Quiz
Gen Vet Med Midterm 1
This quiz has a time limit, so it opens in the usual player.
Questions in this quiz (55)
1Which of the following is NOT a level of refinement for a problem?
- AClinical signs
- BPathophysiology
- CLab data
- DTentative diagnosis
2A problem may be refined with accumulation of facts, temporarily inactivated, resolved, but never removed.
- ATrue
- BFalse
3Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a problem oriented medical record?
- AApproaches each problem separately
- BExcellent for group practice communication
- CEliminates oversight
- DExcellent for teaching logical and thorough diagnostic approach
4What does bifurcation allow us to do?
- AEvaluate broad categories of rule outs
- BPotentially use less invasive diagnostic tools
- CPotentially use less expensive diagnotics
- DAll of the above
5Check all that are included in the minimum data base.
- ASignalment
- BSystem
- CDegree of evaluation
- DFinal diagnosis
- EPhysical exam findings
6The master problem list may contain vaccine information, HW test, Felv status, or drugs dispensed.
- ATrue
- BFalse
7The last page of the master list acts as an index.
- ATrue
- BFalse
8A problem is anything that will interfere with the animal's well being and will require further evaluation and treatment.
- ATrue
- BFalse
9SOAP is the method utilized for progress notes.
- ATrue
- BFalse
10Which describes the subjective section of a SOAP.
- AHistorical, overall assessment (ex. BAR), observations that are not easily quantified (stronger, better appetite, etc)
- BDaily PE findings, quantitated data (lab results, rad findings, ECG, neuro exam)
- CInterpretation and explanation of problem at this time period, current differential diagnosis, evaluation of treatment, how this case differs from typical case, shows student's understanding of case
- DWhat tests will be performed in the next 24 hrs, list therapeutic objectives and goals, what treatments will be administered in the next 24 hrs (include dose, frequency, route of administration), client education
11Which of the following describes the assessment section of a SOAP?
- AHistorical, overall assessment (BAR), observations not easily quantitated (stronger, better appetite, etc)
- BDaily PE findings, quantitated data (lab results, rad findings, ECG, neuro exam)
- CInterpretation and explanation of problem at this time period, current differential diagnosis, evaluation of treatment, how this case differs from typical case, shows student's understanding of case
- DWhat tests will be performed in the next 24 hrs, list therapeutic objectives and goals, what treatment will be administered in the next 24 hrs (include dose, frequency, route of administration), client education
12Which of the following are to be included in recording client education.
- ATime of communication
- BPerson talked with
- CSummarize conversation
- DAll of the above
- ENone of the above
13Which of the following is FALSE?
- AShock occurs when oxygen delivery does not equal oxygen consumption
- BHypovolemic shock can be due to GDV, caval syndrome, cardiac tamponade
- CDistributive shock can occur due to vasodilation effectively removing blood from circulation, sepsis, or anaphlaxis
- DCardiac shock can result from decreased cardiac output
14Blood pressure can change when there are changes to systemic vascular resistance and/or cardiac output.
- ATrue
- BFalse
15Which of the following is NOT a compensatory response to hypotension?
- ASympathetic activtion
- BRAAS
- CADH
- DVasodilation
16Many of the clinical signs of hypovolemic shock are due to compensatory mechanisms.
- ATrue
- BFalse
17Which set of clinical signs is associated with compensated shock?
- ANormal mentation, increased heart rate, normal to decrease temperature, normal to tacky pale mucous membranes, normal to around 2 second CRT, normal (+/- bounding pulses) blood pressure, normal to increased (1-4) lactate
- BMentation may be depressed, obtunded, stupor; heart rate increased in dogs, decreased in cats; decreased temperature; pale, cyanotic mucous membranes; CRT> 2 seconds; low blood pressure; lactate> 3
- CNormal mentation, decreased heart rate, normal to increased temperature, normal to tacky pale mucous membranes, normal CRT, normal (+/- bounding pulses) blood pressure, normal to increased (1-4) lactate
- DMentation may be depressed, obtunded, stupor; heart rate decreased in dogs, increased in cats; increased temperature; pale, cyanotic mucous membranes; CRT> 2 seconds; elevated blood pressure; lactate> 3
18Which set of clinical signs is associated with early decompensation?
- AMentation may be depressed, obtunded, stupor; heart rate increased in dogs, decreased in cats; decreased temperature; pale, cyanotic mucous membranes; CRT> 2 seconds; low blood pressure; lactate> 3
- BNormal mentation, increased heart rate, normal to decreased temperature, normal to tacky, pale mucous membranes, normal to around 2 seconds CRT, normal (+/- bounding pulses), normal to increased (1-4) lactate
- CMentation may be depressed, obtunded, stupor; heart rate decreased in dogs, increased in cats; increased temperature; pale, cyanotic mucous membranes; CRT> 2 seconds; low blood pressure; lactate> 3
- DNormal mentation, decreased heart rate, normal to decreased temperature, normal to tacky, pale mucous membranes, normal to around 2 seconds CRT, normal (+/- bounding pulses), decreased lactate
19What is the shock dose for dogs when using crystalloid IV fluids?
- A90 ml/kg
- B80 ml/kg
- C70 ml/kg
- D60 ml/kg
20You should give most of the shock dose as quickly as you can.
- ATrue
- BFalse
21Which of the following is NOT true about hypertonic saline?
- AIt is 7% saline (NaCl)
- BWhen given IV it results in rapid movement of interstitial and intracellular fluid into intravascular space
- CIt has a short lived effect
- DIt is given in small volume over 20-30 minutes
22Which of the following is/are reasons to use colloids during shock? Check all that you think apply.
- AHyperproteinemia
- BHypoproteinemia
- C Lack of response to initial crystalloid administration
- DTo improve hydration after initial crystalloid administration
- ENone of these
23Vasopressors and positive inotropes are used due to poor response to volume replacement and for hypovolemic shock.
- ATrue
- BFalse
24Giving oxygen in shock provides oxygen to tissues but it may not change oxygen transport.
- ATrue
- BFalse
25Hypothermia improves vascular response to fluids which is why it is important to use passive warming. Coming out of hypothermia too rapidly will impair the vascular response.
- ATrue
- BFalse
26What % of body weight is blood volume?
- A6
- B7
- C8
27Which of the following is NOT an indication for fluid therapy?
- ARehydration
- BExpansion of intravascular volume
- CDecrease plasma oncotic pressure
- DCorrect electrolyte imbalances
28Which of the following clinical signs is associated with 6-8% dehydration?
- AUndetectable
- BDelayed skin tent
- CDry mucous membranes
- DSunken eyes
- EWeak pulses
29Which of the following is NOT an advantage of oral fluid therapy?
- AMost physiologic route
- BNo risk of overhydration
- CReduce electrolyte loss is dehydration
- DRapid absorption
30Subcutaneaous fluids are ok for mild dehydration but there is moderate risk of overhydration.
- ATrue
- BFalse
31Hypertonic solutions should only be administered in a central catheter when given IV.
- ATrue
- BFalse
32You should not give maintenance solutions unless a patient is hydrated.
- ATrue
- BFalse
33Hpertonic saline causes a rapid increase in intracellular volume.
- ATrue
- BFalse
34Which of the following are other treatments for shock, once the animal has been stabilized? Check all that apply.
- AGI protectants to treat/prevent GI ulcers
- BGI protectants that are H2-blockers
- CAntibiotics for septic shock
- DAntibiotics for patients with GI hemorrhage
- EAntibiotics for compensatory shock
- FAnalgesia, but not opiods
- GSodium bicarbonate to treat severe acidosis if present after volume replacement
35Sepsis is a subset of systemic inflammatory response syndrome.
- ATrue
- BFalse
36Which of the following distinguishes severe sepsis from septic shock?
- ASevere sepsis has hypotension that responds to fluid therapy and supportive care. It also requires vasopressors.
- BSevere sepsis has hypotension that responds to fluid therapy and supportive care. It does not require vasopressors.
- CSeptic shock has hypotension, responds to fluid therapy,and requires vasopressors.
- DSeptic shock has hypotension, is unresponsive to fluid therapy, and requires vasopressors.
37Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
- AHypovolemic shock- SIRS infection and hypotension
- BSeptic shock- vasodilation + vasoconstriction + thrombosis
- CCardiogenic shock- decreased myocardial function
- DDistributive shock- excessive capillary permeability and fluid loss
38Check all that are early clinical signs of sepsis.
- ADepression
- BFever
- CTachycardia
- DTachypnea
- EPale mucous membranes
- FRapid CRT
- GWeak pulses
39Urine should be cultured in suspected cases of sepsis. Bacteriuria can occur in sepsis without clinical signs of UTI.
- ATrue
- BFalse
40Which of the following would NOT be expected from laboratory tests in a case of sepsis? (sepsis is the only problem)
- APost renal azotemia
- BHypoglycemia
- CHyperbilirubinemia
- DElevated liver enzymes
41Which of the following is NOT or would not be part of a treatment plan for sepsis?
- ANarrow spectrum antibiotics
- BNutritional support
- CTreat for shock if present
- DTreat complications such as DIC, organ failure, hypoglycemia
- EThese are all used for treatment of sepsis
42Which of the following defines hyperthermia?
- AElevation in core body temperature due to a changed thermoregulatory set point in the hypothlamus
- BElevation in body temperature above normal range that occurs without a change in the hypothalamic set point
43Heat gain occurs by 2 broad mechanisms. Which of the following does NOT result in decreased loss?
- ACatecholamines
- BVasoconstriction
- CPiloerection
- DSeek warm environment
44Which of the following is NOT a method of heat loss?
- AVsodilation
- BPanting
- CPostural change
- DSeek cold environment
- EAll of the above are methods of heat loss
45Which of the following are possible causes for fever? Check all that apply.
- AInfection
- BImmune-mediated
- CNeoplastia
- DInflammation
- EDrugs
- FToxins
46Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic tool for stage 2 diagnosis of FUO? (fever of unknown origin)
- AProtein electrophoresis
- BBone marrow aspirate
- CDental rads
- DFNA of masses, lymph nodes
47When doing a therapeutic antibiotic trial for FUO, how long, minimum, should the full dose be given?
- A5 days
- B1 weeks
- C10 days
- D2 weeks
48Which of the following is FALSE regarding a therapeutic corticosteroid trial for FUO?
- AIf truly immune-mediated, pyrexia and clinical signs are usually resolved in 48-72 hrs
- BMany conditions will respond to steroids initially
- CComplicates diagnosis of neoplasia
- DYou must rule out infection as the cause first
49NSAIDs act centrally on the hypothalamus and reduce prostaglandin production via inhibition of cycloxygenase which results in peripheral vasoconstriction.
- ATrue
- BFalse
50Which of the following does NOT result from excessive core body temperature associated with heat stroke/hyperthermia?
- AIntracellular alterations
- BProtein denaturation
- CEnzyme activation
- DCell membrane instability
51Heat stroke can damage the thermoregulatory center. This leads to a predisposition to subsequent hyperthermic episodes.
- ATrue
- BFalse
52Which of the following is NOT a renal effect from heat stroke?
- AIndirect thermal injury to renal tubular epithelium
- BHypoxia due to hypovolemia
- CMicrothrombi associated with DIC
- DMyoglobin from rhabdomyolysis is nephrotoxic and may exacerbate renal tubular dz
53Heat stroke can lead to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
- ATrue
- BFalse
54Which of the following treatments is contraindicated for hyperthermia?
- ASpray with cold water
- BCool with fan after spraying with water
- CClip thick haircoats from the abdomen and trachea
- DCool water enema
55Which of the following is NOT indicated for treatment of hyperthermia?
- AH2 blockers
- BBroad spectrum abx (unicin or ampicillin/baytril combo)
- CNSAIDs
- DSucralfate
Information
- Description
- Covers POVMR through Fever and hyperthermia. There may be a few fluid therapy questions thrown in there (more on part 2)
- Author
- karahm
- Language
- English
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- 107
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