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Physical Security Certification
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Questions in this quiz (44)
1What is the Primary source for building requirements of a SCIF/SAPF?
- AICD/ICS 705
- BDoDM 5200.08-R
- CDoDM 5200.01
- DAA-V-2940
2What is the primary source for Physical Security of Sensitive Conventional Arms, Ammunition, and Explosives
- ADoDM 5220.32
- BDoDM 5100.76
- CDoDD 5143.01
- DICD/ICS 704
3What are assets?
- APersonnel, Informations, Weapons, Facilities. Activities, and Operations
- BOfficers, Information, Equipment, Facilities, Activities, and Operations
- CPersonnel, Information, Equipment, Facilities, Activities, and Operations
- DPersonnel, Communications, Information, Equipment, Activities and Operations
4What is the primary purpose of Physical Security?
- ADeture and Detect
- BPrevention and Protection
- CKeep out and Restrict
- DEstablish the rules and regulations for the barriers implemented
5What is a Restricted Area?
- AA controlled space extending upward and outward from a specified point. This area is typically designated by a commander or director, wherein sensitive information or operations occur and requires limitations of access
- BAn area (land, sea or air) in which there are special restrictive measures employed to prevent or minimize incursions and/or interference, where special security measures are employed to prevent unauthorized entry.
- CReal DoD properties including bases, stations, forts (including National Guard and Federal Reserve Centers), depots, arsenals, plants (both contractor and Government
operated), hospitals, terminals, and other special mission facilities, as well as those used primarily for military purposes. - DFacilitating method to implement a course of action. (A capability may or may not be accompanied by an intention).
6Bill and Tina are at work discussing what a Controlled Area is. Bill says it is "A controlled space extending upward and outward from a specified point. This area is typically designated by a commander or director; wherein sensitive information or operations occur and requires limitations of access. Tina says "The ability to withstand or repel attack, or other hostile action, to the extent that essential functions can continue or be resumed after onset of hostile action." Who is Correct?
- ABill is correct
- BTina is correct
- CBill and Tina are both right
- DBill and Tina are both wrong
7What are the 6 main threats?
- ABombs, Dogs, Funding, Peaceful Assembly, Viruses, and Killers
- BSpies, Low fuel, Rain, Restricted information, Barriers, Rivers
- CEverything
- DForeign Intelligence Services, Foreign Military/Paramilitary Forces, Terrorists/saboteurs, Criminals, Protest Groups, and Disaffected Persons
8What is Security In-depth?
- APlacing your facility underground.
- BMinimum Security requirements for any facility.
- CA determination by the senior agency official that a facility’s security program consists of layered and complimentary security controls sufficient to deter, detect, and document unauthorized entry and movement within the facility.
- DA resultant product of the defined process used to conduct a threat analysis and develop an evaluation of a potential threat. Also, it is the product of a threat analysis for a particular unit, installation, or activity.
9What mandates policy for a common identification standard for all Federal employees and contractors?
- AReal ID Act
- B10 C.F.R. 1046
- C40 U.S.C. 6133
- DHomeland Security Presidential Directive-12 (HSPD-12)
10What should Bulk Petroleum Product Facilities be classified as?
- AControlled Area
- BRestricted Area
- CUnsecured Facility
- DU.S. Military Installation
11Bill and Tina are having a disussion about Physical Security Plans. Bill says " All Physical Security Plans should be the same." Tina says " All Physical Security Plans should be Facility Specific." Who is Correct?
- ABill is correct
- BTina is correct
- CBill and Tina are both right
- DBill and Tina are both wrong
12Who participates in the Antiterrorism Working Group?
- AAntiterrorism Officer (ATO), the Installation Commander or designated
representative, representatives of the principal staff, including a chemical,
biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosive representative, tenant
unit representatives, and others as directed by Installation Commanders. - BEveryone who wants to attend
- CInformation System Security Officer, Unit Security Managers, Antiterrorism Officer, Installation Commander
- DNo one should attend unless directed by direct supervisor.
- AAntiterrorism Officer (ATO), the Installation Commander or designated
13Who Participates in the Theat Working Group
- AAntiterrorism Officer, the Installation Commander or designated representative, members of the staff, tenant unit representatives, law enforcement representatives, and the Intelligence Community (IC).
- BAntiterrorism Officer, the Installation Commander or designated representative, Unit Security Managers
- CAntiterrorism Officer, Law enforcement, Intelligence Community
- DInstallation Commander or Facility Director; the Antiterrorism Officer (ATO); Counterintelligence (CI) support personnel
14Which of the following statements are true of physical security planning and
implementation?- AThe risk management process must be used to plan which physical security
measures should be utilized to protect DoD assets - BUse of oversight tools is an important part of physical security implementation.
- CFacility design must be considered in physical security planning.
- DProtection of DoD assets must be performed at any cost; therefore, a cost vs.
benefit analysis is not necessary.
- AThe risk management process must be used to plan which physical security
15What are the four main types of lighting?
- AContinuous, Standby, Emergency, and Movable
- BRed, Blue, White, and Black
- COverlapping, Manual, Automatic, Supplemental
- DSupplemental, Continuous, Movable and Emergency
16Securing man-passible openings is one of the most overlooked physical security protective measures.
- ATrue
- BFalse
17Commanders may only implement measures according to the FPCON level in force at the time.
- ATrue
- BFalse
18Commanders must comply with and integrate DoD physical security and installation access control policies into their FPCON plans.
- ATrue
- BFalse
19What types of locks may be appropriate for safeguarding classified information?
- AKey-operated high security padlock
- BPacific Lock 100G series locks
- CCombination locks such as electromechanical locks
- DAny Master lock lock
20What is the primary regulation for the security of Information.
- ADoDM 5200.01
- BDoDI 5200.01
- CDoDM 5200.08R
- DDoDD 5200.08R
21In order to plan and implement effective physical security measures, you must use the __________________ to determine where and how to allocate your security resources.
- AOperation Assesment Process
- BRisk Management Process
- CRisk Management Framework
- DThreat Assessment
22What does UFC stand for?
- AUltimate Fighting Championship
- BUnified Facilities Criteria
- COffice Under Facilities Chief
23What outlines the Building Requirements for Petroleum Fuel Facilities.
- AUFC 3-460-01
- BUFC 4-571-02
- CUFC 2-359-00
- DUFC 1-245-00
24What regulation outlines DoD minimum antiterrorism standards for buildings?
- AUFC 4-010-01
- BUFC 5-101-10
- CUFC 6-666-66
- DUFC 1-601-10
25What liaisons should a commander establish to protect their fuel facilities?
- ALiaison with required law enforcement, host-nation officials, and nearest U.S military Installation
- BLiaison with fuel suppliers and federal level law enforcement
- CLiaison with potential buyers, local citizens, and sheriffs
- DLiaison with the Justice Legue and Batman
26What size vent must be barred to prevent man passage?
- A96sq inches
- B93sq inches
- C94sq inches
- D95sq inches
27The ______________________ is a comprehensive written plan for appropriate and economical use of personnel and equipment to prevent or minimize criminal and disruptive activities.
- APhysical Security Plan
- BCost Risk Analysis
- CMonthly Action Plan
- DStandard Operating Proceedure
28Which policy authorizes commanders to issue regulations for the protection or security and places under their command?
- ADoDI 5200.08
- BDoDM 5200.08R
- CDoDM 5100.08
- D40 U.S.C. §8103(b)(4)
29GSA-approved security containers can be used to store classified information, weapons, and sensitive items.
- ATrue
- BFalse
30Who is responsible for developing countermeasures against potential threats to national security and other DoD assets?
- AOPSEC Officer
- BPhysical Security Officer
- CLaw Enforcement
- DCI Support
31In order to plan and implement effective physical security measures, you must use the __________________ to determine where and how to allocate your security resources.
- ARisk Management Proccess
- BRisk Management Framework
- COperation Assessment Process
- DThreat Assessment Process
32What is UCNI?
- AUnclassified Controlled Nuclear Information is certain unclassified Government information whose unauthorized dissemination is prohibited under section 148 of the Atomic Energy Act.
- BFormally Restricted Data
- CUnclassified Controlled Nuclear Information is certain unclassified Government information whose unauthorized dissemination is prohibited under 10 C.F.R 1047
- DControlled Unclassified Information with certain unclassified Government information whose unauthorized dissemination is prohibited under 10 C.F.R 1046
33For Secure rooms how far off the ground must windows be?
- A18ft
- B12ft
- C20ft
- D10ft
34Who is the Owns and Manages the DoD Lock Program
- AGSA owns the program but Naval Facilities Command Manages
- BGSA Owns and Manages the program
- CThe DoD does not have a lock program and leaves it to the Combatant Commands to manage
- DLockmasters owns and KabaMas Manages the program
35Areas containing AA&E shall be classified as?
- AControlled Area
- BRestricted Area
- CSpecial Restricted Area
- DNothing
36Which of the below locks is authorized to secure AA&E
- APacific Lock 100G Series
- BS&G 951
- CAny master keyed system
- DAmerican Lock 5200 Series
37How often must an inventory of Key and Locks be conducted?
- AAnnually
- BWhenever there is a lost key
- CSemi-annual
- DEvery 18 months
38Continues lighting is not required on the exterior of AA&E facilities.
- ATrue
- BFalse
39New AA&E facility construction design shall provide a minimum of ______________ resistance to forced entry against an unlimited supply of hand tools or battery-operated tools.
- A10 min
- B15 min
- C5 min
- D30 min
40What is a Clear Zone
- AAn area, both inside and outside a perimeter fence or barrier, designed to provide unobstructed visibility for security personnel.
- BAn area, both inside and outside a perimeter fence or barrier, free of sensors to allow normal pedestrian travel.
- CAn area, both inside and outside a perimeter fence or barrier, designed to allow employees to walk around that facilities.
- DAn area, free of all barriers to act as a funnel point for potential threats.
41When processing inventory adjustments, all AA&E loss shall be attributed to an accountability or inventory discrepancy unless determined through investigation that the loss was the result of theft.
- ATrue
- BFalse
42What is the primary regulation for the physical protection of information?
- ADoDM 5200.01 Volume 3
- BDoDM 5200.01 Volume 1
- CDoDM 5200.01 Volume 2
- DDoDM 5200.01 Volume 4
- EDoDM 5200.08-R
43Which of the below does DoDM 5100.76 Physical Security of Sensitive Conventional Arms, Ammunition, and Explosives NOT cover.
- ABlank ammunition, inert training ammunition, rim-fire ammunition, or non-lethal ammunition
- BMissiles and rockets
- CBulk storage areas (Munitions supply points/ storage areas)
- DDisposal, Demilitarization, Destruction
44Inspections of AA&E storage facilities shall be conducted at intervals not to exceed?
- A18 months
- B12 months
- C6 months
- D24 months
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- Description
- Quiz to help you prepare for the Physical Security Certification Test
- Author
- Jeremiah Mariello
- Language
- English
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