Quiz
Security Certification
Create a free account to finish this quiz
Save your progress and see your final score.
Already have an account? Sign in
Questions in this quiz (100)
1Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated device for managing secure connections established over an untrusted network, such as the Internet?
- ALoad balancer
- BVPN concentrator
- CSpam filter
- DWeb server
2Which of the following acronyms refers to a network or host based monitoring system designed to automatically alert administrators of known or suspected unauthorized activity?
- AIDS
- BAES
- CTPM
- DEFS
3A software tool used to monitor and examine contents of network traffic is known as: (Select all that apply)
- APort scanner
- BPacket sniffer
- CVulnerability scanner
- DProtocol analyzer
4Which of the following acronyms refers to a network security solution combining the functionality of a firewall with additional safeguards such as URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection?
- AMTU
- BSTP
- CUTM
- DXML
5Which of the following network security solutions inspects network traffic in real-time and has the capability to stop the ongoing attack?
- ANIPS
- BHIDS
- CHIPS
- DNIST
6Which of the following actions can be taken by passive IDS? (Select 2 answers)
- AReconfiguring firewall
- BClosing down connection
- CLogging
- DTerminating process
- ESending an alert
7Which of the following answers refers to a set of rules that specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects as well as what operations are allowed on a given object?
- ACRL
- BNAT
- CBCP
- DACL
8Which type of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) relies on the previously established baseline of normal network activity in order to detect intrusions?
- ASignature-based
- BURL filter
- CAnomaly-based
- DACL
9802.1x is an IEEE standard defining:
- AToken ring networks
- BPort-based network access control
- CVLAN tagging
- DWireless networking
10Which of the following security solutions provides a countermeasure against denial-of-service attack characterized by increasing number of half-open connections?
- AFlood guard
- BMAC filter
- CHoneypot
- DPort scanner
11Which of the following protocols protects against switching loops?
- AUTP
- BSSH
- CSTP
- DHMAC
12Which type of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) relies on known attack patterns to detect an intrusion?
- ALoad balancer
- BSignature-based
- CProtocol analyzer
- DAnomaly-based
13A lightly protected subnet placed on the outside of the company's firewall consisting of publicly available servers is known as:
- AVPN
- BAccess Point (AP)
- CVLAN
- DDMZ
14Which of the following acronyms refers to a solution allowing companies to cut costs related to managing of internal calls?
- APBX
- BPOTS
- CP2P
- DPSTN
15Which security measure is in place when a client is denied access to the network due to outdated antivirus software?
- ANAC
- BDMZ
- CVLAN
- DNAT
16Which of the following solutions is used to hide the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device?
- ANAC
- BACL
- CNAT
- DDMZ
17In which of the cloud computing infrastructure types clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment?
- AIaaS
- BSaaS
- CP2P
- DPaaS
18Which of the following cloud service types would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?
- ASaaS
- BAPI
- CPaaS
- DIaaS
19A cloud computing infrastructure type where applications are hosted over a network (typically Internet) eliminating the need to install and run the software on the customer's own computers is called:
- AThick client
- BSaaS
- CVirtualization
- DIaaS
20Which of the following protocols is used in network management systems for monitoring network- attached devices?
- ARTP
- BSNMP
- CIMAP
- DRTS
21Which of the protocols listed below is used by the PING utility?
- ATLS
- BSNMP
- CFCoE
- DICMP
22FTP runs by default on ports: (Select 2 answers)
- A25
- B23
- C20
- D21
- E22
23Which of the following protocols run(s) on port number 22? (Select all that apply)
- AFTP
- BSSH
- CSMTP
- DSCP
- ESFTP
24Port number 23 is used by:
- ASMTP
- BSSH
- CTelnet
- DTFTP
25Which of the following TCP ports is used by SMTP?
- A25
- B53
- C80
- D23
26Which of the following ports enable(s) retrieving email messages from a remote server? (Select all that apply)
- A80
- B139
- C110
- D443
- E143
27Which of the following answers lists the default port number for a Microsoft-proprietary remote connection protocol?
- A139
- B443
- C3389
- D53
28Which of the following wireless encryption schemes offers the highest level of protection?
- AWEP
- BWPA2
- CWAP
- DWPA
29A network access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network is known as:
- AEMI shielding
- BHardware lock
- CMAC filter
- DQuality of Service (QoS)
30Disabling SSID broadcast:
- AIs one of the measures used for securing networks
- BMakes a WLAN harder to discover
- CBlocks access to WAP
- DPrevents wireless clients from accessing the network
31AES-based encryption mode implemented in WPA2 is known as:
- ACCMP
- BTPM
- CTKIP
- DMTBF
32Which of the following WAP configuration settings allows for adjusting the boundary range of the wireless signal?
- ABeacon frame
- BPower level controls
- CQuality of Service (QoS)
- DMAC filtering
33Which of the following answers refers to a solution allowing administrators to block Internet access for users until they perform required action?
- AAccess logs
- BMantrap
- CPost-admission NAC
- DCaptive portal
34An antivirus software identifying non-malicious file as a virus due to faulty virus signature file is an example of:
- AFault tolerance
- BFalse positive error
- CIncident isolation
- DFalse negative error
35Which of the following terms refers to a situation where no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place?
- AFalse negative
- BTrue positive
- CFalse positive
- DTrue negative
36A policy outlining ways of collecting and managing personal data is known as:
- AAcceptable use policy
- BAudit policy
- CPrivacy policy
- DData loss prevention
37Which of the following acronyms refers to a set of rules enforced in a network that restrict the use to which the network may be put?
- AOEM
- BAUP
- CUAT
- DARO
38One of the goals behind the mandatory vacations policy is to mitigate the occurrence of fraudulent activity within the company.
- ATrue
- BFalse
39Which of the following answers refers to a concept of having more than one person required to complete a given task?
- AAcceptable use policy
- BPrivacy policy
- CMultifactor authentication
- DSeparation of duties
40A security rule that prevents users from accessing information and resources that lie beyond the scope of their responsibilities is known as:
- AOrder of volatility
- BPrinciple of least privilege
- CPrivacy policy
- DSingle sign-on
41Which of the following acronyms refers to a risk assessment formula defining probable financial loss due to a risk over a one-year period?
- AARO
- BALE
- CSLE
- DUAT
42Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF)
The Exposure Factor (EF) used in the formula above refers to the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost when a specific threat is realized. Which of the following answers lists the correct EF value for an asset that is entirely lost?- A0
- B100
- C1.0
- D0.1
43Contracting out a specialized technical component when the company's employees lack the necessary skills is an example of:
- ARisk deterrence
- BRisk avoidance
- CRisk acceptance
- DRisk transference
44Disabling certain system functions or shutting down the system when risks are identified is an example of:
- ARisk acceptance
- BRisk avoidance
- CRisk transference
- DRisk deterrence
45What type of risk management strategy is in place when accessing the network involves a login banner warning designed to inform potential attacker of the likelihood of getting caught?
- ARisk avoidance
- BRisk acceptance
- CRisk deterrence
- DRisk transference
46Which of the following terms refers to one of the hardware-related disadvantages of the virtualization technology?
- ASingle point of failure
- BServer clustering
- CPrivilege escalation
- DPower and cooling costs
47An agreement between a service provider and the user(s) defining the nature, availability, quality, and scope of the service to be provided is known as:
- ASLE
- BBPA
- CSLA
- DDLP
48A document established between two or more parties to define their respective responsibilities in accomplishing a particular goal or mission is known as:
- ABPA
- BMOU
- CSLE
- DISA
49Which of the following answers refers to an agreement established between the organizations that own and operate connected IT systems to document the technical requirements of the interconnection?
- AISA
- BALE
- CMOU
- DBPA
50In forensic procedures, a sequence of steps in which different types of evidence should be collected is known as:
- AOrder of volatility
- BLayered security
- CChain of custody
- DTransitive access
51In forensic procedures, a chronological record outlining persons in possession of an evidence is referred to as:
- AProxy list
- BOrder of volatility
- CAccess log
- DChain of custody
52Taking hashes ensures that data retains its:
- AConfidentiality
- BIntegrity
- COrder of volatility
- DAvailability
53A sticky note with a password kept on sight in user's cubicle would be a violation of which of the following policies?
- AData labeling policy
- BClean desk policy
- CUser account policy
- DPassword complexity
54Which of the following security controls is used to prevent tailgating?
- AHardware locks
- BMantraps
- CVideo surveillance
- DEMI shielding
55Zero-day attack exploits:
- ANew accounts
- BPatched software
- CVulnerability that is present in already released software but unknown to the software developer
- DWell known vulnerability
56Which of the following solutions provide(s) availability? (Select all that apply)
- ARAID 5
- BRAID 0
- CEncryption
- DRAID 1
- EHot site
57Hardware-based RAID Level 0: (Select 2 answers)
- AOffers redundancy
- BRequires at least three drives to implement
- CDoesn't offer fault tolerance
- DRequires at least two drives to implement
- EOffers fault tolerance
58In a differential backup strategy, restoring data from backup requires only a working copy of the last full backup.
- ATrue
- BFalse
59A United States federal government initiative aimed at enabling agencies to continue their essential functions across a broad spectrum of emergencies is known as:
- AOVAL
- BTACACS
- CCOOP
- DOCSP
60Which of the following security controls provides confidentiality?
- ACCTV
- BEncryption
- CDigital signatures
- DHashing
61Steganography allows for:
- AChecking data integrity
- BCalculating hash values
- CHiding data within another piece of data
- DData encryption
62Which of the following security controls provide(s) integrity? (Select all that apply)
- AHashing
- BFault tolerance
- CDigital signatures
- DNon-repudiation
- EEncryption
63What is the purpose of non-repudiation?
- AHiding one piece of data in another piece of data
- BEnsuring that received data hasn't changed in transit
- CPreventing someone from denying that they have taken specific action
- DTransforming plaintext into ciphertext
64Which of the following answers refers to a general term used to describe software designed specifically to damage or disrupt the operation of a computer system?
- AAdware
- BSpyware
- CSpam
- DMalware
65What is adware?
- AUnsolicited or undesired electronic messages
- BMalicious program that sends copies of itself to other computers on the network
- CSoftware that displays advertisements
- DMalicious software that collects information about users without their knowledge
66A computer program containing malicious segment that attaches itself to an application program or other executable component is called:
- AAdware
- BVirus
- CSpam
- DFlash cookie
67Malicious software collecting information about users without their knowledge/consent is called:
- ALogic bomb
- BAdware
- CComputer worm
- DSpyware
68Which of the following answers refers to malicious software performing unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program?
- ATrojan horse
- BSpyware
- CLogic bomb
- DAdware
69A collection of software tools used by a hacker in order to mask intrusion and obtain administrator- level access to a computer or computer network is known as:
- ABackdoor
- BBotnet
- CRootkit
- DArmored virus
70Which of the following answers refers to an undocumented way of gaining access to a program, online service or an entire computer system?
- ATailgating
- BRootkit
- CTrojan horse
- DBackdoor
71Malicious code activated by a specific event is known as:
- ALogic bomb
- BSpyware
- CTrojan horse
- DArmored virus
72A group of computers running malicious software under control of a hacker is referred to as:
- AIntranet
- BBotnet
- CEthernet
- DSubnet
73Malware that restricts access to a computer system by encrypting files or locking the entire system down until the user performs requested action is known as:
- AGrayware
- BAdware
- CRansomware
- DSpyware
74The process by which malicious software changes its underlying code to avoid detection is called:
- AFuzzing
- BPolymorphism
- CPharming
- DSpoofing
75A type of virus that takes advantage of various mechanisms specifically designed to make tracing, disassembling and reverse engineering its code more difficult is known as:
- AArmored virus
- BRootkit
- CLogic bomb
- DBackdoor
76Which of the following is an example of active eavesdropping?
- APhishing
- BDDoS
- CXmas attack
- DMITM
77Which of the following attacks uses multiple compromised computer systems against its target? (Select best answer)
- ASpear phishing
- BDoS
- CWatering hole attack
- DDDoS
78A replay attack occurs when an attacker intercepts user credentials and tries to use this information later for gaining unauthorized access to resources on a network.
- ATrue
- BFalse
79Which of the following authentication protocols offer(s) countermeasures against replay attacks? (Select all that apply)
- ANTP
- BPAP
- CKerberos
- DCHAP
80An email sent from unknown source disguised as a source known to the message receiver is an example of:
- ASpoofing
- BShoulder surfing
- CBackdoor
- DBirthday attack
81Which of the following answers apply to smurf attack? (Select 3 answers)
- AIP spoofing
- BPrivilege escalation
- CDDoS
- DPolymorphic malware
- EOrder of volatility
- FLarge amount of ICMP echo replies
82URL hijacking is also referred to as:
- ASession hijacking
- BSandboxing
- CTypo squatting
- DShoulder surfing
83What is tailgating?
- ALooking over someone's shoulder in order to get information
- BScanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a car
- CManipulating
- DGaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person
84Which of the following terms refers to a rogue access point?
- AComputer worm
- BBackdoor
- CEvil twin
- DTrojan horse
85The practice of sending unsolicited messages over Bluetooth is known as:
- AVishing
- BBluejacking
- CPhishing
- DBluesnarfing
86Gaining unauthorized access to a Bluetooth device is referred to as:
- AXmas attack
- BBluesnarfing
- CBluejacking
- DPharming
87A monitored host or network specifically designed to detect unauthorized access attempts is known as:
- ABotnet
- BRogue access point
- CHoneypot
- DFlood guard
88Penetration testing: (Select all that apply)
- ABypasses security controls
- BOnly identifies lack of security controls
- CActively tests security controls
- DExploits vulnerabilities
- EPassively tests security controls
89Finding vulnerability in an application by feeding it incorrect input is known as:
- APatching
- BException handling
- CApplication hardening
- DFuzzing
90The term Trusted OS refers to an operating system:
- AAdmitted to a network through NAC
- BImplementing patch management
- CThat has been authenticated on the network
- DWith enhanced security features
91Which of the following acronyms refers to a microchip embedded on the motherboard of a personal computer or laptop that can store keys, passwords and digital certificates?
- AFRU
- BEFS
- CTPM
- DHCL
92An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is known as:
- ASSO
- BTLS
- CSSL
- DWAP
93Which of the following is an example of a multi-factor authentication?
- APassword and biometric scan
- BUser name and PIN
- CSmart card and identification badge
- DIris and fingerprint scan
94Which of the following technologies simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network?
- AWPA
- BWPS
- CWEP
- DWAP
95Penetration test with the prior knowledge on how the system that is to be tested works is known as:
- AWhite hat
- BSandbox
- CWhite box
- DBlack box
96The practice of finding vulnerability in an application by feeding it incorrect input is referred to as:
- APatching
- BException handling
- CApplication hardening
- DFuzzing
97Which of the following answers refers to a stream cipher?
- ADES
- BAES
- CRC4
- D3DES
98Which of the following solutions would be the fastest in validating digital certificates?
- AIPX
- BOCSP
- CCRL
- DOSPF
99Copies of lost private encryption keys can be retrieved from a key database by:
- APower users
- BRecovery agents
- CGPS tracking
- DBackup operators
100What is the name of a storage solution used to retain copies of private encryption keys?
- ATrusted OS
- BKey escrow
- CProxy
- DRecovery agent
Information
- Description
- Quiz on Security Certification, created by sosa_savannah on 17/05/2016.
- Author
- sosa_savannah
- Language
- English
- Views
- 0
- Rating
- No ratings yet Rate this quiz