Quiz
ICND 2
This quiz has a time limit, so it opens in the usual player.
Questions in this quiz (63)
1Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
- AIt can run on a UNIX server.
- BIt authenticates against the user database on the local device.
- CIt is more secure than AAA authentication.
- DIt is enabled on Cisco routers by default.
- EIt uses a managed database
2About statement of HDLC IP address. (Choose Three)
- AIt is local for the interface
- BIt became default route after network reduce
- CIt is in the same subnet address with other interfaces
3Disadvantages of using proxy ARP:
- AIT rewrite MAC in the database
- BIt can be used for DDos attack
4Voice dsp value (never heard of this either)
incomplete answer choices:
Expedited Forwarding (EF), 46, 101110- ATrue
- BFalse
5Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access?
- ASNMPv3 with RBAC
- BSNMPv3
- CSNMPv1
- DSNMPv2
6Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?
- Aring
- Bfull mesh
- Chub-and-spoke
- Dpartial mesh
7What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 user?
- AConfigure server traps.
- BConfigure the server group
- CConfigure the server host.
- DConfigure the remote engine ID.
8How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
- AConfigure the switch port as a trunk.
- BAdd an interface on the switch to a channel group.
- CChange the operational mode to static access.
- DChange the administrative mode to access.
9Which two statement about proxy ARP are true ? choose two
- AIt is supported on networks without ARP.
- BIt allows machines to spoof packets.
- CIt requires larger ARP tables.
- DIt reduces the amount of ARP traffic.
10Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to s specific OID tree?
- Aserver group
- BAn access group
- CA community
- DA view record
11 Which configuration enables OSPF for network 192.168.1.0/24
- Arouter ospf 1
Area 0 virtual-link 192.168.1.0 - Brouter ospf 1
Network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0 - Crouter ospf
Router-id 192.168.1.0 - Drouter ospf 1
Neighbor 192.168.1.0
- Arouter ospf 1
12Which three options are types of slow VLAN connectivity? (Choose three.)
- Aslow inter-VLAN connectivity
- Bslow collision domain connectivity
- Cslow broadcast domain
- Dslow default gateway connectivity
- Eslow application domain connectivity
- Fslow routing domain connectivity
13 Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
- AThe backup port
- BThe alternate port
- CThe root port
- DThe designated port
14Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
- ADynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN 2 through VLAN 4064
- BA switch in VTP transparent mode saves the VLAN database to the running configuration only
- CThe switch must be in the VTP server or transparent mode before you configure a VLAN
- DThe switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
15Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
- AIt is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic to a destination
- BIt is configured in enable mode
- CIt is used to determine the one-way delay between devices
- DThe frequency of the operation is specified in milliseconds
16Which WAN technology uses labels to make decisions about data forwarding?
- AFrame Relay
- BMPLS
- CVSAT
- DMetro Ethernet
- EISDN
17Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two
- AThe bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge
- BThe bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096
- CIt is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension
- DThe system ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095
- EIt is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension
18After you configure a new router to connect to a host through the GigabitEthernet0/0 port of the router, you log in to the router and observe that the new link is down. Which action corrects the problem?
- AConfigure the host to use R1 as the default gateway
- BUse a straight through cable between the host and R1
- CUse a crossover cable between the host and R1
- DUse a rollover cable between the host and R1
19Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
- AThe VLAN priority
- BThe interface number
- CThe hello time
- DThe port priority
20Which VLAN bridge priority value is assigned by the set spantree root command?
- A16384
- B32768
- C28672
- D8192
21Routers R1 and R2 are on the same network segment, and both routers use interface GigabitEthernet0/0. If R1 loses communication to R2, which two items should you check as you begin troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
- AVerify the R1 and R2 both are using HDLC encapsulation
- BVerify that the R1 GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is up and the line protocol is down
- CVerify that the R1 GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is up and the line protocol is up
- DVerify that the GigabitEthernet0/0 interfaces on R1 and R2 are configured with the same subnet mask
- EVerify that R2 is using 802.1q encapsulation
22Which purpose of the network command in OSPF configuration mode is true?
- AIt defines a wildcard mask to identify the size of the network.
- BIt defines the area ID.
- CIt defines the network by its classful entry.
- DIt defines which networks are used for virtual links.
23Which STP stability mechanism is used to prevent a rogue switch from becoming the root switch?
- ASource Guard
- BBPDU guard
- Croot guard
- Dloop guard
24Which three checks must you perform when troubleshooting EIGRPv6 adjacencies? (Choose three.)
- AVerify that IPv6 is enabled.
- BVerify that the network command has been configured.
- CVerify that auto summary is enabled.
- DVerify that the interface is up.
- EVerify that an IPv4 address has been configured.
- FVerify that the router ID has been configured.
25Which two actions must you take to configure a PAgP EtherChannel between two switches, S1 and S2? (Choose two.)
- AConfigure the channel-group 1 mode auto command on S1.
- BConfigure the channel-group 1 mode desirable command on S2.
- CConfigure the channel-group 1 mode active command on S2.
- DConfigure the channel-group 1 mode on command on S2.
- EConfigure the channel-group 1 mode active command on S1.
26Which Routing protocols are compatible with stubs?
- AOSPF
- BEIGRP
- CEBGP
- DBGP
- EIS_IS
- FRIP
27Whats the minimum command to turn on encryption on SNMP?
- ASNMPV3authpriv
- BSMNPV3authnopriv
- CSNMPV3noauthpriv
- DSMNPV2authnopriv
- ESNMPV2NOAUTHPRIV
- FSNMPV2AUTHNOPRIV
28What’s DTP’s default in a switch?
- AON
- BOFF
- CDynamic auto
- DDynamic desirable
29What about HSRP IP Address is true?
- Aif its part of the LAN
- BPart of all other networks
- CLocal to the interface
- DAppears in the routing table
- Eacts as default route for that interface
30Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
- AThe VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
- BThe VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
- CThe local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
- DThe entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
- EThe VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
31Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?
- A1
- B64
- C100
- D299
- E1099
32Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
- AThe frequency of the operation .s specified in milliseconds.
- BIt is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.
- CIt is configured in enable mode.
- DIt is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.
33Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
- ACisco Prime Infrastructure
- BCisco Wireless LAN Controller
- CCisco APIC-EM
- DCisco IOS-XE
34Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized managementsystem?
- ACisco OpenDaylight
- BCisco ACI
- CCisco APIC
- DCisco IWAN
35What is the default VLAN on an access port?
- A0
- B1
- C10
- D1024
36Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?
- Avirtual-template interface
- BDHCP
- Cdialer interface
- DAAA authentication
37Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding stated?
- ABPDU guard
- BPortFast
- Cloop guard
- DUDLD
- EUplink Fast
38Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
- Ashow ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
- Bshow ipv6 route eigrp
- Cshow ipv6 eigrp neighbors
- Dshow ip eigrp traffic
39Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)
- Aduplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
- Bmultiple errors on switchport interfaces
- Ccongestion on the switch inband path
- Da failing NIC in an end device
- Ean overloaded shared segment
40What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
- AOnly TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
- BOnly RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
- COnly RADIUS uses TCP.
- DOnly TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
41Which statement about DTP is true?
- AIt uses the native VLAN.
- BIt negotiates a trunk link after VTP has been configured.
- CIt uses desirable mode by default.
- DIt sends data on VLAN 1.
42Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology change?
- AIt immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
- BIt sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.
- CIt sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
- DIt immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.
43Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?
- AIt prioritizes routing protocol traffic.
- BIt remarks traffic that is below the CIR
- CIt drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.
- DIt queues and then transmits traffic that exceeds the CIR.
44Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
- Aautonomous system number
- Bversion number
- Crouter ID
- Dsubnet mask
- EIP address
45Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?
- A802.1d
- B802.11
- C802.1w
- D802.1x
46Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another port or ports on the same switch?
- Acopy run start
- Btraceroute
- Cthe ICMP Echo IP SLA
- DSPAN
47Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?
- AOnly EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.
- BOnly EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing process
- CAS numbers are configured in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.
- DOnly EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.
48Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
- AIt reduces the need for a backup data center.
- BIt can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
- CIt enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
- DIt eliminates the need for a GSS.
49Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?
- AIt provides redundancy with no impact on resource usage.
- BIt simplifies adding and removing hosts.
- CIt supports better performance of high-needs applications.
- DIt provides higher port density with better resource usage.
50Which statement about MPLS is true?
- AIt operates in Layer 1.
- BIt operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.
- CIt operates in Layer 3.
- Dit operates in Layer 2.
51Which statement about named ACLs is true?
- AThey support standard and extended ACLs
- BThey are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
- CThey are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
- DThey support standard ACLs only.
- EThey are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
52While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output. Which information is provided by the Load value?
- Athe percentage of use of the link
- Bthe preference of the link
- Cthe session count of the link
- Dthe number source-destination pairs on the link
53Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
- AEthernet
- BDialer
- Cserial
- DFrame Relay
54Which configuration can you apply to enable encapsulation on a subinterface?
- Ainterface FastEthernet 0/0
encapsulation dot1Q 30
Ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0 - Binterface FastEthernet 0/0.30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0 - Cinterface FastEthernet 0/0.30
description subinterface vlan 30 - Dinterface FastEthernet 0/0.30
encapsulation dot1Q 30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
- Ainterface FastEthernet 0/0
55Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
- APorts are untrusted by default.
- BVoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
- CVideo traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
- DPackets are classified internally with an environment.
- EPackets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
56At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume thediscarding role?
- ASwitch3, port fa0/1
- BSwitch3, port fa0/12
- CSwitch4, port fa0/11
- DSwitch4, port fa0/2
- ESwitch3, port Gi0/1
- FSwitch3, port Gi0/2
57The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
- AO 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0
208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0 - BO 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0
208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0 - CO 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0
208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0
208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0 - DO 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0
208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0
- AO 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0
58Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the
192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?- AThe router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
- BThe router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2
- CThe router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1
- DThe router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
59What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
- AIt requires the use of ARP.
- BIt can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
- CIt supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
- DIt routes over links rather than over networks.
60Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?
- ARSA
- BL2TP
- CIPsec
- DPPTP
61Host X and host Y are connected through the respective Gigabit Ethernet ports, but host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which option is the most probable reason for the problem?
- AHost Y is using a network ID as its IP address
- BHost Y is using an invalid IP address and subnet mask
- CHost X is using a broadcast address as its IP address
- DHost X is using an invalid subnet mask
62Don’t the have question
- ADev1(config)# bba-group pppoe bba 1.
- BDev1(config-if)# pppoe-client dial-pool-number 1
- CDev1(config-if)# pppoe enable group bba1.
- DDev1(config-if)# pppoe enable.
63You enter the show ipv6 route command on an OSPF device and the device displays a route. Which conclusion can you draw about the environment?
- AOSPF is distributing IPv6 routes to BGP
- BThe router is designed as an ASR
- CThe router is designed as totally stubby
- DOSPFv3 is in use
Information
- Description
- All page references are from CCNA Routing and Switching ICND2 200-105 Official Cert Guide by WENDELL ODOM
- Author
- R Cruz
- Language
- English
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