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Com/Nav CDC test 1
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Questions in this quiz (100)
1The AFI that governs the current wing organization and operation is
- A53-3
- B39-1
- C21-166
- D21-101
2Who is responsible for directing the maintenance effort using available resources and participating in the development and execution of the monthly, weekly flying and maintenance schedules/plans?
- APro super
- BMOO
- CQA
- DWing commander
3What flight in the maintenance squadron primarily performs off-equipment maintenance of avionics components and electronic warfare systems?
- ATMDE flight
- BAvionics flight
- CAccessory flight
- DMaintenance support flight
4Informational publications that include procedures for implementing Air Force policies are called
- Aindexes
- Bpamphlets
- Cdirectories
- Dsupplements
5If you need to tie together all maintenance actions on a specific job, which MDC system data element do you use?
- AWork unit code
- BWork center code
- CJob control number
- DIdentification number
6The number entered in the TAG NUMBER block of AFTO Form 349 comes from
- Aa WUC manual
- BAFTO Form 350
- Cthe manufacturer's data plate
- Dthe illustrated parts breakdown
7What block of AFTO Form 349 is checked to indicate actions that affect the historical records of an end-item?
- AUNITS
- BSCH CODE
- CTYPE MAINT
- DRECORDS ACTION
8The IMDS is event oriented and user friendly, which means that it
- Aaccepts any input
- Brequires no password
- Crestricts unauthorized access
- Dchecks keyboard entries for compatability
9Which is not a function of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System?
- AMission scheduling
- BMaintenance scheduling
- CPersonnel leave scheduling
- DPersonnel training management
10One of the basic principles of supply discipline is to
- Ause supplies to fulfill any purpose
- Bknow all equipment items on hand
- Cstock excess property until needed
- Deffectively safeguard and preserve property
11One way you can be relieved of property responsibility is to
- Aturn the property in to supply
- Bhave the property declared surplus
- Chave the property declared unserviceable
- Dcall the base equipment management office
12How does the deficiency reporting system reduce total ownership cost?
- AThrough process standardization
- BIdentifies system deficiencies early in its life cycle
- CAllows investigative findings to be applied to reappearances
- DProvides feedback to the warfighters and other users in the field
13The TO numbering system is explained in detail in TO
- A0-4-2
- B0-1-01
- C00-5-1
- D00-5-18
14Which Air Force technical manuals contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment?
- AJob guides
- BAircraft TOs
- CCommercial manuals
- DOther equipment TOs
15Which index lists all Air Force MPTOs?
- ATO 0-1-1
- BTO 0-1-02
- CTO 00-1-02
- DTO 00-1-20
16Before an AFTO Form 22 is submitted, the submitter’s supervisor assesses it in terms of mission impact, personnel and system safety, and
- Abudget constraints
- Btime required to implement
- Curgency of need for change
- Dapproving official's workload
17A GS manual provides
- Ageneral overview of the aircraft.
- Bdetailed schematics of systems wiring.
- Cfault descriptions and fault isolation procedures.
- Ddetailed procedures for on-aircraft maintenance.
18The ACPINS provides a standardized system that performs all of the tasks listed below except
- Amanage software
- Bdevelop software
- Cidentify software
- Ddistribute software
19How many CPIN identifier fields are there?
- AThree
- BFour
- CFive
- DSix
20Which security classification guide section would list the transmit frequency of an electronic warfare system?
- AHardware
- BOperational data
- CPerformance and capabilities
- DFunding, procurement, and production
21What structural areas allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
- ADoors
- BNacelles
- CWindows
- DPlates and skins
22Which is not an offensive avionics system?
- ABuilt-in test system
- BControls and displays
- CCentral computing complex
- DNavigation and weapons delivery
23What is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
- A1 foot
- B3 feet
- C5 feet
- D10 feet
24Which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise?
- AFrequent nausea
- BTemporary weight gain
- CPermanent hearing loss
- DSmall overdose have little or no effect
25Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
- AMinor
- BMajor
- CPhase
- DPeriodic
26The AFTO Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft
- Ainspections
- Bflight records
- Cconfigurations
- Dcomponent repair
27Who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all COMSEC required entries?
- AAircrew
- BPro super
- CCrewchief
- DComm/Nav technician
28To “flag” a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use
- AAFTO Form 244
- BAFTO Form 781K
- CAF Form 1492
- DAF Form 979
29Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?
- AUsing protective tote boxes
- BCovering LRU connector plugs
- CTouching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation
- DTouching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft
30Which is not a type of connector coupling?
- AFriction
- BBayonet
- CInsertion
- DThreaded
31Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures
- Aconnectors will mate properly
- Bsolder will adhere properly
- CRF will not be impeded
- Dproper connection
32One purpose of crimper positioners is to
- Aalign crimper handles to pin contact.
- Bput pin contacts in the proper position.
- Cput the turret head in line with pin contact.
- Dadjust the pressure applied to the connector pins.
33As a flight line technician, you can repair up to
- A20 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
- B20 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
- C25 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
- D25 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
34The circuit used in an AM transmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designed frequency required for carrier wave operation is
- Aa buffer amplifier
- Ban audio amplifier
- Ca power amplifier
- Da frequency multiplier
35In an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the
- Areactance modulator
- Bpower amplifier circuit
- Cfrequency multiplier circuit
- Dfrequency discriminator circuit
36In single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator’s output consists of
- Athe carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband
- Bthe upper and lower sidebands
- Clower sideband only
- Dupper sideband only
37The purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to
- Aadd amplitude variations to the intermediate frequency signal
- Bremove amplitude variations from the intermediate frequency signal
- Cremove frequency variations from the intermediate frequency signal
- Drectify the audio frequency signal from the intermediate frequency section
38A receiving radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by
- Aaccepting and amplifying the minute current
- Bremoving the radio frequency carrier wave
- Cconverting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force
- Delectromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow
39The primary reason the high-frequency radio uses single sideband modulation is
- Athat fidelity is greatly increased
- Bthe transmitter output power is 10 watts
- Cthe system can use a very wide-band pass
- Dthat it provides many channels to operate on
40You are using a learned preset for the ARC–190 high-frequency radio system. For this application, the transmit tune time is less than
- A5 milliseconds
- B25 milliseconds
- C35 milliseconds
- D50 milliseconds
41Which very-high frequency radio system uses two antennas?
- AFM homing
- BAM communications
- CFM communications
- DAM direction-finder
42The Have Quick II frequency-hopping pattern and rate is programmed by the
- Atime-of-day
- Bword-of-day
- Cnet number used
- Duniversal time coordinated
43What LRU provides primary control of the ARC–210 radio system?
- ARadio set control
- BRemote tuning panel
- CReceiver/transmitter
- DRemote volume control
44How do you swap the active and standby frequencies of the ARC–210 radio system using the remote tuning panel?
- APressing the outer knob
- BPressing the inner knob
- CRotating the outer knob
- DRotating the inner knob
45Which one of the following is not an operating mode of the PRC–90 emergency radio?
- AMorse code.
- BTwo-way voice communication.
- CThree-way voice communications.
- DVariable audio modulation between 1000 and 300 Hz.
46When activated, the emergency locator transmitter continuously transmits on frequencies
- A8.0 and 121.5 MHz
- B243.0 and 282.8 MHz
- C254.5 and 282.8 MHz
- D121.5 and 243.0 MHz
47The purpose of the +17 to +29 VDC on the CALL control line of the C–6567 is to
- Areduce the level of CALL audio output.
- Bdisable the mic amplifier during CALL operation.
- Cactivate the AGC circuits in the headset amplifiers.
- Denergize the CALL switch on the front panel of the C–6624.
48The major difference between the U–92A/U and the U–94A/U jack is the
- AU–92A/U jack has a PTT button.
- BU–94A/U jack has a PTT button.
- CU–94A/U is located on the pilot’s throttle grip.
- DU–92A/U requires an additional wire for the talk switch.
49The forward external interphone receptacle in the airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) system allows the operator to transmit on a radio, even though the other two external receptacles cannot, because it is connected to the
- Apilot’s interphone audio control panel (IACP).
- Bpilot’s intercom control panel (ICP).
- Cboom operator’s forward IACP.
- Dboom operator’s forward ICP.
50If you need to store 12 cryptographic keys, then how many KYK–13 devices will you require?
- A1
- B2
- C4
- D6
51Why does the KYK–13 parity light flash on and off continuously?
- ABecause battery power is low.
- BBecause stored key is no longer valid.
- CBecause the unit is performing BIT.
- DBecause key transfer was prevented.
52What KY–58 line replaceable unit (LRU) has the primary function of transmitting and receiving secure voice messages?
- AZ–AHQ adapter.
- BRCU control panel.
- CKYK–13 fill device.
- DTSEC secure voice processor.
53Parallels of latitude are parallel to the
- Aequator
- Bpolar axis
- CGreenwich meridian
- Dinternational time line
54Which global positioning system unit in the ARN–151 produces the intermediate frequency signal?
- AAntenna
- BReceiver
- CIndicator control
- DAntenna controller
55In the tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver transmitter (RT) adapter, TO/FROM information is developed by combining magnetic bearing with
- Acourse deviation
- Bmagnetic heading
- Crelative bearing
- Drelative heading
56If an aircraft is flying inbound on the 90° radial of a very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) station, then what will be the outbound radial when the aircraft passes the station?
- A90°.
- B180°.
- C270°.
- D360°.
57When the IDENT-OUT-MIC switch is in the MIC position, identification, friend or foe (IFF) identification of position (I/P) replies are triggered every time which radio system is keyed?
- AHF
- BLHF
- CUHF
- DVHF
58How long in μs does it take an RF wave to travel a radar mile?
- A12.4μs.
- B9.3μs.
- C6.2μs.
- D3.1μs.
59Which component in a pulse-modulation radar system shapes the radio frequency energy into a narrow beam?
- AAntenna
- BIndicator
- CTransmitter
- DSynchronizer
60Which of the following are types of power loss in radio frequency lines?
- ACopper, dielectric, and radiation
- BCurrent, dielectric, and emission
- CDielectric, radiation, and current
- DRadiation, copper, and conduction
61Which component in the AN/APN–59 radar system furnishes both pitch and roll drive signals to the antenna stabilization motors?
- AAM–853B.
- BCN–221A.
- CAS–653C.
- DRT–289G.
62During the CARA radar altitude indicator’s bright lighting conditions, the ambient light sensor serves to
- Aset the display brightness to dim
- Boverride the dimmer control knob
- Callow the user to brighten the display only
- Dallow the user to both dim or brighten the display
63Which radar application sends data to compute time-to-go parameters?
- ASearch radar
- BWeather radar
- CBombing radar
- DSynthetic aperture radar
64The elapsed time indicator of the R/T indicates the time power has been
- Aapplied to the R/T
- Bremoved from the R/T
- Capplied to digital data processor
- Dremoved from digital data processor
65What is the range in MHz of signals that the low pass filter passes?
- A240 – 304 MHz
- B480 – 608 MHz
- C960 – 1215 MHz
- D1920 – 2430 MHz
66If the JTIDS entrant is attempting to achieve fine synchronization by transmitting a round trip time interrogation, then what process is being used?
- Aactive
- Bpassive
- Cdynamic
- Dradio silent
67What is the structure of a MIL-STD1553 data word?
- A20 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 16 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits
- B20 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 16 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit
- C32 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 28 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits
- D32 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 28 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit.
68What part of a computer acts like a sophisticated switchboard operator?
- Amemory
- Blogic unit
- Ccontrol unit
- Darithmetic unit
69The resolution of a computer monitor is expressed in the number of pixels that make up the image; therefore, the sharper the image, the
- Alower the refresh rate
- Bhigher the resolution
- Clower the dot color
- Dhigher the dot pitch
70The power meter is used to measure
- Ano power
- Bany power
- Ceither absolute or relative power
- Deither absolute or manual power
71If you want to measure relative power using a power meter, you would first apply the power level and then press
- AMODE.
- BdB REF.
- CRANGE HOLD.
- DSENSOR ZERO.
72Before power is connected to the RFLTS, you must ensure the ON/POWER/OFF switch is in the OFF position and a suitable grounding strap is connected between the grounding lug on the right side of RFTLTS unit 1 and the
- Aaircraft
- Bpower unit
- Cparking ramp
- Dtime domain reflectometer
73When using the 1 and 3 milliohm range on the model 4328A millohmeter, how far away from the conducting surface should the probes and cables be placed?
- A10 millimeters
- B10 centimeters
- C1 millimeter
- D1 centimeter
74What basic function of a data bus analyzer provides the ability to introduce an error condition into the data to permit an analysis of how the system will behave?
- AInjection
- BSimulation
- CExamination
- DPlayback of data
75When the confidence test is performed, which APX–64 transponder R/T module’s gain is increased?
- ARF
- BTest
- CDecoder
- DIF amplifier
76When pressing the TEST RPT button on the transponder TS–3977 test set while aiming the antenna at the ground, the test code indication should be
- AF
- BO
- C3
- D7
77If you turn the Bearing CW/CCW switch on the ARM–184 flightline test set, then the indicator should increase or decrease at an angular rate of
- A5° per second
- B10° per second
- C12° per second
- D15° per second
78Traditional noise jamming techniques designed to block communications channels or radarscope presentations are applications of
- Adenial
- Bdeception
- Cdisruption
- Ddestruction
79Electronic support data is not used to produce
- Asignal intelligence
- Bballistic intelligence
- Celectronic intelligence
- Dcommunications intelligence
80Normal suppression of enemy air defense targets include radars for
- Aacquisition, and antiaircraft artillery only.
- Bacquisition, antiaircraft artillery, and surface-to-air (SAM) only.
- Cacquisition and early warning/ground controlled intercept and SAM only.
- Dacquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.
81What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?
- AEA–6B
- BEF–111
- CF/A–18
- DF–16CJ
82A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of
- Aimitative deception
- Bimitative reception
- Csimulative deception
- Dmanipulative deception
83What are electronic warfare (EW) reconnaissance crews called?
- ACrows
- BFerrets
- CSparks
- DRavens
84What electronic intelligence (ELINT) equipment is used to determine the location of emitters?
- APulse analyzer
- BDirection finder
- CSpectrum analyzer
- DPanoramic receiver
85What radar display indicator displays range or velocity?
- AA scope
- BB scope
- CRange height
- DPlan position
86The radar warning receiver (RWR) does not provide signal
- Arelative location
- Bidentification
- Cfrequency
- Damplitude
87What infrared (IR) detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?
- APhotovoltaic
- BPhotographic
- CPhotoemissive
- DPhotoconductive
88What infrared (IR) seeker uses many detectors and each one detects a small portion of a scene?
- AStaring
- BScanning
- CChopping
- DSpinning
89In what frequency region do the missile approach warning systems (MAWS) operate?
- ARadio
- BGamma
- CInfrared
- DVisible light
90When a photon causes the release of another photon, it is called
- Astimulated emission
- Bpopulation inversion
- Cspontaneous emission
- Dpopulation conversion
91What is not a battlefield usage of the laser?
- ATarget ranging and designation
- BContrail detection
- CGuided weapon
- DAcquisition
92What technology does the Pilot Alert System (PAS) employ to detect contrail from the #3 engine exhaust?
- ALaser
- BAcoustic
- CMicrowave
- DMillimeter wave
93The chaff tactic that dispenses large quantities of chaff in a continuous ribbon is called
- Aarea saturation
- Bself-protection
- Cpreplanned burst
- Dcorridor operation
94A typical flare cartridge is composed of magnesium and tetraflouroethylene and burns at
- A1000 to 1200 °K.
- B2000 to 2200 °K.
- C3000 to 3200 °K.
- D4000 to 4200 °K.
95What indicates the relative signal strength of the received radio frequency (RF) signal?
- AHorizontal deflection of the trace.
- BVertical deflection of the trace.
- CSpan per division.
- DCenter frequency.
96The four control modes allow you to vary the output
- Atime only
- Bperiod only
- Cfrequency only
- Dpulse characteristics
97What test equipment is used to check the aircraft expendables (chaff and flare) systems?
- ASpectrum analyzer
- BRadar simulator set
- CCountermeasures dispenser tester (CDT)
- DRadiofrequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS)
98What describes in detail how an Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) change affects an Electronic Warfare (EW) system?
- ASystem impact message
- BReprogramming impact message
- CTime compliance technical order
- DMaintenance instruction message
99Which of the following is an Air Force reprogramming exercise?
- ABRAVE BYTE
- BPROUD BYTE
- CSERENE BYTE
- DNEPTUNE BYTE
100What countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?
- AFire
- BMisfire
- CJettison
- DStay voltage
Information
- Description
- test 1
- Author
- Hannah Hailey
- Language
- English
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