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B - 30 Random Question Quick Quiz
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Questions in this quiz (112)
1If selected ON, which exterior lights automatically extinguish with the landing gear retracted?
- AStrobe lights.
- BNose lights (taxi and take off).
- CWing lights.
- DLanding lights.
2Regarding the oxygen system, which of the following statements is true?
- AThe OXY ON flag must be pressed in order to initiate oxygen flow.
- BIf, on the SD, the oxygen pressure has a half-box (amber), maintenance must be called.
- CFollow the use of an oxygen mask, the left door of the storage box must be closed and the reset switch pressed in order to change back to boom mike
- DPassenger oxygen has an endurance of 30 minutes.
3What is the result of a failure of LANE 1 in both ACSC's?
- APack 1 will be inoperative.
- BThe HOT AIR VALVE will remain open.
- CAll TRIM AIR VALVES will close.
- DThe system will function normally.
4To enable Ram air to the mixer unit, the Ram Air pushbutton should be used
- AAt any time when aircraft is in flight.
- BOnly when differential pressure is less than 1 psi.
- COnly when differential pressure is more than 1 psi.
- DOnly after outflow valve is in manual control.
5With the FLO controller Set to LOW, what could cause the actual flow to be NORMAL?
- AAPU BLEED switched on.
- BFailure to meet system temperature demands when at the low setting.
- CSingle pack operation.
- DSingle bleed operation.
6Regarding AVIONICS VENT, what will be system configuration as result of placing the EXTRACT push button to override?
- AOpen configuration.
- BClosed configuration and extract fan stops.
- CClosed configuration and extract fan keeps running.
- DIntermediate configuration.
7In normal flight in closed circuit configuration, the avionics ventilation system controls the temperature of the cooling by?
- AExtracting air overboard.
- BAdding air conditioned air to the flow.
- CAdding avionics bay air.
- DPassing air through a skin heat exchanger.
8What happens when the MAN V/S CTL switch (on the OHP) is held to UP position?
- AThe pressure differential increases.
- BThe OUTFLOW VALVE opens.
- CAdding avionics bay air.
- DPassing air through a skin heat exchanger.
9What speed will the FMGS use in an Expedite Climb?
- AGreen dot speed.
- BECON climb speed.
- C250 knots below FL100.
- DGreen dot +5 knots.
10LAND mode will disengage when?
- AV/S knob is pushed.
- BALT knob is pushed or pulled.
- CHDG knob is pushed.
- DGo-Around is performed.
11If an APU advisory message "LOW OIL LEVEL" appears on the lower ECAM?
- AThe APU must not be run, maintenance action is required.
- BThe remaining oil quantity allows normal APU operation for 10 hours.
- CAPU Gen can be used for 10 hours, but APU BLEED is not available.
- DThe remaining oil quantity allows normal APU operation for days.
12Regarding APU automatic shutdown, which of the following statements is true?
- AAUTO SHUTDOWN is only available on the ground.
- BAUTO SHUTDOWN is only available in flight.
- CEMER SHUTDOWN, due to FIRE, is available at any time.
- DEMER SHUTDOWN, due to FIRE, is available on the ground only.
13Which of the following limitations is correct?
- AStart is not permitted at an altitude above 35,000 feet.
- BIn ELEC-EMER CONFIG, APU start is limited to 25,000 feet or below.
- CSingle pack operation is limited to 25,000 feet or below.
- DTwo pack operation is limited to 20,000 feet or below.
14What is the effect on FMGCs navaid auto tuning capabilities, when on RMP 1 & 2 panel NAV Pb is selected ON and green light is illuminated?
- AFMGC 1 loses auto-tuning capability.
- BFMGC 2 loses auto-tuning capability.
- CFMGC 1 and 2, both loses auto-tuning capability.
- DNo effect on FMGC auto-tuning as FMGC has priority over RMP selection.
15RMP 1 is selected to VHF2: RMP 2 is selected to VHF 3: RMP 3 is selected to VHF 1. Which of the following statements is true?
- AThere will be no SEL lights illuminated.
- BAll three RMP's will have an illuminated SEL light.
- CThere will be SEL lights illuminated on RMP's | and 2 only.
- DThere will be SEL lights illuminated on RMP's 2 and 3 only.
16Which of the following correctly completes the statement; "An EMERGENCY CALL, from the cabin to the flight deck, will, on the flight deck....."
- A...trigger three buzzer sounds, and illuminate CALL and ON lights.
- B.. trigger a continuous buzzer sound, and illuminate the ON light.
- C.. trigger three buzzer sounds and illuminate a RESET button on each ACP.
- D.. trigger a Master Caution and the lights on the call panel.
17To prevent damage to the disconnecting mechanism of IDG, do not depress the IDG DISCONNECT sw;
- for more than _____
- and engine shouldbe ______?- A3 sec / running.
- B3 sec / off.
- C5 sec / running.
- D5 sec / off.
18Apart from the EMER GEN, what can supply the AC ESS bus?
- AAC BUS 1, AC BUS 2, AC ESS SHED.
- BAC BUS 1, AC BUS 2, BAT 1 via Static Inverter
- CAC BUS 1, AC BUS 2.
- DAC BUS 1, BAT 2 via Static Inverter
19When RAT will deploy automatically?
- AGreen and Blue HYD fail, and aircraft speed is above 100kt.
- BYellow and Blue HYD fail, and aircraft speed is above 140kt.
- CBoth AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and aircraft speed is above 100kt.
- DBoth AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and aircraft speed is above 140kt.
20Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is the boom mic re-established?
- AAutomatically, by re-stowing the oxygen mask
- BBy selecting BOOM on the associated ACP.
- CBy closing the left door of the storage box and then pressing the TEST slide.
- DBy pressing the OXY ON button.
21What is signified by CAB PRESS (red) flashing on a passenger door?
- ACabin Altitude >10,000 feet.
- BResidual cabin pressure with engines OFF and slides DISARMED.
- CResidual cabin pressure with engines ON and slides ARMED.
- DExcessive cabin differential pressure.
22What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button?
- AWhen selected OFF the avionics compartment isolation valves close.
- BWhen selected OFF the Gen 1 powers all AC busses.
- CWhen selected OFF Gen 1 is removed from all busses but continues to power one fuel pump in each wing.
- DTo force Gen 1 to shut down.
23What are the highest/lowest speeds possible with the AP and A/THR ON, and no sidestick inputs.
- AVMO + 6KTS / Alpha
- BVMO / Alpha Max.
- CVMO / VLS
- DVMO / Alpha Max +10KTS
24Which of the following can be overridden by the sidestick?
- AHigh speed protection
- BAlpha floor
- CAlpha protection
- DLow speed stability
25What is signified by MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY (red) on the FMA?
- ABoth FAC's have failed.
- BThe aircraft Is in DIRECT LAW.
- CThe aircraft is in Mechanical Back-Up.
- DLoss of all hydraulic power.
26The autopilot is off, the F/O is holding the sidestick out of neutral, then the Capt. presses, and holds, the take-over button on the Capt's sidestick.
What will be seen on the glareshield?- AA red arrow in front of the F/O, and a green light in front of the CAPT.
- BOnly a red light in front of the CAPT.
- CTwo flashing green lights.
- DTwo red lights.
27A-LOCK (Green) is pulsing under the Flap/Slat indicator on the EWD: what does this signify?
- AFlaps and Slats locked, in any position, due to high alpha.
- BFlaps will not retract from 1 to 0 due to high alpha: to retract them reduce the alpha.
- CSlats will not retract from 1 to 0 due to high alpha: to retract them, reduce the alpha.
- DSlats will not retract from 1 to 0 due to high alpha: to retract them recycle the flap lever.
28Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about rudder control?
- ARudder limiter Is based on airspeed and controlled by FACs.
- BWhen the AP is engaged, the rudder trim knob is inoperative.
- CFAC controls the yaw damper and rudder travel limit.
- DWhen mechanical law is active for control of the rudder does not require hydraulic power.
29In NORMAL LAW, what occurs during the approach?
- AAt 50ft, the stabiliser freezes. At 30ft, a nose down order is introduced.
- BAt 30ft, a nose up order is introduced in order to facilitate the flare.
- CWhen the landing gear is lowered, the aircraft goes into Direct Law.
- DWhen the landing gear is lowered, the roll (only) goes into Direct Law.
30In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle obtainable with the sidestick fully deflected?
- A33 degrees.
- B45 degrees.
- C65 degrees.
- D67 degrees.
31Being in Alternate Law, when the landing gear is extended which control law you will be in?
- ANo change in control law.
- BAlternate Law without reduced protection.
- CDirect law.
- DMechanical law.
32Which protection is available in alternate law?
- AHigh Angle of Attack Protection
- BHigh Speed Protection
- CLoad Factor Limitation
- DBank Angle Protection
33What happens if both channel of SFCC 2 fails?
- ASlat/Flap operation will be normal as SFCC 1 take-over.
- BSlats and Flaps will be slow.
- CSlats will be inoperative.
- DFlaps will be inoperative.
34What is demanded by sidestick inputs in Normal Law?
- APitch - load Factor: roll - bank angle.
- BPitch - load factor: roll - rate of roll.
- CPitch - pitch rate: roll ~ rate of roll.
- DPitch - pitch rate: roll - proportional to sidestick deflection.
35During the Take OFF roll, which page is displayed on the SD?
- AENG
- BFLT CTL
- CCRZ
- DWHEEL
36On the PFD, how is V Alpha Prot speed displayed?
- AThe top of the amber strip along the speed scale.
- BThe top of a black and amber strip along the speed scale.
- CThe top of a red strip along the speed scale.
- DThe lower end of a red and black strip along the speed scale.
37What is signified by IDLE (green) being displayed between the EPR gauges on EWD?
- ABoth engines have been at IDLE for more than two minutes.
- BBoth Thrust Levers are at IDLE.
- CA/THR ON & any one engine Is at IDLE.
- DA/THR ON & Both engines are at IDLE.
38Which colour on the FMA indicates an engaged mode?
- AGreen.
- BBlue.
- CAmber.
- DMagenta.
39Regarding the ND, which of the following statements is true?
- AIn the PLAN mode, the TO waypoint is always in the centre of the screen.
- BThe weather radar can be displayed in any mode.
- CThe aircraft track, when present, is a green line leading to a green diamond.
- DThe ILS inbound course is displayed as a magenta triangle.
40After engine start, when centre tank fuel pump stops automatically?
- AStop 2 mins after engine regardless of slat position.
- BStop 2 mins after engine if slats are retracted.
- CStop 2 mins after engine if slats are extended.
- DStop immediately after centre tank low level is reached.
41What is indicated by two amber lines across a fuel quantity indication?
- AThe associated figure is inaccurate.
- BThe associated fuel is not useable due to the failure of both centre tank pumps.
- CThe associated outer tank fuel has failed to transfer to the inner tank.
- DThe fuel temperature is too hot or too cold.
42In the event of Fuel Gravity feeding, which tanks contain usable fuel?
- ACentre tank only.
- BInner tank only.
- CInner tank and centre tank.
- DInner tank and outer tank.
43When does the fuel used indication on the FUEL SD page automatically reset to zero?
- ADuring refueling.
- BWhen first ENG Master Sw is ON it resets fuel used for both engines on GRD and in AIR.
- CWhen ENG #1 Master Switch is ON it reset fuel used for engine 1 only.
- DAfter landing when both ENG Master Switch is OFF.
44Regarding the RAT, which of the following statements is true?
- AIt deploys automatically in the event of the GREEN or YELLOW hydraulic system failure.
- BIt deploys automatically on failure of the BLUE hydraulic pump.
- CIt powers the EMER generator via the GREEN hydraulic system.
- DIts normal operating pressure is 2500 psi.
45Where does the hydraulic reservoir pressurisation air come from?
- AENG 1 bleed only.
- BENG 1 bleed or any other available pneumatic source.
- CFrom the main pneumatic system only.
- DENG 2 bleed or any other available pneumatic source.
46Blue electrical pump pb switch is in AUTO.
When will the blue electric pump energised?- AOn ground, only after Eng no. 2 is started.
- BOn ground, only after Eng no. 1 is started.
- COn ground, after any one engine is started.
- DOn ground, after second engine is started.
47When is the PTU inhibited?
- AOnce the second engine has started.
- BDuring first engine start.
- CFrom electrical power-up until after first engine start.
- DFrom electrical power-up until after second engine start.
48Which parts of the aircraft are anti-iced?
- AAll slats and engine nacelles.
- BOutboard slats, engine nacelles, THS and fin.
- COutboard slats and engine nacelles only.
- DOutboard slats, engine nacelles and THS.
49In even of loss of air pressure what is position of the engine and wing anti-ice valve?
- AValves remain in commanded position by anti-ice switch.
- BValves open.
- CValves close.
- DValves remain locked in its last position.
50Regarding Probe Heat, which of the following statements is true?
- AAll probes have just one level of heating.
- BAll AOA probes have a higher level of heating in flight.
- CThe TAT probes are not heated on the ground.
- DThe AOA probes are not heated on the ground.
51At one hundred knots on take-off, what is the situation regarding Nose Wheel Steering?
- ANo Nosewheel steering is available.
- BHandwheel steering and rudder steering are both available.
- CHandwheel steering is available: rudder steering is not available.
- DRudder steering is available: handwheel steering is not available.
52What happens if the Capt's steering handwheel is fully left, the F/O's steering
handwheel is fully right, and the F/O's rudder pedals are fully left?- AThe nosewheel will steer 75° left.
- BThe nosewhee! will steer 6° left.
- CThe nosewheel will steer 81° left.
- DThe nosewheel will remain central.
53At the holding point with the park brake ON, the aircraft begins to roll forward. What is the the correct initial action?
- AApply the foot brakes.
- BRecycle the park brake OFF/ON.
- CApply reverse thrust.
- DRecycle the antiskid and N/W STEERING switch.
54What happens if the gear is selected down at a speed of 270 kts?
- AThe gear lever cannot be moved from the UP position at >260 kts IAS.
- BThe gear will lower, and there will be a Master Warning due 10 overspeed (IAS).
- CThe gear will lower, but the doors will not close.
- DNothing, as the safety valve has cut off all hydraulics to the gear.
55What is the sequence of events when Gravity Extension of the gear is performed?
- ASafety valve closes, gear unlocks - thereby forcing the doors open.
- BSafety valve closes, the doors unlock, the gear unlocks.
- CDoors unlock, gear unlocks, doors close when all gear legs locked down.
- DDoors unlock, gear unlocks, when all gear locked down, the safety valve closes.
56Regarding the BRAKE system, which of the following statements is NOT true?
- AAfter landing Brake fan should be delayed for around 5 mins for thermal stabilisation.
- BAuto brake can be disengaged by applying sufficient pressure 10 the brake pedals.
- CAuto brakes are available with Green and Yellow hydraulics.
- DIn an event of braking with Yellow accumulator pressure only, 7 full brake applications are available.
57The parking brake accumulator is designed to maintain the parking pressure for at least ____?
- A6 hours.
- B8 hours.
- C12 hours.
- D18 hours.
58Which selector can be used on switching panel to replace a faulty ADR1 with ADR3?
- AATT HDG.
- BAIR DATA.
- CEIS DMC.
- DECAM/ND XFR.
59On the GPWS panel, when should the relevant FLAP switches be selected?
- AFLAP MODE OFF for a landing with Flaps more than 3.
- BFLAP MODE OFF for a landing with SLAT (only) at zero.
- CLDG FLAP 3 for a landing with flaps at 3.
- DFLAP MODE OFF in event of any flap asymmetry.
60What is meant by CHECK ATT (amber) on the PFDs of the associated system.
- AIf it appears on only one PFD, it indicates an impending failure of the associated system.
- BIf it appears on the CAPT's PFD only, select the IR SWITCHING switch to CAPT ON 3.
- CBoth PFD's show different attitudes, check ISIS in order to identify failed system.
- DIf it appears on both PFD's select the IR SWITCHING switch to CAPT (or F/O) then ignore the other PFD.
61ADIRU 2 normally supplies ADR and IR information for which displays?
- ACaptain's PFD and ND.
- BF/O's PFD and ND.
- CCaptain's PFD and F/O's ND.
- DCaptain's ND and F/O's PFD.
62What is displayed at the Top right of the ND in Rose or Arc Mode?
- AG/S TAS and wind.
- BNAVAID selected, i.e. VOR 2 or NDB.
- CTO WAY POINT, TRACK TO GO.
- DTO WAY POINT, TRACK TO GO, DISTANCE and ETA.
63What does a triple click mean during an ILS approach?
- AA level 3 warning to the crew.
- BA primary failure is occurring, prepare for a Go-Around.
- CFlaps are set at 3 and the landing gear is not down.
- DLanding capability down grading warning.
64What happens to the GPWS warning if the loudspeakers are turned off?
- AYou get no warning.
- BA PULL UP message in red on the PFD.
- CA master caution and message on ECAM.
- DNothing, they still work.
65Which of the following statements is true for Single Bleed Operation?
- AWing Anti-Ice is permitted on one wing at a time.
- BWing Anti-Ice is not permitted.
- CWith both packs off wing Anti-ice is permitted.
- DWith one pack off wing Anti-ice is permitted.
66In the Auto position, the cross bleed valve will OPEN:
- AWhen PACK 1 or PACK 2 is OFF.
- BWhen PACK | or PACK 2 is fault.
- CWhen One Bleed is detected faulty.
- DWhen APU Bleed valve is open.
67If BMC1 falls, BMC2 takes over automatically, but-
- ALeft Wing leak detection is lost
- BENG1 bleed leak detection is lost, APU leak detection is available with BMC2
- CENG1 bleed leak and APU bleed leak detection is lost.
- DENG 1 bleed is inoperative.
68How is IGN activated, on the ground, after engine start?
- AAfter start, leave the Mode switch in IGN start position.
- BThere is automatic IGN protection until the a/c is clean.
- CIf you have put wet R/W data in the MCDU it will be on until 1500ft automatically.
- DYou have to move the Mode switch to Norm after start and back to IGN.
69Modulated idle is selected:
- AOn ground only.
- BOn ground, when the thrust lever is in REV IDLE position.
- CIn flight, when the flaps are extended.
- DIn flight, when the flaps are retracted.
70Reduced Thrust take off is limited to:
- A46% maximum reduction of full rated thrust.
- B50% maximum reduction of full rated thrust.
- C35% maximum reduction of full rated thrust.
- D25% maximum reduction of full rated thrust.
71How can the CRANK function be controlled?
- ATurn the MODE SEL to CRANK.
- BTurn the MODE SEL to CRANK, and use the associated MAN START switch to OPEN the START valve.
- CTurn the MODE SEL to CRANK, and open the start valve on the MAN START switch: the start valve will close automatically after 30 seconds.
- DPut the MAN START switch to ON, then put the MODE SEL to CRANK.
72During a manual start, what does pressing the MAN START switch on overhead panel do?
- AIt opens the start valve only.
- BIt opens the start valve, and must be selected off to close the start valve.
- CIt opens the start valve and activates both igniters.
- DIt opens the start valve and the fuel HP valve.
73Which statement is incorrect?
- AFADEC provides automatic engine start protection during engine relight in-flight.
- BFADEC provides automatic engine start protection during Auto engine start.
- CFADEC provides passive monitoring during manual engine start.
- DFADEC closes start valve and ignitor during engine start.
74Thrust reversers are actuated by:
- AHydraulic actuators: green for engines 1, yellow for engine 2.
- BHydraulic actuator: green for both engines.
- CHydraulic actuators: blue for engine 1, yellow for engine 2.
- DPneumatic actuators for both engines.
75Which statements is true?
- AMax EGT TOGA 635º for 15 minutes.
- BMax EGT MCT 610º for 15 minutes.
- CMax EGT TOGA 610º for 10 minutes.
- DMax EGT TOGA 635º for 5 minutes and 10 minutes if on single engine.
76On the engine panel, what is indicated by an illuminated FAULT light?
- AFailure of one loop of ENG. fire detection system.
- BFailure of both loops of the ENG. fire detection system.
- CA MAN START has been aborted.
- DAn AUTO START has been aborted.
77What is the maximum permitted crosswind for T/O?
- A29 kts.
- B33 kts.
- C33 kts gusting 38 kts.
- DUp to 38 kts including gust.
78What is the maximum permitted altitude at which the APU may be started using the batteries only?
- AAircraft Altitude Limit
- B25,000 ft
- C22,500 ft
- D20,000 ft
79What is the maximum permitted IAS at which FLAPS can be extended to CONFIG 3?
- A215 kts.
- B210 kts.
- C190 kts.
- D185 kts.
80What is the maximum certified brake temperature allowed for take-off?
- A300ºC if brake fans off.
- B150ºC if brake fans off or 300ºC if brake fans were on.
- CDepends on outside temperature.
- DDepends on number of brake application.
81What is the maximum permitted IAS for gear retraction?
- A250 kts.
- B260 kts.
- C220 kts.
- D230 kts.
82What is the maximum permitted IAS for the use of windscreen wipers?
- A200 kts.
- B230 kts.
- C250 kts.
- D185 kts.
83What is the minimum fuel quantity for take-off?
- A1000 kgs.
- B2000 kgs.
- C1500 kgs.
- D3000 kgs.
84What is the maximum permitted wind speed for passenger door operation?
- A50 knots.
- B55 knots.
- C60 knots.
- D65 knots.
85What is the maximum permitted positive and negative cabin differential pressure?
- A+8.6 / -0.1
- B+9.0 / -1.0
- C-8.6 / +1.0
- D+9.0 / -2.0
86What is the normal minimum speed for use of maximum reverse thrust?
- A70 knots.
- B30 knots.
- C60 knots.
- D50 knots.
87What precautions should you be taken if LP ground air unit is connected?
- ADo not use APU bleed air.
- BOnly single PACK operation is permitted.
- CDo not use conditioned air simultaneously from PACKs.
- DUse both PACKs.
88In column 4 of the MEL, what is meant by "O"?
- AThe crew must perform an operational procedure.
- BMaintenance must perform an operational procedure.
- CThe faulty equipment must be placarded.
- DThe fault equipment must be removed from the flight deck.
89What are the correct initial actions following a “WINDSHEAR" warning on the final approach?
- ATOGA thrust: A/P (if engaged) keep ON: SRS - follow.
- BTOGA thrust: A/P. OFF: SRS - follow.
- CTOGA thrust: A/P (if engaged) keep ON: sidestick fully aft.
- DTOGA Thrust: A/P OFF: sidestick fully aft.
90What are the combined correct initial actions of the Crew in event of a rejected Take Off at 100kts?
- AIdle thrust: when ground spoilers have deployed, SELECT REVERSE MAX.
- BCall "STOP": REVERSE MAX: when ground spoilers have deployed, apply full pedal braking.
- CCall "STOP": REVERSE thrust MAX monitor auto-brake or apply full pedal braking if required.
- DCall "STOP"; REVERSE - IDLE.
91Regarding evacuation of the flight deck, which of the following statements is true?
- AThe only exit through the door is by opening the door forwards.
- BFollowing loss of electrical power, the door will remain locked.
- CThe sliding windows cannot be opened from the outside.
- DThe sliding windows will only latch open at the fully open position.
92Following a GPWS “PULL UP” warning, what are the correct initial actions?
- ATOGA THR: pitch up to 17.5°
- BSidestick fully aft: wings level.
- CA/P OFF: sidestick fully aft: TOGA THR.
- DA/P OFF: sidestick fully aft: TOGA THR: flaps retract one step.
93What is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in event of unreliable IAS indications just after take off?
- ATHR CLB: Pitch +10° (if below FL100).
- BTHR CLB: Pitch +5° (if below FL100).
- CTHR MCT:Pitch attitude 12.5°.
- DTHR TOGA: Pitch +15°.
94What are the correct initial actiohs on receipt of a TCAS “CLIMB” message?
- AA/P ON: ATHR OFF: V/S to green area on PFD.
- BA/P OFF: ATHR OFF: V/S to green area on PFD.
- CA/P OFF: Both FD's OFF: V/S to 1500ft/min - if still in red area, increase to 2500ft/min.
- DA/P OFF: Both FD's OFF: V/S to green area on PFD.
95When will the passenger oxygen masks drop down automatically?
- AIf the differential pressure rises above 8.6 PSI.
- BIf the differential pressure reached below negative 1.6 PSI.
- CIf the cabin altitude rises above 14,000ft.
- DIf the cabin altitude rises above 10,000ft.
96During landing roll, you realise the aircraft is not slowing down... what are the correct initial actions?
- ABrake pedals - Press: Reverse MAX: A/SKID and V/W STRG OFF.
- BReverse MAX: brake pedals release: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF: Brake Pedals - PRESS (MAX 1000PSI)
- CReverse IDLE: brake pedals release: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF.
- DReverse MAX: brake pedals release: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF then on.
97What happens when the both ECAM display fails, is it possible to get E/WD indications?
- AYes, the E/WD is automatically transferred to Captain's ND.
- BYes, the E/WD is automatically transferred to F/O's ND.
- CYes, by manually transferring E/WD to one of the NDs.
- DNo, Maintenance action is required.
98What indication follows a level 3 warning?
- AOnly a voice warning plus a flashing Red Master Warning plus a Red message on Lower ECAM.
- BContinuous Repetitive Chime or specific sound or voice. Plus, Master Warning flashing red with red warning message on E/WD.
- CAmber caution, no Aural, with a caution message on E/WD.
- DAmber caution, single chime, Master Caution light amber steady Amber caution message on E/WD and automatic display of relevant system Page on the SD.
99In the event of DMC 1 failure?
- ADMC 2 takes over automatically for Capt. Side PFD and ND.
- BDMC 2 has to be manually switch for display Capt. Side PFD and ND.
- CDMC 3 has to be manually switch for dispfay Capt. Side PFD and ND.
- DCapt. side PFD and ND Is lost and cannot be recovered.
100Which of the following statements is Incorrect?
- AEngine Warning Display has priority over System Display.
- BPrimary Flight Display has priority over Navigation Display.
- CSingle chime is triggered for Level 1 warning.
- DSD displays associated system page when Advisory is triggered.
101Which of the following actions will automatically display which ECAM SD?
- ASelecting TOGA thrust always displays the ENG SD.
- BSelecting Flap 1 (during descent) displays the STS page, unless the STS page is empty.
- COn take-off when the weight is off the wheels, the CRZ page is displayed.
- DOnly when reached at planned cruise altitude, the CRZ page will appeared.
102If only one ECAM DU is operative, how is an advisory brought to the attention of the crew?
- AA level one caution is triggered.
- B"ADVISORY" Is displayed on the PFD; the associated ECP button flashes.
- CADV is displayed on the EWD: the associated ECP button flashes.
- DThe associated SD replaces the EWD.
103What does an independent failure mean?
- AThe loss of a system without affecting another one.
- BThe loss of a system resulting from a primary failure.
- CUnimportant failure compared to a primary failure.
- DAn item fails, it is restored, and fails again.
104What does the LDG INHIBIT memo signify?
- ADo not land until ECAM proc carried out.
- BDo not land at this airfield without turning off GPS as it is not in the Data Base.
- CMost warnings and cautions are suppressed until after touchdown.
- DThe landing gear is not in IDG configuration.
105In SRS mode?
- AThere is no altitude or Flight angle protection.
- BIn single engine configuration the FD guidance maintains V2+10kts
- CIn single engine configuration the FD guidance maintains the highest of V2 or current speed limited by V2+15kts
- DIn normal engine configuration the FD guidance maintains V2+15kts
106The 3rd column of the FMA represent?
- AAP/FD Longitudinal Mode.
- BAP/FD Lateral Mode.
- CA/THR Lateral Mode.
- DApproach Capabilities DH or MDA.
107In which modes will the Yaw bar be displayed on PFD (LOC signal available)?
- ARWY and NAV mode
- BRWY and ROLL OUT mode
- CLAND mode
- DRWY TRK mode
108In THR IDLE/DES/NAV mode, what will be FMA if HDG mode is selected?
- ATHR IDLE / OP DES / HDG
- BTHR IDLE / V/S / HDG
- CSPEED / OP DES / HDG
- DSPEED / V/S / HDG
109LAND Mode will disengage when?
- AV/S knob is pushed.
- BALT knob is pushed or pulled.
- CHDG knob is pushed.
- DGo-around is performed.
110Capt’s flight Director is manually disengaged during the flight?
- AThe FD bars remain on, with the "2FD2" symbol displayed and ECAM caution is generated.
- BFD bars disappear from the Captains PFD and the symbol “-FD2" is displayed.
- CAn ECAM caution is generated.
- DThe FD bars remain on both PFDs but the symbol “2FD2" is displayed.
111With the FDs and A/Ps switched OFF, the ATHR is switched on: which of the following statements is correct?
- AThe airspeed bug is magenta, and is set by the FMGS.
- BThe airspeed bug is magenta, and defaults to current airspeed.
- CThe airspeed bug is blue, and defaults to green dot speed.
- DThe airspeed bug is blue and defaults to the current airspeed.
112How can you confirm A/THR engagement from 5th column of FMA?
- A'A/THR' displayed in Green.
- B'A/THR' displayed in Blue.
- C'A/THR' displayed in White.
- D'A/THR' displayed in Amber.
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- Bee
- Author
- Ella Davies
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- English
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