Quiz
PPL ***
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Questions in this quiz (100)
1NOTAM "A" contains information regarding operation of?
- AInternational
- BDomestic
- CIFR
- DAll answers are correct
2Which part of AIP contains the information about "airspace classification"
- AENR 3
- BENR 1
- CGEN 3
- DGEN 1
3What is the speed limitation for IFR flights within class "D" airspace below 10,000 ft AMSL?
- A250 KT IAS.
- B260 KT IAS.
- C250 KT TAS.
- D260 KT TAS.
4ICAO personnel licensing rules and regulations are contained in Annex _____ to the Chicago Convention.
- A17
- B9
- C14
- D1
5All flights before entering Iran ADIZ (Tehran FIR) are required to contact the appropriate air defense radar station on ……….…… or ……………, at least 10 minutes prior to entering Tehran FIR.
- A121.500 MHz – 243.000 MHz
- B121.000 MHz – 243.000 MHz
- C127.000 MHz – 135.000 MHz
- D127.800 MHz – 135.100 MHz
6Which statement is not correct about effect of increase weight on an aircraft performance?
- AIncrease service ceiling
- BIncrease Takeoff distance
- CDecrease climb performance
- DDecrease acceleration
7“Landing distance" is measure from …………... .
- A35’ height above threshold of landing surface
- B50’ height above threshold of landing surface
- C60’ height above threshold of landing surface
- D70’ height above threshold of landing surface
8(Refer to figure P-07) Determine the fuel, time and distance for a normal climb from an airport at sea level to a pressure altitude of 8000 feet? OAT: 29 °C (at departing airport) Weight: 3700 pounds.
- A12 minutes, 24 pounds and 23 NM.
- B14.4 minutes, 28.8 pounds and 27.6 NM.
- C14.4 minutes, 42 pounds and 27.6 NM.
- D14.4 minutes, 44.8 pounds and 27.6 NM.
9An aircraft is coming in from the left. Which light will you see first?
- ASteady red.
- BSteady green.
- CFlashing green.
- DWhite.
10For which type of operation, the advisory service may be provided?
- AControlled IFR
- BSVFR
- CCVFR
- DIFR
11Who is responsible to publish AIP:
- AOperator
- BState
- CICAO
- DATS authority
12Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under condition specified by air traffic control unit, is:
- AATC clearance
- BFlight permission number
- CControlled clearance
- DFlight clearance
13……….…… is provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue service.
- AAdvisory service.
- BAlerting service.
- CArea control service.
- DSurveillance service.
14The vertical position of the aircraft during climb is expressed in terms of ………. until reaching the transition altitude.
- AHeight.
- BAltitude.
- CFlight level.
- DElevation.
15What is the minimum height of VFR, over congested area?
- A500 ft
- B1000 ft
- C1500 ft
- D2000 ft
16IMC is a meteorological condition....................
- AEqual to VMC
- BLess than minima for VMC
- CMore than minima for VMC
- DB and C are correct
17Cruising level is a level maintained during:
- AFlight time.
- BFlight duty time.
- CSignificant portion of flight.
- DTake-off or landing.
18Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight?
- ASPECI
- BATIS
- CSIGMENT
- DTAF
19The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL050. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6°C?
- AFL110
- BFL020
- CFL100
- DFL080
20Which of the following items are used in TREND?
- ABECMG
- BTEMPO
- CFM
- DA & B & C are correct
21In a forecast what does the code "SG" stand for?
- ASevere icing
- BSnow grains
- CHail
- DEmbedded thunderstorm with hail
22Flight recorder comprises:
- ACockpit voice recorder
- BFlight data recorder
- CA or B
- DA and B
23Which equipment is able to warn a pilot regarding to excessive altitude loss after take-off or go-around?
- ARadar altimeter
- BGPWS
- CRadio altimeter.
- DADS.
24The instruments and equipment, including their installation in aeroplanes shall be approved or accepted by:
- AState of Operator
- BOperator
- CState
- DState of Registry
25How many times, the distress signal may be transmitted?
- A2 Times
- B3 Times
- CAt least 2 times
- DAt least 3 times
26You are making a long straight in approach to land, at what range would you make the call "LONG FINAL"?
- A2 NM
- B4 NM
- CBetween 8 and 4 NM
- D3 NM
27What does the phrase "BREAKBREAK" mean?
- AThe exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.
- BIt indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.
- CIt indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.
- DMy transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
28Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category of:
- AFlight safety message
- BFlight regularity messages
- CService messages.
- DClass B messages.
29The area up to displaced threshold is used for:
- ATaxiing, takeoff roll.
- BTakeoff and landing only.
- CLanding and taxiing only.
- DTaxiing, takeoff and landing.
30(Refer to figure P-33) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on:
- ARunway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
- BRunway 22 directly into the wind.
- CRunway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
- DRunway 04 directly into the wind.
31(Refer to figure P-39) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
- A(Refer to figure P-39) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
- BMiddle yellow.
- CBottom yellow
- DB & C are correct.
32Which of the following statements regarding Mode S is incorrect?
- AMode S is used to assist in GPS calculations.
- BData transmission and exchange is conducted in mode S.
- CMode S transponders reduced RT traffic and also provide the aircraft with the data link facility.
- DA mode S interrogator, when installed, will also collect data from old mode A and C transponders.
33During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
- AThe other aircraft is crossing to the left.
- BThe other aircraft is crossing to the right.
- CThe other aircraft is approaching head-on.
- DThe other aircraft is flying away from you.
34“A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of takeoff run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned takeoff” is the definition for:
- ARunway strip.
- BRunway end safety area.
- CStopway.
- DClearway.
35You are required to uplift 40 US Gallons of AVGAS with specific gravity of 0.72. How many liters and kilograms is this?
- A109 liters, 151 kg.
- B182 liters, 131 kg.
- C182 liters, 289 kg.
- D151 liters, 109 kg.
36A descent is planned from FL340 so as to arrive at FL100 at a distance 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a G/S of 280 kts and a rate of descent of 1200 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:
- A65 NM
- B99 NM
- C27 NM
- D93 NM
37TAS: 95 kts, G/S:87 kts, TC:105°, TH:85°, Find wind direction and velocity
- A020°, 32 kts
- B032°, 20 kts
- C038°, 20 kts
- D020°, 39 kts
38Given: Calibrated Air Speed: 410 kts / P.A: 22,000 ft / Indicated Air Temperature: 20 °C / CT: 1.0 Find True Air Speed.
- A764
- B462
- C664
- D561
39Given: Pressure Altitude: 36,000 ft / Outside Air Temperature: - 40 °C . Find the density altitude.
- A36,200 ft
- B35,300 ft
- C35,800 ft
- D37,300 ft
40Given: Fuel flow: 6.5 t/hr / Specific gravity: 0.80 / Mach number: 0.68 / OAT: -30°C / Headwind component: 25 kts . What is the specific fuel consumption?
- A16.7 kg/NM air distance.
- B13.4 kg/NM ground distance.
- C13.4 kg/NM air distance.
- D16.7 kg/NM ground distance.
41Given: TAS: 465 kts / HDG: 124° (T) / W/V: 170°/80 Kts . Calculate the drift and ground speed.
- A8°L - 415 kts.
- B3°L - 415 kts.
- C3°R - 400 kts.
- D8°R - 400 kts.
42Given: Course: 040° (T) / TAS: 120 kts / Wind speed: 30 kts . Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of:
- A120
- B145
- C115
- D130
43Given: Variation: 7 °W / Deviation: 4 °E / If the aircraft is flying a compass heading of 270°, the true and magnetic headings are:
- A274°(T); 267°(M).
- B267°(T); 274°(M).
- C277°(T); 281°(M).
- D263°(T); 259°(M)
44A fuel amount of 160 US Gal allows endurance of 3 hrs 10 min with a light twin engine piston aircraft. What is the corresponding fuel flow per engine?
- A25.3 US Gal/hr
- B50.5 US Gal/hr
- C51.6 US Gal/hr
- D25.8 US Gal/hr
4511,000 meters equals to ……………… feet.
- A35,090
- B36,090
- C3,590
- D3,690
46What is hypoxia?
- AA state characterized by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment of the mask.
- BThe total absence of oxygen in the air.
- CThe respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness.
- DAny condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition.
47The effect of hypoxia to vision:
- ACan only be detected when smoking tobacco.
- BIs usual stronger on the cones
- CIs stronger on the rods.
- DDoes not depend on the level of illumination.
48Breathing large amounts of carbon monoxide can result in:
- AA warm sensation.
- BLoss of muscle power.
- CAn increased sense of well-being.
- DTightness across the forehead and neck.
49Signs of stress include:
- APerspiration, dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
- BLowering of the blood pressure.
- CFaster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
- DRising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.
50Two commonly used stimulant drugs that are not prohibited by ICAOs are ………….………. and ………………… .
- AAlcohol , Drugs.
- BNicotine, Caffeine.
- CAmphetamines, Caffeine.
- DDrugs. Nicotine.
51The sensory organ(s) in the inner ear responsible for vestibular sense is (are) the:
- AUtricle
- BSaccule
- CSemicircular canals.
- DSemicircular canals, vestibule (static organ).
52……………………….. drugs generally excite the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity.
- ADepressant
- BStimulant
- CTranquilizer
- DAnesthetic
53Which of the following speed is marked by specific color in airspeed indicator?
- AVS1
- BVLE
- CVLO
- DVA
54When density altitude is equal to pressure altitude?
- AIn non-standard temperature
- BStandard temperature
- CStandard atmosphere
- DStandard pressure
55In pressurize airplane the main static port be clogged and the pitot use alternate static port, the airspeed, and VVI may be....
- ALower, climb
- BLower, descend
- CHigher, climb
- DHigher, descend
56The ball of inclinometer in turn coordinator is:
- ABalance indicator
- BQuality of turn
- CCoordinate use of aileron & rudder
- DAll answers are correct
57Which principle of gyro does allow the turn coordinator gyro to sense rate of turn and rate of roll?
- APrecision
- BRigidity
- CA or B
- DA and B
58In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally, indicate initially a turn toward the west if:
- AA left turn is entered from a north heading.
- BA right Turn is entered from a north heading.
- CAn aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
- DAn aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
59The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is:
- AHigher than the real altitude.
- BLower than the real altitude.
- CEqual to the standard altitude.
- DThe same .as the real altitude.
60A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:
- AOver-read.
- BUnder-read.
- CIndication will drop to zero.
- DFreeze on the value it indicated at the time of failure.
61When executing a turn by 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic Artificial Horizon (air-driven) indicates:
- ANose up and correct angle of bank.
- BAttitude and bank angle are correct.
- CNose up and bank angle too low.
- DNose up and bank angle too high.
62The deviation of a compass is described as +4°. This means that:
- AThe deviation may be described as westerly.
- BCompass heading will always be different by 4 degrees from true heading.
- CThe compass heading will have a lower number in degrees than the magnetic heading.
- DThe compass needle seems to be pointing at a pole located west of the magnetic pole.
63Given: Weight D 160 lbs at 45" aft of datum / Weight E 170 lbs at 145" aft of datum / Weight F 150 lbs at 185" aft of datum / Based on this information where would the CG be located?
- A86.0" aft of datum
- B117.8" aft of datum
- C124.2" aft of datum
- D136.7" aft of datum
64How much weight must be removed from station 130.0" to place CG at station 89.0"? Total weight 5100 lbs / CG location station 90.0"
- A124.4 pounds
- B122.2 pounds
- C127.5 pounds
- D128.2 pounds
65By adding the payload to the Dry operating weight, we get:
- ARamp weight.
- BTakeoff weight.
- CZero fuel weight.
- DLanding weight.
66The Payload is defined as:
- AThe Total Mass of flight crew, passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel.
- BThe Total Mass of crew and passengers excluding any baggage or cargo.
- CThe Total Mass of passengers, baggage and cargo.
- DThe Total Mass of passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel.
67The QNH at an airfield located 200 meters above sea level is 1022 Hpa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
- ALess than 1022 Hpa.
- BIt is not possible to give a definitive answer.
- CMore than 1022 Hpa.
- D1022 Hpa.
68One of the characteristic of the tropopause is?
- AAbrupt change in temperature laps rate
- BAbrupt change in visibility
- CAbrupt change in wind direction
- DAbrupt change in type of cloud
69what is the approximately indicated altitude would you expect to find the bases of cumulus clouds if the surface temperature at 2.500 ft MSL is 95F and the dew point is 67 F?
- A6200 ft MSL
- B7400 ft MSL
- C8800 ft MSL
- D10,500 ft MSL
70Steady rain preceding a front is an indication of:
- AA broad area of frontal discontinuity
- BCumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence
- CA rapidly approaching cold front with cumuliform type clouds
- DAn approaching warm front with associated stratus and little or no turbulence
71Which statement is true with respect to a high or low pressure system?
- AA low pressure area trough is an area of descending air.
- BA high pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air
- CA high pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air
- DA low pressure area is a ridge of descending air
72The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus:
- AHeavy rain
- BVery strong turbulence
- CHeavy icing conditions
- DAn approaching storm
73What is the embedded thunderstorms?
- AThunderstorms have been visually sighted
- BSevere thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line
- CThunderstorms are predicated to develop in stable air mass
- DThunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen
74Frontal waves normally form on:
- ASlow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
- BSlow moving warm fronts or occluded fronts
- CRapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts
- DStationary fronts or occluded fronts
75What is the important characteristic of wind shear?
- AIt usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms but may be found near a strong temperature inversion
- BIt can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction
- CIt occurs primarily at the lower levels and is usually associated with mountain wave
- DIt exists in horizontal direction only and is normally found near a jet stream
76A wing is said to be tapered if:
- AIt is inclined upwards from root to tip.
- BThe chord at the wingtip is less than the chord at the root.
- CThe incidence at the tip is less than at the root.
- DThe camber is increased at the wingtip.
77Downwash is:
- AThe decrease in the angle of incidence from root to tip of the wing.
- BThe higher speed airspeed behind the propeller.
- CThe downward deflection of the airflow behind the wing.
- DThe downward slope of a wing from root to tip.
78At positive angles of attack, a wing produces most lift at:
- A4° angle of attack.
- BWings level.
- CJust before the stall.
- DJust after the stall.
79Stall Speed in a turn is proportion to:
- AThe square root of the load factor.
- BWeight.
- CLift.
- DTAS squared.
80When Fowler flaps are deployed?
- AOnly the area increases.
- BThey move backwards then downwards.
- CThey move downwards then backwards.
- DThey move forwards.
81Dynamic longitudinal stability requires:
- AAn effective elevator.
- BA small CG range.
- CPositive static longitudinal stability.
- DA variable incidence (trimming) tailplane.
82Lift is the force acting perpendicular to the:
- AChord line
- BRelative wind
- CUpper surface of the wing
- DLower surface of the wing
83Which of the following is correct?
- AForm drag is the same as parasite drag.
- BSkin friction is the same as parasite drag.
- CInduced drag is the part of parasite drag.
- DNone of above.
84What is the relationship between true airspeed and angle of attack for generating the same amount of lift as altitude is increased:
- AThe same true airspeed and angle of attack.
- BA higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
- CThe lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.
- DThe lower true airspeed and lower angle of attack.
85A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing plan form, has a tendency to stall first at the:
- AWingtip providing adequate stall warning.
- BWing root providing adequate stall warning.
- CWingtip providing inadequate stall warning.
- DAll along of span at same rate and quantity.
86Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
- ASettling to the surface abruptly during landing.
- BBecoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
- CInability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff speeds.
- DA rapid rate of sink and absence of normal cushioning during landings.
87Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?
- ATabs
- BRudder
- CFlaps
- DSlats
88Rotation about the lateral axis of an airplane is known as:
- AYawing, and is controlled by the use of rudder.
- BRolling, and is controlled by the use of ailerons.
- CTurning, and is controlled by the use of ailerons.
- DPitching, and is controlled by the use of elevators.
89Choose the correct answer regarding HVOR standard service volume?
- AFrom station site up to 45,000 ft AGL the reception range is 40 NM.
- BFrom station site up to 60,000 ft AGL the reception range is 40 NM.
- CBetween 45,000 ft and 60,000 ft AGL the reception range is 130 NM.
- DBetween 18,000 ft and 45,000 ft AGL the reception range is 130 NM.
90When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the:
- ARadial 090°
- BRadial 180°
- CRadial 270°
- DRadial 360°
91Which one is correct?
- ARB=MH+MB
- BMH=RB+MB
- CMB=MH-RB
- DMB=MH+RB
92The OFF flag comes into view when:
- AFlying abeam the station.
- BThe signal receiving is too weak.
- CFlying toward the station with uncorrected selected course.
- DAll answers are correct.
93(Refer to Figure P-01) What is the optimum aircraft heading to intercept magnetic bearing 210° to the station?
- A150°
- B060°
- C330°
- D240°
94An moveable card ADF shows the bearing of a NDB as 020° and the heading of the airplane is 020° (M). In order to intercept an outbound course of 330° (from the NDB) at an angle of 40°, the airplanes heading should be altered to:
- A010°
- B330°
- C300°
- D040°
95What is the maximum DME error at a distance 10NM from station?
- A0.3 NM
- B0.5 NM
- C3 NM
- D5 NM
96A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:
- AThe temperature of the hottest cylinder.
- BThe temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading.
- CThe temperature of the coolest cylinder.
- DThe temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two.
97The auxiliary fuel pumps are:
- AMechanically driven by the engine and are connected in series with the main fuel booster pump.
- BMechanically driven by the engine and are connected in parallel with the main fuel booster pump.
- CElectrically driven and are connected in parallel with the main fuel booster pump.
- DElectrically driven and are connected in series with the main fuel booster pump.
98Prolonged running at low RPM may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:
- AExcessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
- BSparking plugs.
- COil pump.
- DFuel filter.
99The slipstream effect of a propeller is most prominent at:
- ALow airspeeds with high power setting.
- BHigh airspeeds with low power setting.
- CHigh airspeeds with high power setting.
- DLow airspeeds with low power setting.
100The operating principle of the float-type carburetor is based on:
- ADecrease in air velocity in the throat of a venturi, causing an increase in air pressure.
- BDifference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
- CThe shape of the venturi that creates an area of high pressure.
- DA & C are correct.
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- Quiz on PPL ***, created by mehdi mohaqeq on 29/06/2017.
- Author
- mehdi mohaqeq
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