DAll of the above are FALSE.
27The ATOC function is available
- AWhen the engine power is TOGA, the ground speed is above 15 kt and the speed is below 130
kt. - BAt any engine power setting, the ground speed is above 80 kt and the speed is below 130 k
- Cany engine power setting, the ground speed is above 40 kt and the speed is below 130 kt
- DIt is always available
- AWhen the engine power is TOGA, the ground speed is above 15 kt and the speed is below 130
28The navigation accuracy is defined LOW when the EPU is less than or equal to the RNP value
- ATrue
- BFalse
29The departure Transition (TRANS) is
- Athe possible trajectory between the last point of the SID and the first en-route waypoint.
- Bthe trajectory between the last point of the departure and the aprroach on the same
airfield - Ca visual traffic pattern
- DAll of the above
30The vertical part of the flight plan is divided into ¿***? flight phases
- A4
- B6
- C8
- D9
31 If the flight crew uses the new destination revision (NEW DEST) for the active flight
plan- Acreates a new flight plan on the secondary index
- Bdeletes all waypoints on the flight plan between the revised waypoint and the new
destination. - CThat option doesn’t exist
- DNone of the above
32The A/THR arms automatically when thrust levers are set to TOGA detent.
- ATrue
- BFalse
33The flight crew can engage the Autopilot (AP) 30 seconds after airborne
- ATrue
- BFalse
34The Speed Reference System (SRS) mode:
- Aprovides vertical guidance until acceleration altitude in order to maintain a reference
speed via the elevators - Bis a managed vertical mode
- Cstarts when engines are at takeoff power
- DAll of the above.
- Aprovides vertical guidance until acceleration altitude in order to maintain a reference
35The NAV mode or the Runway Track (RWY TRK) mode engages:
- A10 seconds after airborne
- Bat 30 ft RA
- Cwhen manually selected
- DThe runway track is automatically selected alway
36What’s the meaning of a triangle like this on a flight plan?
- AThat you have to climb after that point
- BThat you have selected to overfly that point
- CThat you have more than one constraint on that point
- DNone of the above
37About the SRS during a Take Off, select the false sentence:
- Amaintains an indicated speed equal to V2+10 with all engines operative
- Bone engine failure, the speed target becomes the highest between V2 and the current
indicated speed (limited to V2+15) - COn the HUD a managed speed is indicated by a empty circle
- Dthe managed speed target displayed on the speed scale is always V2
38Select the incorrect sentence. At the acceleration altitude:
- AThe FMS switches from the takeoff to the climb phase
- BOP CLB mode automatically engages provided the altitude target selected on the
Automatic Flight system (AFS CP) is below the aircraft altitude. - CThe pitch is lowered in order to accelerate to this speed
- DThe flight crew can clean up the aircraft
39If the climb speed target is out of the range of the airspeed scale, a speed value
appears below the airspeed scale- ATrue
- BFalse
40The FMS phase switches from cruise to descent when:
- AThe target altitude value selected on the AFS CP is less than the cruise altitude value
inserted in the FMS PERF page - BA vertical guidance mode for descent is engaged
- CThe actual distance from the destination is less than 200 Nm
- DAll of the above.
- AThe target altitude value selected on the AFS CP is less than the cruise altitude value
41About the Deceleration Point (DECEL) , select the correct setence.
- AWhen the aircraft overflies the Deceleration point (DECEL) in a managed lateral mode,
the FMS switches automatically from descent phase to approach phase. - BIs indicated on the NTD by a D letter surrounded by a square
- CThe D letter on the NTD is colored in white when the speed is managed
- DAll of the above
- AWhen the aircraft overflies the Deceleration point (DECEL) in a managed lateral mode,
42 The managed speed takes into account the different flaps configurations and the
associated recommended maneuvering speeds- ATrue
- BFalse
43Select the incorrect statement about the G/S-LOC mode.
- AThis mode provides the same lateral and vertical guidance as the independent LOC
and G/S modes - BBelow 400 ft RA, a common mode called G/S-LOC engages and replaces the lateral
LOC mode and the vertical G/S mode - CNo action on the AFS CP can disengage this mode in flight except a go-around
- DIt is used only for CAT 2 approaches.
- AThis mode provides the same lateral and vertical guidance as the independent LOC
44During the landing both FDs automatically disengage when :
- ALOC and G/S are disengaged
- BThe aircraft is below 500 ft RA
- CIt never disengages
- DNo AP is engaged.
45For a Missed Approach the SRS mode engages like at takeoff, and follows a target
speed equal to:- Athe current aircraft speed
- BVAPP as a minimum
- CA maximum of VLS + 25 kt if all engines are operative
- DAll of the above.
46Select the incorrect term in case of AUTO FLT AP1 DOWNGRADED alert, the AP2
engagement enables the recovery of:- AA/THR
- BFD.
- CSPEED FLOOR
- DCAT 3
47In case of failure of the Automatic Flight System Control Panel (AFS CP), the AP, FD
and A/THR cannot be engaged- ATrue
- BFalse
48 If the AUTO FLT FMS 1+2 FAULT alert triggers:
- AAll of the above.
- BThe map is not available on the NTDs
- CThe tuning of the NAVAIDS by the FMS is also lost
- DThe navigation and the flight planning functions provided by the FMS are lost
49F HDG/TRK PB is pressed, when the HDG mode is engaged, switch from HDG to
TRK mode with a TRK target corresponding to the current aircraft heading- ATrue
- BFalse
50Select the incorrect option. When the HUD NAV PB is pressed, The FMS related to
the short term navigation are displayed on the HUD:- ANext leg track
- BThe APPCH selected.
- CDirect TO track indication
- DNavigation data block
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- Quiz on AUTOMATIC FLIGHT SYSTEM, created by Juan Garcia on 11/10/2021.
- Author
- Juan Garcia
- Language
- Español
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