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3D053 V1
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Questions in this quiz (89)
1Which of the following is a duty performed by a cyber surety journeyman?
- ASustain cryptographic equipment.
- BInstall and maintain servers or other computer systems.
- CManage data, information, and knowledge sharing services.
- DDetection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection.
2Which career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in fixed and deployed environments?
- AClient Systems (3D1X1)
- BSpectrum Operations (3D1X4)
- CCyber Transport Systems (3D1X2)
- DRadio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)
3How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
- A4
- B5
- C6
- D7
4What is the third step in the risk management (RM) process?
- AAssess hazards.
- BImplement controls.
- CSupervise and ecaluate.
- DDevelop controls and make decisions.
5Human error cause approximately what percentage of all accidents?
- A40
- B60
- C75
- D95
6What type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?
- AGlobal network.
- BWireless local area network (WLAN).
- CWireless wide area network (WWAN).
- DWireless metropolitan area network (WMAN).
7Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?
- ACAT-6.
- BCoaxial.
- CFiber Optic.
- DTwisted pair.
8Which of the following is not an example of unbound media?
- AFiber optic.
- BTerrestrial.
- CRadio frequency.
- DSatellite microwave.
9In which topology does a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network send a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see, but only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes?
- ABus.
- BStar.
- CRing.
- DTree.
10When viewed in binary form, each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has how many positions?
- A4.
- B6.
- C8.
- D10.
11How many bits are within an internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?
- A32.
- B64.
- C128.
- D256.
12Which class of internet protocol (IP) addresses is only used for experimental purposes?
- AB.
- BC.
- CD.
- DE.
13Which internet protocol (IP) address is used for limited broadcasts?
- Ax.x.x.0.
- Bx.x.x.255.
- C127.x.x.x.
- D255.255.255.255.
14The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP) that are used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a
- Amask.
- Bsubnet.
- Chierarchy.
- Drouting prefix.
15Which protocol does the Internet support as the "language" computers use to find and connect with each other?
- AUser datagram protocol (UDP).
- BHypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)
- CDynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
- DTransmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
16Which transmission control protocol (TCP) port is used by hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) by default?
- A50.
- B80.
- C5050.
- D8080.
17Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) based network?
- AInternet protocol (IP).
- BHypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).
- CTransmission control protocol (TCP).
- DDynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
18A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as
- Aa port.
- Ba protocol.
- Ca service point.
- Dan entrance point.
19Which port range constitutes well-known ports?
- A0 to 1023
- B1024 to 23535
- C23536 to 49151
- D49152 to 65535
20Which port is used for telnet?
- A7.
- B20.
- C23.
- D53.
21Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?
- A21.
- B22.
- C60.
- D80.
22In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same port on more than one machine?
- AStrobe scan.
- BSweep scan.
- CFragment packet scan.
- DFile Transfer protocol (FTP) bounce scan.
23Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?
- AFragment packets.
- BSynchronous (SYN) scan.
- CUser datagram protocol (UDP) scan.
- DTransmission control protocol (TCP) scan.
24Which organization is responsible for developing Air Force ports, protocols and services (PPS) policies and procedures?
- AAir Force Network Operations (AFNetOps).
- BAir Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC)
- CAir Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
- DAir Force Information, Services and Integration Directorate (SAF/XCIA)
25How is an Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address written?
- AEight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.
- BEight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by periods.
- CFour groups of eight hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.
- DFour groups of eight hexadecimal numbers, separated by periods.
26Which type of transition technology is used to set up secure point-to-point communication?
- ATunneling.
- BDual layer.
- CDual stack.
- DPeer-to-peer.
27Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while
- Ainstalling all applicable security patches.
- Bcreating continuity throughout the network.
- Cminimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.
- Dkeeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.
28Administrators must be in the habit of doing what to make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors?
- AInstalling all applicable security patches.
- BCreating continuity throughout the network.
- CMinimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.
- DKeeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.
29Which is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard?
- A802.11a.
- B802.11b.
- C802.11g.
- D802.11n.
30What is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available?
- A802.11a.
- B802.11b.
- C802.11g.
- D802.11n.
31Which wireless standard was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?
- AWiFi protected access (WPA).
- BWired equivalency privacy (WEP).
- CWireless local area network (WLAN).
- DWireless wide area network (WWAN).
32Defense-in-depth is the Department of Defense (DoD) approach for establishing
- Aan adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.
- Ban adequate IA posture in the AF environment.
- Ca federal desktop configuration.
- Da federal server configuration.
33What is assigned to all Department of Defense (DoD) information systems that is directly associated with the importance of the information contained relative to achieving DoD goals and objectives?
- ASecure locations.
- BSystem classification.
- CDefense-in-depth code.
- DMission assurance category.
34Which of the following is not a result of initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users?
- AUsers are aware of their role in IA.
- BUsers are trained on network security.
- CUsers have met investigative requirements.
- DUsers have satisfied network access requirements.
35Who is the approval authority for foreign nationals to access unclassified systems?
- AWing commander.
- BWing information assurance officer (WIAO).
- CAF Network Operations (AFNETOPS) commander.
- DAF Network Operations Center (AFNOC) commander.
36Who initiates a local files check prior to allowing volunteers access to the AF network?
- AUnit commander.
- BUnit security manager.
- CInformation system security officer (ISSO).
- DWing information system security office (WISSO).
37The definition of integrity as it's applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is
- Ahaving information ready when needed.
- Bnot being able to deny who performed network actions.
- Cthe protection of the network from those not authorized access.
- Dthe assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
38Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with at least what type of secure socket layer?
- A32-bit.
- B64-bit.
- C128-bit.
- D256-bit.
39Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?
- ADigital.
- BBiometric.
- CEncryption.
- DIdentification.
40What does the common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provide?
- AIntegrity.
- BAvailability.
- CConfidentiality.
- DNon-repudiation.
41The contract manager must use what agency to validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate?
- AWing (WG).
- BAir Force (AF).
- CDepartment of Defense (DoD).
- DLocal Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).
42Which of the following represents a strong password?
- A1234!@#$asAShi.
- BP@ssw0rd123456.
- Cwsob^@49fg91*hd
- DGwL18!np*Z&fB3q.
43Which category of information must be stored on removable media?
- AClassified.
- BUnclassified.
- CSensitive but unclassified.
- DFor official use only (FOUO).
44Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given which type of access?
- AEnd-user.
- BRemote user.
- CAdministrative.
- DLimited (general).
45Which device provides the initial entry point into a network?
- ARouter.
- BFirewall.
- CProxy server.
- DNetwork access server.
46Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered
- Athreats.
- Bexploits.
- Cvulnerabilities.
- Dbreaches of security.
47Which of the following options is not involved when securing a UNIX system?
- AShutting down ports.
- BUsing strong passwords.
- CEnsuring remote access.
- DDisabling unused/unneeded services.
48Which UNIX command allows remote logins?
- Arsh.
- Btelnet.
- Cfinger.
- DFile transfer protocol (FTP).
49When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and other products, Microsoft releases
- Anotices.
- Bpostings.
- Cbulletins.
- Dannouncements.
50A companion file virus is one that
- Awrites itself before the original file.
- Bwrites itself to the end of the original file.
- Cwrites itself between file sections of a 32-bit file.
- Drenames the original file and writes itself with the original file's name.
51A program that contains or installs a malicious program is called a
- Aboot sector virus.
- Bworm program.
- CTrojan horse.
- Dmacro virus.
52The two fundamental concepts of network security are
- Aauthorization and confidentiality.
- Bauthentication and authorization.
- Cconfidentiality and integrity.
- Dauthorization and integrity.
53An incident in which an unauthorized person gained user-level privileges on an Air Force computer, information system, or network device is considered category
- AI.
- BII.
- CIV.
- DVII.
54An incident in which an Air Force computer, information system, or network was denied use due to an overwhelming volume of unauthorized network traffic is category
- AI.
- BII.
- CIV.
- DVII.
55When classified information is inadvertently sent through unclassified e-mail it is considered
- Aan e-mail incident.
- Ba message incident.
- Ca classified e-mail incident.
- Da classified message incident.
56Who tracks Air Force information condition (INFOCON) status to ensure directed actions are accomplished in a timely manner?
- AMajor commands.
- BDirect reporting units.
- CField operating agencies.
- DAir Force network operating center network control division.
57Continuity of operations plans (COOP) are not used in which of the following situations?
- AAccidents.
- BMan-made disasters.
- CHealth related incidents.
- DOperating system failure.
58What determines the number of alternate information assurance officers (IAO) in an organization?
- ANumber of information systems.
- BNumber of personnel assigned.
- CType of organization.
- DMission need.
59What is the minimum grade requirement for an information assurance assessment and assistance program (IAAP) team chief?
- ANCO.
- BSNCO.
- CGS-07.
- DGS-09.
60Which agency conducts assessments of wing information assurance (IA) programs using an AF Form 4170 every two years or sooner?
- AWings (WG).
- BSquadrons (SG).
- CMajor commands (MAJCOM).
- DHeadquarters Air Force Network Integration Center (HQ AFNIC).
61Which form is used to annotate that storage media from an information system has been cleared?
- ASF 700.
- BSF 702.
- CSF 703.
- DSF 711.
62When sanitizing sealed disks with a degausser, what percentage of the overwritten information should be randomly reread to confirm only the overwritten characters are recovered?
- A1.
- B3.
- C5.
- D10.
63Where are thermal transfer and dye sublimation cartridges sent for sanitization?
- ACommunications squadron (CS).
- BNational Security Agency (NSA).
- CGeneral Services Administration (GSA).
- DWing Information Assurance Office (WIAO).
64How many times should you wipe each active surface of the media being degaussed when using a degaussing wand?
- A2.
- B3.
- C4.
- D5.
65How often must a degausser be recertified during its first 2 years of operation?
- AEvery 3 months.
- BEvery 6 months.
- CEvery 12 months.
- DOnly once during the first two years.
66How many years are the records of destruction of a hard drive maintained?
- A1.
- B3.
- C5.
- D7.
67When overwriting hard drives, you must examine no less than what percentage of all overwritten hard drives to verify the overwriting process?
- A10.
- B20.
- C50.
- D70.
68Which standard form (SF) label is used as a data descriptor label?
- ASF 701.
- BSF 706.
- CSF 710.
- DSF 711.
69Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon and prohibit the use of government owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks?
- AMajor command (MAJCOM).
- BWing (WG) commander.
- COfficer in charge (OIC).
- DAuthorizing officials.
70Which standard form (SF) is used to record the opening and closing of security containers?
- ASF 700.
- BSF 702.
- CSF 704.
- DSF 705
71Personnel removing top secret material from storage must use
- Aan Air Force (AF) Form 144.
- Ba Standard Form (SF) 704.
- Ca SF 705.
- Da SF 706.
72An installation commander can authorize keeping which classification types on the flight line for in-transit storage?
- ASecret and top secret.
- BConfidential and secret.
- CUnclassified and confidential.
- DAll classifications may be kept on the flight line.
73Which term identifies any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?
- ATEMPEST.
- BBLACK.
- CEMSEC.
- DRED.
74A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters is considered to be in facility zone
- AA.
- BB.
- CC.
- DD.
75Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters is considered to be in equipment zone
- AA.
- BB.
- CC.
- DD.
76What type of equipment is used for acquisition, storage and manipulation of voice and data?
- ASystem equipment.
- BCryptographic equipment.
- CCommunications equipment.
- DInformation technology equipment.
77Who is the installation's focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters?
- AWing commander.
- BInformation security system manager (ISPM).
- CWing information assurance office (WIAO).
- DCommunications and information system officer (CSO).
78An emission security (EMSEC) manager documents an EMSEC assessment on
- AAF Form 4170.
- BAF Form 6170.
- CStandard Form 700.
- DStandard Form 701.
79Once it is filled out an AF Form 4170, Emission Security Assessments/Emission Security Countermeasures, is considered
- Asecret.
- Btop secret.
- Cunclassified.
- Dconfidential.
80How many steps are in the risk management framework process?
- A4.
- B5.
- C6.
- D7.
81What type of impact occurs when the loss of confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) could be expected to have a serious adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or people?
- ALow.
- BModerate.
- CHigh.
- DExtreme.
82In which information assurance control must an organization ensure individual information system user actions can be traced to the user?
- ARisk Assessment (RA).
- BPersonnel Security (PS).
- CAudit and Accountability (AU).
- DSystem and Information Integrity (SI).
83How many steps are in the system development life cycle?
- A4.
- B5.
- C6.
- D8.
84In which phase of the Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP) do you initiate and plan for certification and accreditation (C&A)?
- AI.
- BII.
- CIII.
- DIV.
85What is the minimum rank the AF Information Network (AFIN) connection approval can be delegated to?
- AMajor General (O-8).
- BBrigadier General (O-7).
- CColonel (O-6).
- DLieutenant Colonel (O-5).
86Who is the connection approval authority for mission assurance category I (MAC I) systems?
- AAF Network Operations (AFNETOPS) commander.
- BAF Network Integration Center (AFNIC) commander.
- CWing communications and information systems officer (CSO).
- DMAJCOM communications and information systems officer (CSO)
87Integrated Network Operations Security Centers (I-NOSC) use security and network monitoring tools to do all of the following except
- Arestore systems.
- Bmonitor network health.
- Cidentify system vulnerabilities.
- Dreview contents of fixed disks.
88Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts are controlled and are only released with the approval of the
- AWing commander (WG).
- BMajor command (MAJCOM) commander.
- CAir Force network operations center (AFNOC).
- DAir Force office of Special Investigation (AFOSI).
89Which of the following is not a phase in the information technology (IT) Lean reengineering process?
- ADesign.
- BDefine need.
- CBuild and test.
- DDefine need review.
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- CDCs Quiz on 3D053 V1, created by Leonard Jeral on 06/05/2020.
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- Leonard Jeral
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