Quiz
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
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Questions in this quiz (54)
1HIV has two main types - which is the one known for the global pandemic starting in the 1980s?
- AHIV-1
- BHIV-2
2Which of the subtypes of HIV-1 was responsible for the global pandemic that started in the 1980s?
- ASubtype M
- BSubtype N
- CSubtype O
- DSubtype P
3[blank_start]CD4+[blank_end] receptors are the target site for the HIV virus
- ACD4+
4HIV-2 is worse than HIV-1 and unfortunately no known treatment or cure is available for it.
- ATrue
- BFalse
5CD4+ lymphocytes are [blank_start]Helper T cells[blank_end]
- AHelper T cells
- BCytotoxic T cells
6CD4+ T Helper Cells recognise [blank_start]MHC-2[blank_end] antigen presenting cells
- AMHC-2
- BMHC-1
7HIV causes a [blank_start]reduction[blank_end] in CD4+ cells and an [blank_start]increase[blank_end] in CD8+ cells
- Areduction
- Bincrease
- Cincrease
- Dreduction
8Psoriasis is a CD8+ cell mediated condition. Therefore, a person with Psoriasis who contracts HIV will likely experience an exacerbation of their Psoriasis.
- ATrue
- BFalse
9The normal CD4+ Cell number is between [blank_start]500[blank_end]-1600 cells/mm3
- A500
10An individual with HIV is considered to be at significant risk of opportunistic infection when their CD4+ cell count falls below [blank_start]200[blank_end] cells/mm3
- A200
- B300
- C500
11Between exposure to the virus and its establishment within the body, there is a [blank_start]3[blank_end] day period whereby post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) can be given to completely eradicate the virus and prevent chronic infection.
- A3
- B5
- C1
- D7
12Primary HIV infection typically presents [blank_start]2-4 weeks[blank_end] after exposure to the virus.
- A2-4 weeks
- B1 week
- C8-12 weeks
13Which three of the following symptoms are typically found in those suffering from Primary HIV Infection?
- AFever
- BHeadaches
- CMaculopapular rash
- DCough
- EChest pain
- FBlurred vision
14Which of the following opportunistic infections is most common in HIV patients?
- APneumocystis Pneumonia
- BTuberculosis
- CToxoplasma Gondii
- DCytomegalovirus
- EHerpes Simplex infection
15A HIV positive patient presents with a dry cough and shortness of breath. The clinician decides to run an exercise tolerance test and this shows exercise desaturation. Which opportunistic infection has likely caused these symptoms?
[blank_start]Pneumocystis Pneumonia[blank_end]- APneumocystis Pneumonia
16Pneumocystis Pneumonia in HIV patients occurs due to which pathogen?
Pneumocystis [blank_start]Jiroveci[blank_end]- AJiroveci
17The treatment for Pneumocystis Pneumonia in HIV patients is high dose [blank_start]Co-Trimoxazole[blank_end]
- ACo-Trimoxazole
- BCeftriaxone
- CCiprofloxacin
- DCo-Amoxiclav
18Which medication is given in low doses to HIV patients with CD4+ count under 200 in order to act as prophylaxis against opportunistic infections?
- ACo-Trimoxazole
- BCeftriaxone
- CCiprofloxacin
- DCo-Amoxiclav
- ERifampicin
- FIsoniazid
- GEthambutol
- HPyrazinamide
19Tuberculosis infection is made less probable due to HIV infection.
- ATrue
- BFalse
20Cytomegalovirus is a common organism to infect HIV patients when their CD4+ count is very low (<50). How, and in which system, does this infection most typically present?
- AIn the eyes (retinitis, reduced visual acuity, floaters, etc)
- BIn the ears (tinnitus, vertigo, etc)
- CIn the mouth (loss of taste sensation, pharyngitis, etc)
- DIn the central nervous system (paraesthesia, shooting pains, etc)
21A HIV patient suffering from recurrent headaches and seizures, fever and reduced consciousness is likely to be suffering from which opportunistic infection? See picture for clue.
[blank_start]Cerebral Toxoplasmosis[blank_end]
- ACerebral Toxoplasmosis
22Cerebral Toxoplasmosis is caused by the pathogen Toxoplasma [blank_start]Gondii[blank_end] which is typically found in [blank_start]cats[blank_end] and lives latent in the human body (in most cases never causing any problems) unless that person is to become immunosuppressed.
- Acats
- Bdogs
- Cgoats
- Dsheep
- EGondii
- FAlbicans
- GJiroveci
- HSimian
- IParovirus
- JFelinae
23An individual with HIV who rapidly develops confusion, personality change and focal neurology is likely to be suffering from which condition?
- AProgressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
- BHIV-associated neurocognitive impairment
24Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is caused by the [blank_start]John Cunningham (JC)[blank_end] virus
- AJohn Cunningham (JC)
- BJames Caldwell (JC)
- CJane Coddard (JC)
25A HIV patient presents with multiple lesions on his arm as is shown in the picture. This type of tumour, which can also occur in the oral mucosa, pulmonary system and GI system, is called ...
[blank_start]Kaposi's Sarcoma[blank_end]
- AKaposi's Sarcoma
26Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma is an AIDS-related cancer caused by the [blank_start]epstein barr[blank_end] virus
- Aepstein barr
27HIV patients are also increasingly susceptible to HPV infection. This predisposes women diagnosed with HIV to a higher risk of [blank_start]cervical[blank_end] cancer.
- Acervical
28HIV is also known to cause Anaemia.
- ATrue
- BFalse
29What mode of transmission accounts for 94% of all HIV infections in the UK?
- ASexual
- BSalival
- CBlood-to-blood contact (infected blood products, etc)
- DInjection drug use
- EIatrogenic
30Which type of sex leaves an individual more susceptible to contracting HIV?
- AAnoreceptive sex
- BVaginal receptive sex
31An individual is less likely to contract HIV if they have a concurrent STI
- ATrue
- BFalse
32As of 2015, the approximate total number of people living with HIV in the UK is [blank_start]100,000[blank_end]
- A100,000
- B300,000
- C50,000
33There are 3 types of markers for HIV that the labs use to test for the virus:
[blank_start]Viral RNA[blank_end]: First marker to indicate positive HIV test
[blank_start]Antigen[blank_end]: Second marker to indicate positive HIV test (typically at 4 weeks)
[blank_start]Antibody[blank_end]: Third marker to indicate positive HIV test (typically at 12 weeks)- AAntibody
- BAntigen
- CViral RNA
34Typically, scientists use which antigen as a marker for HIV?
- AEnvelope Protein GP120
- BCapsule Protein P24
354th generation HIV tests now exist that test for HIV antigens and antibodies in conjunction, therefore allowing HIV to be diagnosed after around [blank_start]4[blank_end] weeks
- A4
- B8
- C10
36Which three enzymes are typically targeted in the treatment of HIV? (name in alphabetical order)
[blank_start]Integrase[blank_end]
[blank_start]Protease[blank_end]
[blank_start]Reverse Transcriptase[blank_end]- AIntegrase
- BProtease
- CReverse Transcriptase
37Life cycle of HIV Virus:
Virus attaches to [blank_start]CD4+[blank_end] receptor on host cell. This receptor brings the virus in and the virus then unloads its [blank_start]RNA[blank_end] into the host cell. The RNA then copies itself using the enzyme called [blank_start]reverse transcriptase[blank_end] to create the virus's own double stranded DNA. The viral DNA is then integrated into the host DNA using an enzyme called [blank_start]integrase[blank_end]. After viral proteins are made using the integrated viral DNA, an enzyme called [blank_start]protease[blank_end] then cleaves these proteins into 'buds' which are then released to infect other host cells.- ACD4+
- BRNA
- Creverse transcriptase
- Dintegrase
- Eprotease
38NRTIs are drugs used to combat the action of [blank_start]reverse transcriptase[blank_end] in the life cycle of the HIV virus.
- Areverse transcriptase
- Bintegrase
- Cprotease
39Highly active antiretroviral therapy is the mainstay of treatment for HIV. This consists of a combination of [blank_start]3[blank_end] drugs from at least [blank_start]2[blank_end] different drug classes to which the HIV virus is susceptible.
- A3
- B2
40Tenofovir is a commonly utilised [blank_start]NRTI[blank_end]
- ANRTI
- BProtease Inhibitor
- CIntegrase Inhibitor
41Compliance is unimportant in the case of HIV treatment as long as the medications are taken at least 75% of the time.
- ATrue
- BFalse
42Diarrhoea is a very common side effect of HIV medications, but especially common in those who take [blank_start]protease inhibitors[blank_end]
- Aprotease inhibitors
- Bintegrase inhibitors
- CNRTIs
43[blank_start]Atazanavir[blank_end] is a protease inhibitor which is safe for use in pregnancy
- AAtazanavir
- BTenofovir
- CAbacavir
- DZidovudine
- ENevirapine
44If a woman with HIV refuses to tell her long term male partner of her diagnosis and plans to keep on having unprotected sex with him, are there any laws that prevent this from occurring?
- AYes
- BNo
45If a man with HIV refuses to tell his long term partner (who you do not know) of his diagnosis and plans to keep on having unprotected sex with them, you as a medical professional are obliged to inform the partner themselves to prevent them from coming to harm.
- ATrue
- BFalse
46What is the biggest preventer of onwards transmission of HIV?
- AUse of Condoms
- BTreatment of the HIV itself
- CSero-adaptive sexual behaviours
- DPartner Disclosure
- EPre-exposure prophylaxis
47If a patient who is HIV positive has an undetectable viral load, they are able to have unprotected sex with their partner with no risk of transmission.
- ATrue
- BFalse
48A man informs his female partner of 15 years that he has been diagnosed with HIV. after testing, the woman is HIV negative. Despite this, she wishes to start HIV treatment anyway to protect herself from the condition. Is this possible?
- AYes
- BNo
49HIV Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) can be given to partners of HIV positive patients in order to protect them from contracting the condition. If they forget to take this after they are worried about infection, emergency post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) can be taken up to 3 days following sex in order to prevent chronic infection.
- ATrue
- BFalse
50When their viral load is undetectable, HIV patients are able to have condomless sex in order to attempt to conceive a baby with no risk of transmission.
- ATrue
- BFalse
51Irrelevant of whether a mother's viral load is undetectable or not, baby's with HIV positive mothers must always be delivered via C-section.
- ATrue
- BFalse
52Following the birth of a child to a HIV positive mother, the neonate is given Post-Exposure Prophylactic (PEP) treatment for [blank_start]4 weeks[blank_end] following their birth.
- A4 weeks
- B8 weeks
- C12 weeks
53In terms of the PEP treatment of a neonate following birth to a HIV positive mother, if at the time of the birth the mother's viral load is 0 the baby is only given [blank_start]1 antiretroviral drug[blank_end] however if the mother has a detectable viral load they are given [blank_start]2 antiretroviral drugs[blank_end]
- A1 antiretroviral drug
- B2 antiretroviral drugs
- C3 antiretroviral drugs
- D2 antiretroviral drugs
- E1 antiretroviral drug
- F3 antiretroviral drugs
- G4 antiretroviral drugs
54In order to qualify for PrEP in Scotland:
The individual must be over the age of [blank_start]16[blank_end], HIV [blank_start]negative[blank_end] and be able to commit to [blank_start]3[blank_end] monthly follow ups.
They must also be either ...
- A partner to someone who is HIV positive
- A gay man or transwoman who has had >[blank_start]2[blank_end] sexual encounters in the last year and is likely to have another within 3 months or has had a confirmed bacterial [blank_start]rectal[blank_end] STI in the past year- A16
- B18
- C14
- D3
- E6
- F12
- Gnegative
- Hpositive
- I2
- J5
- K4
- Lrectal
- Moral
Information
- Description
- HIV Lectures (2 lectures) given on Monday and Tuesday of Week 2
- Author
- Matthew Coulson
- Language
- English
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